Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine > ENT > Flashcards

ENT Flashcards

1
Q

what is cholesteatoma?

A

abnormal collection on squamous epithelial cells in the middle ear
it is non-cancerous but can invade local tissues and nerves and erode the bones of the middle ear
predisposes to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the cause of cholesteatoma?

A

not fully understood
complication of otitis media
squamous epithelial cells originate from outer surface of tympanic membrane
negative pressure in middle ear (Eustacian tube dysfunction) causes a pocket of tympanic membrane to retract to the middle ear
squamous cells continue to proliferate and can damage the ossicles > permanent damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the presentation of cholesteatoma on history and exam?

A

history: foul discharge from ear, unilateral conductive hearing loss, otalgia, headache; also: vertigo, facial nerve palsy, infection
exam: otoscopy = an area of white debris/ crust in the attic behind the tympanic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the investigations for cholesteatoma?

A

audiology assessment
CT (confirm diagnosis and plan for surgery)
MRI (can help to assess invasion and damage to local soft tissues)
referral to ENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the treatment of cholesteatoma?

A

surgical removal of cholesteatoma

treat any discharge for infection with Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is matoiditis?

A

inflammation of mastoid air cells within petrous temporal bone
acute = complication of acute otitis media leading to abscess formation and is life-threatening
most common in children
increased incidence in children with learning disabilities and autism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the cause of matoiditis?

A

acute is usually secondary to bacterial infection: STREP PNEUMONIAE, staph aureus, strep pyogenes, haemophilus influenzae
initially hyperaemia and oedema of mastoid air cell mucosa
inflammation and swelling leads to blockage of drainage > serous then purulent exudate collects in air cells
increased pressure in air system > bone necrosis of tiny bone septae
pus and abscess cavity forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the RF of mastoiditis?

A 
recurrent acute otitis media
age
learning difficulties
immunocompromise
anatomical abnormalities e.g. cholesteatoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the history and exam of mastoiditis?

A

history =
children: ear pulling, ear pain, irritability, persistent fever despite Abx, lethargy, reduced oral intake, diarrhoea
adults: severe otalgia, ottorhoea, headache, hearing loss, persistent fever despite Abx, vertigo
exam =
external: post-auricular erythema, tenderness, swelling and fluctuance, proptosed auricle, loss of post-auricular sulcus, evidence of sepsis
otoscopy: bulging tympanic membrane, bulging/sagging of posterior-superior wall of external auditory canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the complications of mastoiditis?

A

reduced LOC
facial nerve palsy
abducens nerve palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the investigations for mastoiditis?

A

labs: FBC (high WCC), U&E (baseline renal function for Abx), CRP (high), lactate (high in sepsis), blood cultures (for organism and Abx choice)
send purulent middle ear fluid for MC&S
LP if intra-cranial extension
imaging: CT scan of temporal bones (progression) > mastoid air cell and middle ear opacification, loss of wall, haziness/distortion of mastoid outline, abscess formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the management of mastoiditis?

A

immediate: ABCDE, NBM/fasted for surgery, analgesia
medical: broad-spec IV Abx e.g. IV piperacillin and tazobactam (tazocin), or metronidazole and ciprofloxacin (if penicillin allergy)
surgical: tympanocentesis, myringotomy +/- grommet/tube insertion, cortical mastiodectomy
pure-tone audiometry to exclude persistent conductive hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is a Eustachian tube dysfunction?

A

when the tube between the middle ear and throat is not functioning
Eustachian tube equalises air pressure int he middle ear and drains fluid from the middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the cause of Eustachian tube dysfunction?

A

when the ET is not functioning/blocked, the air pressure cannot equalise and fluid cannot drain
air pressure between the middle ear and environment is not equal
the middle ear can fill with fluid
this can be related to a viral URTI, allergies or rhinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the presentation of Eustachian tube dysfunction?

A

reduced hearing, popping noises or sensations in the ear, fullness sensation in the ear, pain or discomfort, tinnitus
symptoms get worse when external air pressure changes and the middle ear pressure cannot equalise
otoscopy: can be normal, but need to exclude signs of otitis media etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the investigations for Eustachian tube dysfunction?

A

if clear cause, no need
in persistent/severe symptoms: tympometry (peak admittance and negative pressure), audiometry, nasopharyngoscopy, CT scan to assess structural pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the management of Eustachian tube dysfunction?

A

none
valsalva manoeuvre (pop ears with nose)
decongestant nasal sprays
antihistamines and steroid nasal sprays for allergies/rhinitis
otovent device
surgery if severe: 1. adenoidectomy, 2. grommets, 3. balloon dilatation Eustachian tuboplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is vertigo?

A

the hallucination of rotation due to the abnormal stimulation of hair cells of the vestibular system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the pathology of vertigo?

A

sensory inputs = 1. vision 2. propioception 3. vestibular system signals
vertigo is a mismatch between these sensory inputs
can be peripheral (affects vestibular) or central (involves brainstem/cerebellum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the causes of vertigo?

A

peripheral: BPPV, Meniere’s disease, vestibular neuronitis, labyrinthitis; trauma, otosclerosis, Ramsey-Hunt
central: posterior circulation infarction (stroke), tumour, MS, vestibular migraine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is BPPV and what is its presentation?

A

crystals of calcium carbonate called otoconia that become displaced in semicircular canals
may be displaced by a viral infection, head trauma, ageing or no clear cause
crystals disrupt the normal flow through the canals > disrupt the function of the system
features: induced by change in position, vertigo lasts from seconds to minutes, a/w nausea, torsional nystagmus and can be fatigued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which investigation is used for BPPV?

A

Dix Hallpike test - will be positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is Meniere’s disease and what is the presentation?

A

caused by excessive build up of endolymph in the semicircular canals, causing a higher pressure than normal, disrupting the sensory signals
features: acute episodes of = loss of hearing, tinnitus, vertigo, sensation of fullness of ear
attacks last several hours before settling
most often occurs in middle aged adults
NOT ASSOCIATED WITH MOVEMENT/POSITION
spontaneous nystagmus during attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is vestibular neuronitis and what is the presentation?

A

inflammation of the vestibular nerve
usually URTI (viral)
features: sudden onset vertigo, lasts several days to weeks, a/w N/V, NO hearing loss/tinnitus, horizontal nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is labyrinthitis and what is the presentation?

A

inflammation of structures of the inner ear
viral infection
features: acute onset of vertigo that improves after a few weeks, causes hearing loss (different vestibular neuronitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is posterior circulation infarction and what is the presentation?

A

sudden onset, a/w ataxia, diplopia, cranial nerve defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the presentation of tumours that cause vertigo?

A

gradual onset, a/w cerebellar/brain dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the presentation of MS with vertigo?

A

may cause relapsing and remitting symptoms

a/w optic neuritis or transverse myelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the presentation of vestibular migraine?

A

symptoms last from mins to 72 hours

a/w stress, bright lights, strong smells, food, dehydration, menstruation, abnormal sleep patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

which acronym is used for cerebellar signs in vertigo?

A 
DANISH:
Dysdiadokinesis
Ataxic gait
Nystagmus
Intention tremor
Speech (slurred)
Heel to Shin test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the investigations for vertigo?

A

central vertigo: CT scan/MRI for cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the management of vertigo?

A

peripheral:
short term = prochlorperazine (vestibular sedative) and antihistamine (cyclizine and prometrazine)
Meniere’s = betahistine reduces attacks
vestibular migraine = avoid triggers, medical = triptans, propanolol, topiramate or amitriptyline all prevent
BPPV = Epley’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the salivary gland sections?

A

parotid, submandibular, sublingual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is sialedenitis and what are the RF?

A

inflammation of salivary glands
normally 2nd to stone formation (sialolithiasis)
RF: poor oral hygiene/dehydration, infective (mumps) and autoimmune (sarcoidosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the management of sialadenitis?

A

IV Abx, try to express stone, surgery if recurrent, citrus and lime increases salivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is sialolithiasis and the presentation?

A

the presence of calculi in the glands/ducts
typically calcium phosphate and hydroxyapatite
intermittent pain that is worse before and during meals
most involve whorton ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the pathology and management of salivary tumours?

A

80% are parotid glands (and submandibular) - most benign
most sublingual tumours are malignant
malignant parotid tumour will cause a facial nerve palsy
if present for over 1 month REMOVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what does infectious mononucleosis cause?

A

lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are the causes of infectious mononucleosis?

A

caused by infection of EBV
most affects young adults
found in saliva of infected individuals
may spread by kissing or sharing cups, toothbrushes…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the presentation of infectious mononucleosis?

A

fever, sore throat, fatigue, lymphadenopathy

can present with an intensely itchy maculopapular rash in response to amoxicillin/cephalosporins

41
Q

what are the investigations for infectious mononucleosis?

A

1st: monospot test

can also test for IgM (acute) and IgG (immunity) to EBV

42
Q

what is the management of infectious mononucleosis?

A

supportive

patients should avoid alcohol (risk of liver impairment) and contact sports (risk of splenic rupture)

43
Q

what is lymphoma?

A

a group of cancers that affect lymphocytes in the lymphatic system
these cancerous cells proliferate within the lymph nodes and cause lymphadenopathy

44
Q

what are the causes of lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin: specific disease; 1/5 are HL and has bimodal age distribution:, caused by proliferation of lymphocytes leading to malignant lymphoma > presence of Reed-Sternburg cells; RF: EBV, HIV, immunosuppression, smoking
Non-Hodgkin: cause is unknown; a/w EBV (Burkitt’s lymphoma) and H. pylori increases incidence of gastric MALT lymphoma; compression syndromes can be PC, can be congenital immunodeficiency and transplant

45
Q

what is the presentation of lymphoma?

A

LYMPHADENOPATHY: non-tender, rubbery; some experience pain in lymph nodes when they drink alcohol
B-symptoms: fever, weight loss, night sweats
NHL: compression symptoms e.g. GI tract, thyroid, hepatomegaly…

46
Q

what is the presentation difference between Hodgkin and Non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

NHL: symmetrical lymphadenopathy and B-symptoms more likely, also compression syndrome symptoms

47
Q

what are the investigations for lymphoma?

A

bloods e.g. elevated ESR, normocytic anaemia
CT scan
LYMPH NODE BIOPSY: histology for Reed-Sternburg cells
Ann-Arbor staging system

48
Q

what is the treatment for lymphoma?

A

chemotherapy and radiotherapy

49
Q

what is leukaemia?

A

cancer of a particular line of stem cells in bone marrow

50
Q

what is the cause of leukaemia?

A

unregulated production of a certain type of blood cell
4 types: acute myeloid, acute lymphoblastic, chronic myeloid, chronic lymphocytic
AML: most common acute in adults
ALL: most common in children
myeloid = e.g. neutrophils
lymphatic = e.g. B cells

51
Q

what is the typical presentation of leukaemia?

A

fever, fatigue, pallor, petechiae and abnormal bruising (thrombocytopenia), abnormal bleeding, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly

52
Q

what is the investigation for leukaemia?

A

URGENT FBC

53
Q

what is the management of leukaemia?

A

chemotherapy

54
Q

what are the characteristic differences between the following?

  1. thyroid swelling
  2. thyroglossal cyst
  3. branchial cyst
  4. cystic hygroma
A
  1. moves up on swallowing
  2. more common in <20 y.o., usually midline, moves up on protrusion
  3. oval, mobile cystic mass, between sternocleidomastoid muscle and pharynx (anterior triangle), evident w. infection
  4. found at brith, left posterior triangle
55
Q

what is the cause of carotid body tumours?

A

it is a structure located jus above the carotid bifurcation
it contains glomus cells which are chemoreceptors that detect the blood’s O2, CO2 and pH
groups of glomus = paraganglia
they are formed by excessive growth of glomus cells = paragangliomas
most are benign

56
Q

what is the presentation of carotid body tumours?

A

slow-growing lump that is:
in upper anterior triangle of neck, painless, pulsatile, a/w bruits, mobile side-to-side but NOT up and down
they can compress CN 9, 10, 11 and 12
pressure on vagus nerve = Horner’s: ptosis, miosis and anhidrosis

57
Q

what are the investigations for carotid body tumours?

A

24 hour urine sample

CT contrast or MRI > splaying (separating) of internal and external carotids (lyre sign)

58
Q

what is the management of carotid body tumours?

A

mostly surgical removal

59
Q

what is a lipoma and what is the presentation?

A

benign tumour of fat (adipose) tissue
anywhere on the body
solitary, painless, rubbery, smooth mass, mobile, do NOT cause skin changes

60
Q

what is the presentation of thyroglossal cysts?

A 
midline of neck
movile
non-tender
soft
fluctuant
moves w. tongue protrusion
61
Q

what is the cause of branchial cysts?

A

congenital abnormality when the 2nd branchial cleft fails to form properly
leaves a space surrounded by epithelial tissue in lateral neck
this can fill with fluid

62
Q

what is the presentation of branchial cysts?

A

round, soft, cystic swelling
between angle of jaw and sternocleidomastoid
anterior triangle
present > 10yrs in young adults w. notice/ infection

63
Q

which conditions cause deafness?

A

presbycusis, otosclerosis, glue ear (otitis media w. effusion), Meniere’s disease, drug ototoxicity, acoustic neuroma

64
Q

what is presbycusis?

A

B-related sensorineural hearing loss

65
Q

what is the presentation of Bell’s palsy?

A

typical: rapid onset <72 hours of unilateral facial weakness
also: post-auricular pain/ ear pain, incomplete eye closure, drooling, tingling (cheeks and mouth), hyperacusis
Bell’s sign = upward and outward movement of eye when attempting to close it
NO forehead sparing

66
Q

what is the management of Bell’s palsy?

A

largely supportive
prednisolone can be used in those <72 hours onset
anti-virals (aciclovir) can be used in combo
eye-care

67
Q

what is sinusitis?

A

inflammation of paranasal sinuses and nasal cavity due to infection

68
Q

what is the cause of acute and chronic sinusitis?

A

acute = up to 4 weeks
chronic = more than 12 weeks
subacute = 4-12 weeks
viral is most common (rhinovirus, influenza, parainfluenza)
bacterial: most commonly occurs 2nd to infection of inflamed paranasal sinuses, following a viral infection or other clearance problems = strep pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae, staph. aureus

69
Q

what is the presentation of of sinusitis?

A

symptoms: 1. purulent nasal discharge 2. facial pressure 3. nasal obstruction
others: fever, fatigue, headache, ear pressure
viral is shorter and milder
exam: purulent discharge in nasal cavity, facial swelling, palpable cheek tenderness, facial redness

70
Q

what is the management of sinusitis?

A

viral: symptomatic relief = oral analgesics, saline nasal irrigation or intranasal corticosteroids
bacterial: amoxicillin

71
Q

what are the cause of sensorineural hearing loss?

A

sudden, presbycusis, noise exposure, Meniere’s, labyrinthitis, acoustic neuroma, neuro (stroke, MS, brain tumours), meningitis, meds (loop diuretics, gentamicin, chemo drugs)

72
Q

what are the causes of conductive hearing loss?

A

ear wax, infection (otitis media and externa), effusion, Eustachian tube dysfunction, perforated tympanic membrane, otosclerosis, cholesteatoma, exostoses, tumours

73
Q

what are the RF for epistaxis?

A

rhinitis, viral/bacterial sinusitis, freq use of nasal steroids, anti-coag/platelet

74
Q

what are the causes of epistaxis?

A

anterior (most in Little’s area) or posterior

secondary causes: trauma, intranasal drugs, weather, deviated septum, tumours, systemic

75
Q

what is the presentation of epistaxis?

A

if both nostrils > posterior > high risk of aspiration
duration, uni/bilateral, previous?
PMH: alcohol and drugs, PMH of bleeding, bruising/blood transfusions
DH: anti-coag, intranasal sprays

76
Q

what is the management of epistaxis?

A

emergency: massive haemorrhage and airway compromise, ABCDE, pinch soft cartilage and lean forward, ice pack
anterior: 1. chemical/electrical cautery, local anaesthetic, topic vasoconstriction, 2. nasal packing
posterior: nasal packing

77
Q

what is a nasal septal haematoma?

A

blood collects in the space between the septal cartilage and overlying perichondrium

78
Q

what is the cause of nasal septal haematoma?

A

rare but serious complication of trauma
haematoma may deprive septal cartilage of its blood supply from overlying mucosa and can lead to permanent issues
septal cartilage has no blood supply of its own, therefore it receives all its nutrients and oxygen form the perichondrium
haematoma causes ischaemia and necrosis which leads to a saddle nose deformity

79
Q

what are the symptoms of nasal septal haematoma?

A

symptoms: blockage in breathing, change in nose shape, painful swelling of nasal septum, nasal congestion
bulging of septum

80
Q

what is the management of nasal septal haematoma?

A

drain it immediately otherwise it leads to a saddle nose

81
Q

what is the cause of tinnitus?

A

background sensory signal produced by cochlea that is not filtered out by auditory system
primary
secondary: impacted ear wax, Meniere’s, noise exposure, meds, acoustic neuroma, MS, trauma, depression
systemic = anaemia, diabetes, hypothyroidism, hyperlipidaemia
objective: carotid artery stenosis, AS, arteriovenous malformations, Eustachian tube dysfunction

82
Q

what are the red flags of tinnitus?

A

unilateral, pulsatile, a/w hearing loss, vertigo/dizziness

83
Q

what is quinsy?

A

peritonsillar abscess as a complication of acute tonsillitis where pus collects in peritonsillar space
if left untreated > deep neck space infection

84
Q

what is the pathology of quinsy?

A

abscess collects lateral to palatine tonsils in the peritonsillar space between palatine tonsils and pharyngeal mucosa

85
Q

what is the presentation of quinsy?

A

symptoms: sore throat, change in voice, inability to swallow
exam: trismus (inability to open mouth fully), bulging palatine, signs of sepsis

86
Q

what is the cause of tonsilitis?

A

viral (more common) or bacterial
also non-infectious
viral: rhinovirus! coronavirus, parainfluenza, EBV
bacterial: Group A beta haemolytic strep! haemophilus influenza, moraxella catarrhalis
non-inifective: GORD, NG tube

87
Q

what is the criteria for a bacterial tonsilitis?

A 
CENTOR: FLAT
fever
lymphadenopathy
absence of cough
tonsillar exudate
88
Q

what is the treatment of bacterial tonsilitis?

A

Abx: phenoxymethylpenicillin x10 days OR clarithromycin 5 days
AVOID AMOXICILLIN
chronic = tonsillectomy

89
Q

what is otitis externa?

A 
inflammation of the ear canal
acute < 3 weeks
chronic > 3 weeks
all ages
increases in summer due to humidity and water exposure
90
Q

what is the cause of otitis externa?

A

infectious:
bacterial = 90%: pseudomonas aeruginosa, staph. aureus
fungal = 10%: usually follow prolonged use of topical Abx +/- corticosteroids, candida albicans (white), aspergillus niger (black)
non-infectious:
skin conditions: atopic dermatitis, psoriasis, acne; can lead to bacterial infection

91
Q

what are the RF of otitis externa?

A

humidity, increasing age, derm issues, Down’s (narrow ear canal), immunosuppression and diabetes

92
Q

what is the presentation of otitis externa?

A
  1. otalgia, discharge, itch
  2. hearing loss (only if becomes blocked), fever
    exam: inflammation of tympanic membrane can be hard to see due to ear canal stenosis, lympadenopathy, conductive loss on tuning fork
    necrotising otitis externa > facial n. palsy
93
Q

what are the investigations for otitis externa?

A

clinical diagnosis

MC&S pf discharge for treatment

94
Q

what is the management of otitis externa?

A

topical Abx: AVOID aminoglycosides (gentamicin) with a perforated tympanic membrane, prescribe quinolones instead; freq use gentisone = gentamicin + hydrocortisone / cirpofloxacin
DO NOT USE ORAL Abx:
1. cellulitis extends beyond external ear canal
2. people with compromised immunity/severe infection
3. if recommended by ENT
analgesia, remove debris (ENT)

95
Q

what is the main complication of otitis externa?

A 
necrotising otitis externa
infection spreads beyond soft tissue of ear canal > osteomyelitis of temporal bone and skull base
non-resolving despite topical treatment
psuedomonas aeruginosa
typically older and diabetic patients
96
Q

what are the types of otitis media?

A
  1. acute otitis media: inflammation of middle ear, < 3weeks, 2nd to URTI
  2. acute aupprative otitis media: complication of otitis media, perforation of tympanic membrane, macropurulent (pus) discharge
  3. otitis media w. effusion: GLUE EAR, middle ear infection w/o signs of infection, when fluid collects in middle ear = pain and hearing loss, 2nd to recurrent inflammation
97
Q

what is the cause of otitis media?

A

bacteria: 1. strep pneumoniae 2. haemophilus influenzae, strep. pyogenes, moraxella catarrhalis
viral: resp synctail virus, rhinovirus, adenovirus
often preceded by URTI

98
Q

what is the presentation of otitis media?

A

cold symptoms, reactive lymphadenopathy in AOM
young: tugging ear, irritability, fever
older: 1. otalgia and hearing loss 2. fever and ear discharge
adults get hearing loss and pain until perforation, then they have discharge with some relieved pain
exam: inspect pinna for otorrhoea and erythema
AOM = red, bulging and tender tympanic membrane
ASOM = discharge
OME = dull yellow/grey bulging tympanic membrane, loss of light reflex and visible fluid level or bubbles behind tympanic membrane

99
Q

what is the management of otitis media?

A

AOM: analgesia and anti-pyretics (paracetamol and ibuprofen), Abx: 1 amoxicillin 2 clarithromycin/erythromycin; resistant = co-amoxiclav
OME: self-limiting, grommets +/- adenoidectomy if hearing loss

Medicine (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions