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Year 6 > ENT > Flashcards

ENT Flashcards

1
Q

what is the comments cause of mouth cancer?
What is a RF?

A

squamous cell carcinoma (90%)

-> MSM is a RF because there is a higher incidence of HPV
-> smoking
-> viral infections (HPV-16, EBV0
-> exposure to radiation
-> occupational history (asbestos, acid mists, wood dust)
-> FH of head and neck cancers

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2
Q

What is battle sign?

A

bruising around the mastoid process

indicates petrous temporal bone #

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3
Q

what is the halo sign on testing in ear discharge?

A

indicates that there is a CSF leak

the halo sign is seen when dropping the fluid onto filter paper

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4
Q

What type of hearing loss does Ménière’s disease cause?

A

sensorineural (not conductive)

-> fluctuating, low to mid-frequency SNHL

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4
Q

What is the commonest cause of progressive deafness in young adults?

A

otosclerosis

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5
Q

What is Ménière’s disease?

A

caused by impaired endolymph resorption that results in endolymph hydrops (accumulation of fluid in the endolymph sac)

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6
Q

peak incidence age of meniere’s disease

A

40-50

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7
Q

is Meniere’s more common in men or women?

A

women

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8
Q

how long do attacks in Meniere’s disease last?

A

20 minutes to 12h

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9
Q

Sx of Ménière’s disease incl. triad

A

Meniere’s triad:
- peripheral vertigo
- tinnitus
- asymmetric fluctuating SNHL

may also have:
- spontaneous horizontal or horizontal rotary nystagmus (direction of nystagmus is variable and can change)
- N&V
- ear fullness

get recurrent episodes of acute, unilateral sx lasting minutes to hours

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10
Q

investigation findings in Meniere’s disease

A

Weber lateralises to healthy ear
Rinne is positive bilaterally

low- to mid frequency SNHL in the affected ear on audiometry

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11
Q

Treatment of Ménière’s disease

A
  • refer to ENT

Conservative:
- low sodium diet
- identification and avoidance of environmental and dietary triggers (e.g. caffeine, alcohol, nicotine, stress)

Medical:
- short term symptomatic therapy with vestibular suppressants (e.g. first gen antihistamines, benzodiazepines, antiemetics)
- diuretics (thiazides)
- betahistine

Interventional therapy
- chemical ablation wit intratympanic gentamicin (reduces attacks and improves vertigo sx)

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12
Q

NICE criteria for definite and probable dx of Ménière’s disease

A

A definite diagnosis requires all of the following criteria:
- Two or more spontaneous episodes of vertigo, each lasting 20 minutes to 12 hours.
- Audiometrically documented low-to-medium frequency sensorineural hearing loss in one ear, defining and locating to the affected ear on at least one occasion before, during, or after an episode of vertigo.
- Fluctuating aural symptoms (hearing loss, tinnitus, or fullness) in the affected ear.
- Not better accounted for by an alternative vestibular diagnosis.

A probable diagnosis requires all of the following criteria:
- Two or more episodes of vertigo or dizziness, each lasting 20 minutes to 24 hours.
- Fluctuating aural symptoms (hearing loss, tinnitus, or fullness) in the affected ear.
- Not better accounted for by an alternative vestibular diagnosis.

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13
Q

what causes Ménière’s disease?

A

exactly aetiology of endolymph malabsorption is unknown but viral infections, autoimmunity and allergies are thought to play a role

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14
Q

what is the beta 2 transferrin test used for?

A

to diagnose CSF leakage

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15
Q

What is Cahart’s notch?

A

a fip at 2kHz on audiometry

typical for otosclerosis

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16
Q

What is the first-line management of otosclerosis?

A

hearing aid

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17
Q

What is the commonest microbe causing otitis externa?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa (gram - ve rod)

followed by staph aureus
also fungal

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18
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa - what type of bacteria is it?

A

gram -ve rod

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19
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice in a neck lump? why?

A

USS -> allows for US guided biopsy

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20
Q

What is Reinke’s oedema? What is the main cause? What condition can it be linked to?

A

vocal cord oedema

it is a progressive problem caused by thickening of the vocal cords

main cause is chromic inflammation and irritation from smoking
commonly liked with hypothyroidism

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21
Q

what are the symptoms of vestibular schwannoma?

A

unilateral SNHL
tinnitus
balance problems

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22
Q

what is hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia and what ENT presentation does it predispose to?

A

it is an AD disorder characterised by telangiectasua on the skin and mucous membranes
–> these malformations can occur within the nasal mucosa and are prone to bleeding (epistaxis)

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23
Q

Management of a pinna haematoma

A

incision with primary closure (decompress the haematoma within 24h of injury to avoid complications such as avascular necrosis)

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24
Q

What are the indications for an ENT referral within 24h

A
  • sudden onset (over 3d or less) unilateral or bilateral hearing loss which occurred within the past 30d and cannot be explained by external or middle ear causes
  • unilateral hearing loss associated with focal neurology (such as altered sensation or facial droop)
  • hearing loss associated with head or neck injury
  • hearing loss associated with severe infection such as necrotizing otitis externa or Ramsay Hunt syndrome
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25
Q

What are red flags in nasal polyps?

A

unilateral
bleeding

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26
Q

black hairy tongue

A
  • benign condition characterized by elongation and discoloration of the filiform papillae on the dorsal surface of the tongue
  • it can cause discomfort and tickling sensation
  • generally asymptomatic and can be managed by good oral hygiene practices
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27
Q

RF for otitis externa

A

trauma
cotton buds
swimming
Immunosuppression
T2DM

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28
Q

mx of otitis externa

A

ear swab, abx/steriod ear drops, microsuction and pope wick, water precautions (don’t use oral abx because they don’t penetrate)

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29
Q

what are red flags in otitis externa and what condition do they indicate?

A

pain out of proportion, cranial nerve palsy, worsening despite treatment

-> malignant OE / necrotising OE -> osteomyelitis of adjacent bones (temporal bone, skull base) -> need 6/52 of IV abx, commoner in elderly/T2DM

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30
Q

What is cholesteatoma?

A

Accumulation of benign keratinizing Squamous cells involving the middle ear -> skin in the wrong place

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31
Q

Sx of cholesteatoma

A

unilateral recurrent/ persistent ear discharge (painless otorrhoea)

unilateral conductive hearing loss

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32
Q

what can you see on otoscopy in otitis media?

A

Bulging, red, inflamed on otoscopy; exudate may be seen.

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33
Q

commonest causes of otitis media

A

70% viral
30% bacterial

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34
Q

management of otitis media

A

supportive management
if no improvement abx (elf, 5d course of amoxicillin)

if the pt gets mastoiditis as a complication, they will require admission

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35
Q

at what age is ‘glue ear’ / acute OM with effusion most common?

A

bimodal distribution

peaks at 2yo and 5yo

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36
Q

what can ‘glue ear’ / acute OM with effusion in adults indicate?

A

nasopharyngeal tumour

37
Q

‘glue ear’ / acute OM with effusion on otoscopy

A

looks bubbly

38
Q

management of ‘glue ear’ / acute OM with effusion

A

50% resolves spontaneously in 3monthss
In children you would use hearing aids and if not enough -> grommet

(in children you don’t want to wait it out because it will delay their speech development)

39
Q

what are the risks associated with grommet insertion?

A

tympanosclerosis, TM perf, recurrence

40
Q

what are the indications for grommet insertion?

A

inserted into the TM of children with glue ear / acute OM with effusion

41
Q

Causes of TM perf

A

trauma (e.g. ear buds), otitis media with effusion, grommet insertion

42
Q

Management of TM perforation

A
  • water precautions
  • Usually heal on their own in 2 months
  • if not resolved may need myringoplasty
43
Q

Causes of facial nerve palsy

A

trauma, infection (OM, Ramsay-Hunt), Stroke (forehead sparing),neoplastic (e.g. protid tumour) Bells palsy (idiopathic)

44
Q

What scale is used for facial nerve palsy?

A

House Brackman scale

45
Q

management of Ramsay Hunt syndrome

A

steroids
plus antivirals to cover for varicella zoster

also refer to ophthal for eye drops and advice on how to keep eye closed at night.

46
Q

management of facial nerve palsy

A

Address underlying cause
Eye care (-> refer to ophthal re drops and close eye at night)
Bells -> steroids
RH -> steroids plus antivirals for varicella zoster

47
Q

Causes of conductive hearing loss

A

Ear canal: FB, OE, ear wax

TM: perf, tympanosclerosis

Middle ear: otosclerosis, effusion, otitis media, otitis media with effusion (glue ear), cholesteatoma

48
Q

Causes of SNHL

A
  • acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma (rare), more gradual onset -> get MRI
  • sudden sensorineural hearing loss (needs urgent treatment with high dose steroids - the earlier the treatment, the better)
  • Presbyacusis (Bilateral sensorineural hearing loss (high pitch goes first)
  • noise induced
  • ototoxic meds (e.g, gentamicin)
  • meniere’s disease
  • Congenital
49
Q

Steps of otoscopy and ear examination

A
  1. Inspection
  2. Palpate mastoid process
  3. Otoscopy
    a. Pull pinna, put finger on the tragus
    b. Otoscope handle should align with patient glasses (Point forwards)
    c. Look down and more forward to see the light reflex
  4. Crude hearing test
  5. Rinne (512Hz)
  6. Weber (512Hz)
50
Q

Which test do you do first Weber or Rinne?

A

Rinne (R/L) first, then Weber (middle/forehead)

51
Q

What are the 2 types of otalgia?

A

-> primary or secondary?

If no other sx, think of secondary causes, might not be an ear problem but referred pain

52
Q

Do you need a scan in nasal fractures ?

A

no

usually you don’t because it won’t change your management

(unless you think there might be other bones broken or they meet the NICE criteria for CT head)

53
Q

What in a nasal bone # would require immediate treatment?

A

Nasal septal heamatoma
Must deal with it right away (drain) -> there is a risk of septal ischaemia

54
Q

management of nasal fractures

A
  • Is there a new change in shape of the noes or a new obstruction
    If yes, consider manipulation under anaesthetic, must be within 2 weeks (so before the bones start fusing) but not within the first week because of the swelling and difficulty visualising)?

usually no need for scan unless there is a separate indication e.g. head injury warranting CT under NICE guidelines or ?other broken bones

55
Q

Septoplasty and septorhinoplasty indication

(if post injury, when would you do it?)

A

septal deviation / bony vault deviation

  • Minimum 6-12 months post nasal injury (if not done within the first 2 w)
  • Not urgent surgery
56
Q

Septoplasty and septorhinoplasty types

A

External or endonasal approach

57
Q

What is rhinitis and what are the sx?

A
  • Nasal mucosa inflammation
    Sx: nasal congestion, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, post nasal drip
57
Q

Aetiology of rhinitis

A

allergic and non-allergic (pollution, tobacco, infection, vasculitis)

58
Q

Ix in rhinitis

A

skin prick

59
Q

Mx of rhinitis

A

nasal douching + xylometazoline (5 days only!!) + intranasal steroids + intranasal antihistamine spry
The steroids are low dose so no SE, but must take them for months, might only see results later

60
Q

What is rhinosinusitis? + sx and aetiology?

A
  • Nasal mucosa and paranasal sinus inflammation
  • Sx: rhinitis, nasal obstruction, facial headache, reduced sense of smell, more than 12 w
  • Allergic vs non allergic
61
Q

Ix in rhinosinusitis

A

CT sinuses

62
Q

Mx of rhinosinusitis

A
  • nasal douching
  • nose spray (e.g. 5days xylometazoline, steroids, antihistamines)
  • abx
  • FESS (surgical) -> functional endoscopic sinus surgery
    Indication: chronic rhinosinusitis
    To remove diseased tissue incl. polyps
63
Q

what is FESS and what are the indications?

A

functional endoscopic sinus surgery

Indication: chronic rhinosinusitis
To remove diseased tissue incl. polyps

64
Q

what are possible complications of rhinosinusitis?

A
  • Cavernous sinus thrombosis
  • Pre-septal cellulitis / orbital cellulitis (emergency because can easily compress the optic nerve)
65
Q

What are the symptoms of cavernous sinus thrombosis?

A

Headache
Signs associated with intracranial hypertension
Bilateral papilledema
Vision impairment (diplopia, vision loss)
N&V
Seizures (focal or generalized)
Signs of cranial nerve dysfunction, including: Cavernous sinus syndrome

66
Q

Steps of nose examination

A
  • Inspection
    • Feel over sinuses
    • Non dominant hand for holding the instrument to open the nose
    • Look at septum
    • Look back at the nose to see if you can see the inferior turbinate and if there are any issues there

Sometimes flexible nasendoscopy is used

67
Q

examples of midline neck lumps

A
  • Goitre / thyroid pathology
    • Thyroglossal cyst
    • Dermoid cyst
68
Q

examples of anterior triangle neck lumps

A
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Sebaceous cyst
  • Aneurysms
  • Carotid body tumour / carotid pathology
  • Submandibular glands
  • Lipoma
69
Q

examples of posterior triangle neck lumps

A
  • Cystic hygroma
  • Sebaceous cyst
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Cervical rib
70
Q

What are brachial cysts?

A

Congenital anomalies arising from 1st to 4th pharyngeal pouches

71
Q

what structures make up the anterior and posterior triangles of the neck?

A

anterior: midline of neck, mandible, anterior border of sternocleidomastoid

posterior: posterior border of sternocleidomastoid muscle (anteriorly), anterior border of the trapezius muscle (posteriorly) , middle 1/3 of the clavicle (inferiorly)

72
Q

what is a cystic hygroma?

A
  • Rare
    • Presents in children in the posterior triangle
    • Transilluminates
      May obstruct the airway so has to be operated on
73
Q

name congenital neck lumps

A

thyroglossal cyst
brachial cleft cyst
cystic hygroma

https://next.amboss.com/us/article/aP0QWT?q=cystic%20hygroma#GlcByc0

74
Q

What is Zenker’s diverticulum? Who dies it affect and what symptoms does it cause and what ix?

A

pharyngeal pouch
- Commoner in older men
- Halitosis, food regurgitation, dysphagia
- Ix: barium swallow

75
Q

What is quinsy and how do you manage it?

A
  • Peritonsillar abscess
    • Between the tonsil and the pharyngeal wall
    • Mx: hot potato voice
    • Unilateral pain (this condition is unilateral)
    • Trismus (all muscles in the area clench up and they cannot open their mouth)
      Mx: IV BenPen & metronidazole, IVF, steroids, analgesia; requires aspiration or incision & drainage
76
Q

indications and risks of tonsillectomy

A
  • Indications: recurrent tonsillitis, malignancy, obstructive sleep apnoea in children
    • (7+ in 1yr, 5+ for 2y, 3+ every year for 3 y)
      Risks: bleeding, pain (particularly after 5d), infection, dental/lip/jaw injury
77
Q

what is Sialadenitis and what causes it?

A
  • Inflammation of the salivary glands
    RF: poor dental hygiene, dehydration
      ○ Viral (mumps, coxsackie, parainfluenza)
  ○ Stones
  ○ Bacterial 
  ○ Chronic scarring
  ○ Benign/malignant tumours ○ Granulomatous conditions
78
Q

Ix in sialadenitis?

A

USS ?abscess or recurrent presentation

79
Q

mx of sialadenitis

A

oral abx, sialgogues (citrus), analgesia

80
Q

Rf for head and neck cancers

A
  • Smoking
    • Alcohol
    • Betel nut
    • Chronic dental infection
    • Immunosuppression
    • Sun exposure (lips)
    • HPV - oropharyngeal
    • EBV - nasopharyngeal
81
Q

reasons for tracheostomy

A

ITU
Gradual Weaning on ITU
Long term: brain injury, trauma
Airway obstruction or when one is anticipated

82
Q

reasons for laryngectomy

A

Advanced laryngeal malignancy
Post-traumatic laryngeal stenosis

83
Q

what are the main differences between tracheostomy and laryngectomy

A

Laryngectomy: mainly because of laryngeal cancer -> new anatomy made. There is a separate tube to the oesophagus and the lung; this patient can never be intubated vi the mouth or receive oxygen via the mouth.

Difference can be seen because hole in laryngectomy is bigger; angle is different. Tubes are different;
In emergencies, you would give air over mouth and tube in laryngectomy

84
Q

What medicolegal things do you have to tell patients with anosmia?

A

they need to have a working gas and smoke detector

they might not be able to smell a gas leak or smoke

85
Q

Duration of vestibular neuritis

A

acute phase of vertigo usually lasts a few days and sx typically resolve in 2-3 weeks with treatment

86
Q

What is the management of vestibular neuritis

A
  • treat sx (e.g. antiemetics, vestibular suppressants
  • reassure that sx should improve in weeks
  • do not drive with vertigo
  • if they cannot keep any food down, refer to hospital
87
Q

What is the key difference in presentation of labyrinthitis and vestibular neuritis?

A

Unlike the differential diagnosis of labyrinthitis, vestibular neuronitis is not associated with hearing loss or tinnitus.

both can follow a viral infection (URTI mainly)

88
Q

Mx of labyrinthitis

A

usually self-limiting

can give antihistamine or prochlorperazine for sx relief (dizziness)

Year 6 (37 decks)

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