Drug Random Flashcards

1
Q

what type of drug is methotrexate?

A

it is an anti-folate where it inhibits DNA synthesis inducing immunosupression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the side effects of ciclosporin?

A
the 5H's:
hypertrophy of gums
hypertrichosis
hypertension
hyperkalaemia
hyperglycaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the side effects of isotretinoin?

A

Dry skin and lips
Photosensitivity of skin
Depression, anxiety, aggression and suicidal ideation. Patients should be screened for mental health issues prior to starting treatment.
Rarely Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is etanercept used for?

A

treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis and ankylosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the signs of tricyclic antidepressant overdose?

A

impairment of perspiration resulting in fevers, seizures, sinus tachycardia, hypotension, decreased salivation, hypokalaemia and acidosis
causes wide QRS > ventricular arrhythmias
: dilated pupils, dry skin, confusion and urinary retention and tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the treatment for tricyclic antidepressants overdose?

A

sodium bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which 2 meds should not be used together when managing arrhythmias and why?

A

calcium channel and beta blockers

they may cause severe AV block and hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the prophylaxis treatment of migraine?

A

propanolol (if woman of child-bearing age and taking OCP) or topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

an 80 year old man presents with a slate grey rash that has worsened during his prolonged holiday abroad. which med has caused this?

A

amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a 48 year old man presents to his GP after a short-lived headache that started within a minute of taking his newly prescribed meds. which meds have caused this?

A

GTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the rational for using benzodiazepines for alcohol withdrawal?

A

alcohol withdrawal leads to GABA deficiency, benzodiazepines facilitate GABA-A binding to its receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the early symptoms of aspirin overdose?

A
DAFT HID
deafness
appears flushed
fever
tinnitus
hyperventilation
increased sweating
dizziness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the mechanism of action of local anaesthetics?

A

reversible sodium channel blockade in nerve endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the symptoms of a lithium overdose?

A

neurological symptoms: myoclonic jerks and twitches, confusion and seizures
cardiac dysrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which drug chemically resembles thyroxine and so can cause thyroid dysfuntion?

A

amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the common side effects of tamsulosin?

A

dizziness, postural hypotension and dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which cells do bisphosphonates act on?

A

osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is an important side effect of carbimazole?

A

agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which meds used for epilepsy causes cerebellar syndrome? what is this?

A

phenytoin

e.g. wide-based gait, past pointing and intention tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

a 47 year old man who has recently started treatment for TB complains of red-orange discolouration of his urine and tears. which med has caused this?

A

rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which med used for treatment of TB is likely to have a glove and stocking distribution of paraesthesia of the extremities?

A

isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

are C-peptide levels high in an insulinoma or factitious insulin use?

A

C-peptide rises with insulin levels as it is secreted with it
therefore, an insulinoma has a high C-peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which route is contraindicated with for testosterone admin?

A

IV - it is an oily substance and so could cause respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is tardive dyskinesia?

A

a largely irreversible side effect of long term anti-psychotic therapy e.g. haloperidol, resulting in stereotyped oral-facial movements
patients usually have some sort of lip smacking, grimacing, tongue movements or excessive blinking

25
Q

which mandatory blood tests are needed for amiodarone admin?

A

U/E, LFT, and TFT

26
Q

which med overdose causes metabolic acidosis and hypoventilation?

A

tricyclic antidepressants

27
Q

what drug class is trazadone?

A

it is an antidepressant - not an SSRI but close to one

28
Q

give 2 examples of sympathomimetics

A

cocaine and amphetamines

29
Q

what is the best advice to give to a patient taking bisphosphonates?

A

take with a glass of water at least 30 mins before breakfast and remain upright until after breakfast

30
Q

what colour tinge does digoxin cause colour vision to go?

A

when toxic, turns yellow

31
Q

what is the mechanism of an ACE inh-related cough?

A

increased bradykinin

32
Q

what is the main mechanism of action of metformin?

A

inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis and inhibits lactate dehydrogenase in the gut and liver

33
Q

which anti-arrhythmic blocks potassium channels?

A

amiodarone

34
Q

which bloods should be done before commencing methotrexate treatment?

A

FBC, LFTs, U&Es, eGFR, CXR and spirometry

35
Q

what is the treatment of beta blocker overdose?

A

glucagon and cardiac pacing

36
Q

what is one of the main side effects of colchicine?

A

diarrhoea

37
Q

which med is known to have angioedema as a side effect?

A

ACE inh e.g. ramipril

38
Q

what is the most common reaction to bisphosphonates?

A

oesophagitis - this is why you take it 30 mins before food

39
Q

what is the mechanism of action of digoxin?

A

blocks the sodium/potassium ATPase at the SA node

40
Q

which med is used to treat organophosphate toxicity e.g. pest control company worker?

A

atropine IV

41
Q

what is the best monitoring of heparin?

A

APTT

42
Q

what drug class is tropicamide?

A

mydriatic

43
Q

a 17 year old man has just had a dental extraction and is complaining of a mildly painful jaw. He has already tried paracetamol for pain relief. what is the most appropriate analgesic?

A

ibuprofen

44
Q

a 70 year old woman has severe bone pain form metastatic breast cancer. her creatinine is 130 (normal is 60-120). simple analgesia has been ineffective, and she feels she wants to end it all because of the pain. what is the most appropriate analgesic?

A

morphine

45
Q

a 50 year old man has an acutely painful, red and swollen left knee. he has recently been started on furosemide by his GP. his creatinine and BP is normal. what is the most appropriate analgesic?

A

diclofenac - short-term before allopurinol is established

46
Q

a 50 year old woman has severe shooting pains in the left side of her face following an attack of shingles. she has tried a number of painkillers from her local pharmacy with no benefit. what is the most appropriate analgesic?

A

gabapentin

47
Q

a 21 year old man presents with a dislocation of the terminal phalanx of his little left finger in a fight. there does not appear to be a fracture and you wish to give him an analgesia to allow reduction of the dislocation. what is the most appropriate analgesic?

A

nitrous oxide (with oxygen inhaled)

48
Q

what tests should be done before amiodarone admin?

A

LFTs, U&Es, TFTs, CXR

49
Q

what is the treatment of SLE?

A

hydroxychloroquine

50
Q

what risk increases when a corticosteroid and NSAID are combined?

A

risk of GI ulceration and bleeding

51
Q

what are the CP450 drugs?

A

WCPOT

warfarin, carbamazepine, phenytoin, OCP, theophylline

52
Q

what are the CP450 inhibitors?

A

O DEVICES GMC
omeprazole (PPIs), disulfiram (for alcohol dependency), erythromycin, valproate, isonazide (abx for TB), ciprofloxacin, ethanol (acute intoxicity), sulfonamide, grapefruit juice, miconazole, cranberry juice

53
Q

what are the CP450 inducers?

A

PC BRAS
phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbituates/BBQ meat, rifampicin, alcohol (chronic), sulphonylureas (glycozides)/St John’s Wort

54
Q

what is a treatment of alcohol withdrawal?

A

chlordiazepoxide - this is a benzodiazepine with a longer half-life

55
Q

what is the treatment of myasthenia gravis?

A

neostigmine

56
Q

which med causes neutropenia?

A

clozapine

57
Q

which med causes a reverse tick sign on the ST segment?

A

digoxin toxicity - hypokalaemia

58
Q

what is one of the most important side effects of amiodarone?

A

pulmonary toxicity

59
Q

what is the primary treatment of myasthenia gravis?

A

pyridostigmine

also corticosteroids