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T-45 ground school > Engine Exam > Flashcards

Engine Exam Flashcards

1
Q

thrust rating of engine

A

5527 lbs

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2
Q

N1 RPM above which the EGT/RPM warning light illuminates

A

112.5 +/- 1%

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3
Q

Maximum N2 RPM at MRT

A

104%

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4
Q

Maximum N2 RPM for transient acclerations

A

104%

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5
Q

maximum continuous N2 RPM

A

100%

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6
Q

N2 RPM not to be exceeded in manual fuel control in order to prevent N1 over speed below 20,000’

A

95%

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7
Q

N2 RPM not to be exceeded in manual fuel in order to prevent N1 over speed above 20,000’

A

90%

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8
Q

approach idle, minimum RPM gear down and no weight on wheels

A

72%

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9
Q

%RPM at which bleed valve closes during initial engine acceleration

A

61 +/- 4%

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10
Q

idle RPM range on a standard day

A

55 +/- 2%

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11
Q

idle RPM which should be obtained within 30 sec after selecting IDLE

A

52%

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12
Q

RPM at which ignition is turned off

A

45%

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13
Q

RPM at which GTS automatically shuts down

A

45%

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14
Q

approximate rpm at which bleed valve opens during initial engine shutdown

A

45%

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15
Q

RPM at which READY and GTS advisory lights are extinguished

A

45%

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16
Q

RPM above which ATS start valve is inhibited from opening

A

20%

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17
Q

minimum N2 RPM required for engine start

A

15%

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18
Q

approximate increase in idle RPM after compressor bleed valve closes

A

3%

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19
Q

maximum shift in idle RPM between post start and engine shutdown checks

A

2%

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20
Q

increase allowed idle RPM for each 1,500’ altitude

A

1%

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21
Q

EGT above which the EGT/RPM warning light illuminates

A

650 +/- 8 C

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22
Q

maximum EGT for transient acclerations

A

645 C for no more than 20 sec

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23
Q

maximum EGT at MRT

A

610 C

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24
Q

maximum continuous EGT limit

A

550 C

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25
Q

maximum EGT during ground start

A

550 C

no more than 570 C for 10 sec

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26
Q

maximum EGT for air start

A

600 C

no more than 550 for 10 seconds

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27
Q

max EGT at idle

A

450 C

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28
Q

firewire temperature required for FIRE warning light to illuminate

A

300 C

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29
Q

firewire temperature required for TAILPIPE HOT warning light to illuminate

A

150 C

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30
Q

approximate decrease in EGT after compressor bleed valve closes

A

50 C

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31
Q

maximum overshoot above 600 C during airstart (10 sec max)

A

50 degrees

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32
Q

maximum overshoot above 550 C during ground start (10 sec max)

A

20 degrees

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33
Q

maximum time limit at MRT

A

30 min/flt hour

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34
Q

minimum interval after 3 GTS start attempts

A

30 min

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35
Q

minimum interval between each GTS start attempt

A

3 min

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36
Q

time bleed valve remains open after GTS assisted airstart using manual fuel

A

60 sec

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37
Q

maximum time ignition system can remain on

A

45 sec

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38
Q

time that firewire must remain below 300 C for FIRE warning light to go out

A

45 sec

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39
Q

time allowed for GTS to reach GTS idle before automatic shutdown

A

30 sec

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40
Q

time ignition system remains on after GTS button release during airstart

A

30 sec

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41
Q

maximum allowable time for EGT to remain above 600 C during transient accelerations

A

20 sec

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42
Q

maximum allowable time for GTS advisory light to illuminate while in flight

A

28 sec

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43
Q

maximum allowable time for GTS advisory light to illuminate at sea level

A

20 sec

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44
Q

maximum allowable time for READY advisory light to illuminate

A

15 sec

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45
Q

maximum allowable time engine light off after moving throttle to idle

A

15 sec

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46
Q

maximum time for EGT to remain normal limit during ground start/airstart

A

10 sec

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47
Q

pressure below which the LP PRESS caution light illuminates

A

35 PSI

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48
Q

oil pressure differential below which the OIL PRESS caution light illuminates after 10 sec delay

A

10 PSI

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49
Q

additional fuel allowed for acceleration by shot of fuel solenoid below 7200’ MSL

A

75 gph

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50
Q

capacity of engine oil tank and systems in US pints

A

25.2 pints

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51
Q

unusable or trapped oil in engine oil system in US pints

A

9.6 pints

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52
Q

maximum consumption rate of engine oil in US pints per hour

A

0.8 pints

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53
Q

power rating of two DC ignition plugs

A

12 joules

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54
Q

minimum voltage for engine start

A

24 volts

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55
Q

shot of fuel solenoid closes as aircraft climbs through this altitude

A

9,500’ MSL +/- 300’ MSL

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56
Q

shot of fuel solenoid closes as aircraft descends through this altitude

A

7,700’ MSL +/- 500’ MSL

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57
Q

model number of Rolls Royce engine

A

F405-RR-401

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58
Q

N2 rpm at 100%

A

15,512

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59
Q

The READY advisory light illuminates when N1 RPM reaches tins in the correct direction. Ignition begins too

A

100

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60
Q

number of fuel nozzles in engine

A

18

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61
Q

number of high pressure (N2) compressor stages

A

5

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62
Q

number of low pressure (N1) compressor stages

A

2

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63
Q

Bypass air from the N1 compressor does what

A

cools the engine
provide increased thrust
provides noise reduction

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64
Q

T/F Under manual fuel control the compressor bleed valve remain closed at all engine speed except during airstart

A

true

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65
Q

5th stage compressor bleed air supplies ____

A

environmental system
OBOGS
G-suit
fuel tank pressurization

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66
Q

steam ingestion bleed valve provides increased bleed air flow when _____

A

Weight on wheels
70% N2
LAUNCH BR not retracted

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67
Q

the ACCEL caution light illuminates when _____

A
  • Steam ingestion bleed valve not in command position (2 sec delay)
  • shot of fuel solenoid failure
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68
Q

the engine accessory gear box drive _____

A 
hydraulic pumps
DC generator
LP fuel pump
HP fuel pump
Engine oil pump
N2 tach-generator
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69
Q

____ in the FCU dampens throttle valve response during rapid throttle movements

A

acceleration switch

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70
Q

____ maintains constant pressure drop across throttle valve compensating for airspeed and altitude changes

A

servo pressure control

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71
Q

The ____ in the FCU trims basic fuel flow in response to ECA

A

solenoid (fuel trim)

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72
Q

The ____ automatically prevents overspeed/overtemp conditions by monitoring N1 and two thermocouples behind N1 turbine

A

engine control amplifier

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73
Q

The ____ meters a fuel supply to the fuel spray nozzles during the start cycle

A

sub idle fuel control unit

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74
Q

T/F the ECA contains two identical lanes, and after engine start, the lane with the lowest fuel flow setting takes priority

A

true

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75
Q

Engine operation in manual fuel control is similar to normal except ____

A

-airstart require throttle modulation
-idle RPM up to 5% lower
-slower engine acceleration without dashpot
-bleed valve closed at all engine speeds except 60 sec on airstart
N2 must remain below 95/90% below/above 20,000’ MSL

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76
Q

With weight on wheels, ignition is provided when ____

A
  • GTS button pressed and released
  • ENGINE switch set to START
  • READY is on
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77
Q

The ignition switch has two positions

A
  • ISOLATE de-energizes engine and GTS ignition system

- NORMAL

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78
Q

total fuel capacity in gallons

A

438 gallons

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79
Q

total usable fuel capacity in gallons

A

427 gallons

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80
Q

capacity of wing tank in gallons

A

223 gallons

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81
Q

capacity of fuselage

A

220 gallons

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82
Q

amount of unusable or trapped fuel in gallons

A

11 gallons

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83
Q

total fuel capacity in pounds (JP-5)

A

2975 lbs

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84
Q

total usable fuel capacity in pounds

A

2904 lbs

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85
Q

capacity of collector tank in pounds

A

400 lbs

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86
Q

approximate fuel quantity remaining with FUEL LOW caution light illuminated

A

350 lbs

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87
Q

approximate amount of trapped fuel in pounds

A

75 lbs

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88
Q

idle fuel flow in gallons per hour

A

300-400 gph

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89
Q

defueling rate at 11 psi suction

A

24 gpm

90
Q

capacity of negative G compartment

A

30 sec

91
Q

time period in seconds fuel boost pump continues to operate after GEN failure to conserve battery power

A

30 sec

92
Q

delay in illuminating FUEL LOW caution to avoid nuisance flickering

A

10 sec

93
Q

maximum refueling pressure

A

50 PSI

94
Q

pressure at which dual datum relief valve opens to relieve an over pressure condition

A

9.5 PSI

95
Q

pressure of engine bleed air supplied for fuel tank pressurization

A

6.0 PSI

96
Q

pressure at which dual datum relief valve opens when REFUEL switch set or arresting hook is down

A

4.0 PSI

97
Q

low air pressure sense switch causes FUEL PRESS caution to illuminate

A

3 PSI (2-3 PSI)

98
Q

boost pumps automatically turn on when ____

A
  • during GTS operation

- N2 > 42%, GEN is ON, and ENGINE switch is on

99
Q

two fuel boost pumps are installed in the ____

A

negative G compartment

100
Q

The FUEL PRESS caution illuminates when ____

A
  • there is insufficient differential pressure across a boost pump (such as inoperative boost pump)
  • the fuel tank pressure regulator drops below 3 PSI
101
Q

T/F opening the fuel shutoff handle disables GTS ignition in addition to securing fuel

A

true

102
Q

the fuel flow transmitter is powered by ____ bus and measures fuel flow prior to the ____ pump

A

28V essential services

LP fuel pump

103
Q

T/F the FUEL advisory light and the INLET FUEL caution light are inoperative except during the light test

A

true

104
Q

T/F the FUEL LOW caution light is triggered by a float switch in the negative G compartment, and is not linked to the fuel quantity indicator

A

True

105
Q

Fuel tanks are vented to atmosphere through a ____ valve and a ____ valve/orifice

A

pressure relief

bleed

106
Q

T/F pressure refueling requires electrical power on the aircraft

A

true

107
Q

Pressure relief valve opens in power supply package

A

3600 PSI

108
Q

normal hydraulic pressure

A

3000 PSI

109
Q

normal RAT operating range

A

2500-3000 PSI

110
Q

pressure reserved by wheel brake/emergency flap accumulator if HYD 1 loses pressure

A

2200 PSI

111
Q

pressure at which HYD 2 PRESS caution light extinguishes

A

2000 PSI

112
Q

pressure required to close hyd 2 bypass valve and retract RAT if deployed

A

1800 PSI

113
Q

Pressure at which HYD 2 PRESS caution light illuminates

A

1660 +/- 110

114
Q

pressure at which RAT deploys

A

1500 PSI +/- 100

115
Q

pressure at which priority valve reopens to provide power for general services

A

1600 PSI

116
Q

pressure at which priority valve in PSP closes to isolate flight controls from general services

A

1500 PSI

117
Q

required nitrogen preload pressure for wheel brake/emergency flap accumulator

A

1300 PSI or greater

118
Q

pressure at which HYD 1 PRESS caution light extinguishes

A

2000 PSI

119
Q

Pressure at RAT retracts as HYD 2 pressure is lost (aerodynamic load permitting)

A

700 PSI

120
Q

pressure at which HYD 1 PRESS caution illuminates

A

1660 +/1 110 PSI

121
Q

N2 RPM to use HYD 2 reset button

A

45%

122
Q

N2 RPM below which HYD 2 bypass valve is energized open to reduce engine loads on start

A

42%

123
Q

number of full brake applications provided by brake/emergency flap accumulator

A

10X

124
Q

three requirements for HYD FAIL warning light

A
  • HYD 1 pressure below 1660 +/- 110 PSI
  • HYD 2 pressure below 1660 +/- 110 PSI
  • emergency accumulator below 600 +/- 50 PSI
125
Q

Eight hydraulic devices in general services category

A 
flaps
slats
landing gear
wheel brakes
NWS
speed brake
LAUNCH BAR
arresting hook
126
Q

____ ensure adequate base pressure to resist pump cavitation under all flight conditions

A

nitrogen pressurized reservoir

127
Q

the power supply package consists of ____

A

check valve
pressure relief valve
priority valve

128
Q

ATS ___ drives N2 compressor

A

mechanically

129
Q

Is the FUEL light a caution or warning?

A

caution

130
Q

with normal engine instrument indications (RPM, EGT, FF) on t/o roll what other indications of loss of thrust could you have besides failure to reach line speed?

A

ACCEL caution light

131
Q

T/F illumination of the ACCEL caution light indicates the initial shot solenoid or the steam ingestion bleed valve is not in the command position

A

true

132
Q

In a steep dive, the ECA sense RPM increase and will send a signal to the FCU to ____ fuel flow

A

decrease

133
Q

If you have ECA failure (full trim) what changes would the engine instruments indicate?

A

decrease EGT, RPM, FF

134
Q

What is lost with a single inverter failure?

A

Non-essential AC services

135
Q

With GEN functioning normally, which light (s) on CWS panel would illuminate if undervoltage sensing unit failed?

A

none

136
Q

what is the min voltage of a fully charge battery?

A

24 V

137
Q

what is the range for the N1 compressor?

A

0-120%

138
Q

what is the range for the N2 compressor?

A

0-115%

139
Q

how many thermocouples does the N1 turbine have?

A

2

140
Q

What is fuel flow limit on takeoff?

A

4800 pph

141
Q

what is fuel flow limit at MRT?

A

6410 pph

142
Q

what is fuel flow limit during acceleration?

A

6410 pph

143
Q

Engine start switch to ON energizes the ____

A

start control unit

144
Q

How is tail hook raised?

A

hydraulically by HYD 1

145
Q

Max pressure provide by hand pump

A

2800 PSI

146
Q

With a generator failure, batteries will give ____ minutes of power

A

27

147
Q

overvoltage unit takes generator offline if output exceeds ____

A

30.2 VDC

148
Q

undervoltage unit deenergizes non-essential buses when output drops to ____

A

25 VDC

149
Q

What are the indications of an overvoltage condition?

A 
GEN warning light
CAUG caution
RMFD disabled
FPRES caution illumination
HUD fail
150
Q

What are the indications for an undervoltage condition?

A

GEN warning

151
Q

How many essential buses are there? Non-essential

A

three for both

2 AC 1 DC

152
Q

What is GTS idle RPM

A

86%

153
Q

T/F losing one of the ECA lanes will illuminate the ECA caution light

A

false

154
Q

describe the verification of ECA failure (full trim)

A

decrease RPM, FF, EGT

155
Q

describe verification of ECA failure (no trim)

A

increase RPM, FF, EGT

156
Q

at what quantity does the FUEL caution LT illuminate?

A

350 lbs

157
Q

T/F the FUEL caution light and the fuel gauge receive info from from the same float switch

A

False

158
Q

What are the verification of a steam ingestion failure?

A

OPEN-RPM lower, EGT higher, decreased thrust/acceleration

CLOSED-Engine surge/stall due to steam ingestion

159
Q

on engine start, when does the GTS shut down?

A

45%

160
Q

What is the first indication of HYD 1 slow pressure loss?

A

1500 PSI, loss of general services

161
Q

when can RAT be reset, how do you know it is reset?

A

1800 PSI HYD 2 EDP pressure

HYD 2 caution light will extinguish at 2000 PSI HYD 2 EDP pressure

162
Q

T/F the wheel brake/emergency flap accumulator allows for 10 wheel brake applications and Flap/slat extension in the event of HYD 1 failure

A

false, no slats

163
Q

at what pressure will the wheel brake/emergency flap accumulator shutoff access to the flaps?

A

2200 PSI

164
Q

How and when is the HYD 2 bypass valve closed after engine start?

A

HYD 2 RESET button once engine is above 45% N2

165
Q

When does the WHEELS warning light illuminate?

A
  • altitude less than 7200’ MSL and airspeed less than 170 kts or;
  • FLAPS/SLATS lever not in up position
166
Q

Name the general services lost when HYD 1 drops below 1500 PSI

A 
normal gear extension
normal flaps
normal brakes
NWS
LBAR extention
speed brake
hook retract
167
Q

failure of bleed valve to close will cause what?

A

loss of thrust at MRT

168
Q

Loss of one inverter will cause what?

A

AC INV caution illumination

loss of AC non-essential bus

169
Q

What is max EGT for airstart excluding overshoot

A

600 C

170
Q

the engine switch controls power to the ____

A

SCU signal control unit

171
Q

T/F with a complete electrical failure, landing gear and flaps may be extended manually

A

False, only gear

172
Q

What is the effect on the tailhook with HYD 1 failure?

A

it may be lowered but not raised

173
Q

T/F a single AC inverter failure will result in AC INV caution light

A

True

174
Q

how is generator voltage regulated?

A

voltage regulator 28.2-29.2

175
Q

list 4 generator protection systems

A

voltage regulator
overvoltage protection unit
undervoltage protection uniit
300 amp fuse

176
Q

if overvoltage of GEN fail, what happens?

A 
Gen bus-OFF
non-essential AC buses-Off
generator warning light
master caution
FPRES
CAUG
HUD-out
RT MFD-OUT
LT MFD- revert to ADI. out after 2 minutes unless switch overide
177
Q

If undervoltage, what happens?

A

generator warning light

master caution

178
Q

will low generator output drain batteries?

A

no. power diodes protect current from being drawn from essen bus

179
Q

What powers the 28 VDC essen services bus

A

24 VDC battery

generator

180
Q

how much time is available on battery power alone?

A

27 minutes for 2 good batteries

12 minutes for 1

181
Q

Ground services runs off what?

A

1 battery

182
Q

When does the overvoltage unit take the generator offline?

A

30.2 Volts

183
Q

what is the biggest user of battery power?

A

pitot heat

184
Q

Igniters are powered by the ____

A

28 VDC essential services bus

185
Q

Will you have NWS with emergency gear extension?

A

No

186
Q

Emergency brake and flap accumulator shows what pressure?

A

Nitrogen

187
Q

Will a slow loss of HYD2 cause you to lose general services?

A

no

188
Q

what seperates the engine from the aircraft fuel system?

A

T-handle

189
Q

during start, what does ATS do?

A

mechanically drive the N2 compressor

190
Q

The LAUNCH BAR is ____ raised, and ____ lowered

A

mechanically

hydraulically

191
Q

When will the SKID advisory light come on?

A

both switches ON

gear down

192
Q

what are the indications for a single inverter failure?

A

loss of AC non essential services
AC INV light
tone

193
Q

What is the first indication of fire on takeoff?

A

fire light

194
Q

do you have emergency flaps with total electrical failure?

A

no

195
Q

What powers the ATS on start?

A

GTS

196
Q

What happens if you lose both inverters

A

loss of AC services
light
tone

197
Q

indications of generator failure

A

loss of HUD
right MFD
gen warning light
master caution

198
Q

do you have indications of internal tailpipe over temp?

A

No, it senses the outside

199
Q

What is the accumulator preload charge?

A

flight controls: 1100 +/- 50

Brakes: 1300 +/- 50

200
Q

What is between the generator and the generator bus?

A

300 amp fuse

201
Q

how does hook extension work?

A

by gravity, assisted by snubber

202
Q

what does FPRES mean?

A

boost pump failure

203
Q

If you have a flameout below 1500’AGL at 180 KIAS, what do you do?

A

eject

204
Q

what is GINA made up of?

A

GPS and INS

205
Q

How many BIT displays are there?

A

2
weight on wheels
weight off wheels

206
Q

How do you know that GINA alignment is complete?

A

waterline replaces by velocity vector

207
Q

What is the purpose of mode C?

A

altitude reporting for transponder

208
Q

extending the flaps requires what electrical power?

A

28 VDC power

209
Q

What does yaw damper do?

A

trims rudder via ARI

210
Q

If CAUG illuminates in flight, what do you lose?

A

ARI
SBI
rudder trim
yaw dampener

211
Q

Do you have TACAN with generator failure?

A

yes

212
Q

What CNI device has 2 antennas?

A

IFF

213
Q

How do you enhance the efficiency of the ECS heat exchanger?

A

inducers powered by blees air by the IPRSOV which is commanded open by gear down and ECS selected to any position other than off

214
Q

What are the best indications of a stall?

A

rudder shakers

215
Q

If you have a DEU failure, what approach can you do?

A

GCA

216
Q

if you have rapid roll during flap/slat transition, what might you have?

A

split flap/slat

217
Q

What is displayed when ILS is selected on HSI?

A

ILS needle

218
Q

The display system gets data from what?

A

gina and pitot static system

219
Q

What does engine switch on in both cockpits do?

A

energizes starter control unit

220
Q

raisisng the finger lift guard will

A

allow throttle to go below approach idle
go past idle to off
prevent inadvertent pull to off in rapid retraction

221
Q

How can you keep the L MFD during a GEN failure?

A

display switch to override

222
Q

what determines ejection mode?

A

electronic sequencer

T-45 ground school (8 decks)

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