ENT Disease and Audiometry Flashcards

1
Q

what is the name of the test that involved placing a tuning fork on behind and next to the ear to compare which area hears its sound best?

A

rinne’s test

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2
Q

what part of the bone is the tuning fork placed on in rennie’s test?

A

mastoid process

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3
Q

what does webers test involve?

A

placing tuning fork in the midline of the forehead and asking the patient if they feel the vibration more in the forehead or an ear

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4
Q

what does the “x” stand for on an audiogram?

A

left ear

right is never wrong

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5
Q

what does ] stand for on an audiogram?

A

bone conduction

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6
Q

what does a tympanogram measure?

A

pressure

tests if the TM is mobile

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7
Q

name the 6 components of the D principle

A
deafness
discomfort
discharge
dizziness
din din (tinnitus)
defective facial movement
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8
Q

what nerves can cause earache?

A
V
VII
IX
X
C2
C3
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9
Q

name 3 conditions that can cause ear discharge?

A

acute otitis media
chronic otitis media
csf leak

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10
Q

what is otorrhoea?

A

ear discharge

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11
Q

what kind of ENT pain can refer to the ear and why?

A

tonsil/laryngeal pain

is in the path of the glossopharyngeal nerve

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12
Q

if ear discharge is clear what is it suspected to be and what would confirm this?

A

csf

glucose test

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13
Q

how could you tell if the cochlea was involved in vertigo?

A

if there was hearing loss too

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14
Q

presentation of defective facial movement in ear disease?

A

lower motor neurone problems

facial palsy

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15
Q

how is pain presented in otitis media?

A

worse when pus is retained

gets better when it is out

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16
Q

another word for “otitis media with effusion”

A

glue ear

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17
Q

pathophysiology of glue ear?

A

fluid present behind eardrum -> causes blocked eustachian tube -> middle ear can’t equalise pressure -> transudate collects

18
Q

Tx of glue ear?

A

nothing for 3 months

insert grommet or hearing aid for 6 months if not settling

19
Q

why is there significant hearing loss in chronic otitis media?

A

TM is destroyed

20
Q

where do cholesteatomas present on the TM?

A

upper part

21
Q

key hearing test used to determine hearing thresholds of patients?

A

pure tone audiometry

22
Q

what does the O stand for on an audiogram?

A

air conduction of the right ear

23
Q

what does the X stand for on an audiogram

A

air conduction of the left ear

24
Q

what does the triangle stand for on an audiogram?

A

bone conduction of the left and right ear

25
Q

what does masking do?

A

plays a narrow band noise to distract the ear that isnt being tested so you can get a true measurement of the tested ear

26
Q

sensorineural hearing loss is reversible T or F

A

F

27
Q

causes of sensorineural hearing loss?

A
regular, prolonged exposure to loud sounds
ototoxic drugs
rubella
neuroma
schwannoma
28
Q

how does the air and bone conduction compare in sensorineural hearing loss?

A

are the same

29
Q

how does the air and bone conduction compare in sensorineural hearing loss?

A

bone is better -> within normal limits

30
Q

cause of conductive hearing loss?

A

anything causing sound to not pass freely into the inner ear eg outer/middle ear problem:
glue ear
ear infection
perforated ear drums

31
Q

what audiogram feature would make you consider otosclerosis as the diagnosis?

A

carharts notch at 2000Hz (big dip in bone conduction)

32
Q

tympanometry is helpful in making the diagnosis of…

A

TM perforation

otitis media

33
Q

name the red flag symptoms of head and neck cancer?

A
odynophagia
neck lumps
hoarseness
stridor
sore throat
dysphagia
unilateral ear pain
34
Q

how long should ENT symptoms have lasted to be classed as a red flag symptom

A

3 weeks

35
Q

most common type of head and neck cancer?

A

squamous

36
Q

major lifestyle risk factors for head and neck cancer?

A

alcohol

tobacco

37
Q

what is the size of the tumour and nodes in an HPV head and neck cancer?

A

small tumour

big nodes

38
Q

1st line analgesia for pain from a cancer?

A

non opiod

+ adjuvant

39
Q

2nd line analgesia for pain from a cancer?

A

opioid for mild-mod pain
non-opioid
adjuvant

40
Q

what is an adjuvant analgesic?

A

painkillers whose primary indication is for something other than pain eg antidepressants

41
Q

what anticonvulsants are used in pain management?

A

gabapentin

pregabalin