Engine Exam Flashcards
1
Q
thrust rating of engine
A
5527 lbs
2
Q
N1 RPM above which the EGT/RPM warning light illuminates
A
112.5 +/- 1%
3
Q
Maximum N2 RPM at MRT
A
104%
4
Q
Maximum N2 RPM for transient acclerations
A
104%
5
Q
maximum continuous N2 RPM
A
100%
6
Q
N2 RPM not to be exceeded in manual fuel control in order to prevent N1 over speed below 20,000’
A
95%
7
Q
N2 RPM not to be exceeded in manual fuel in order to prevent N1 over speed above 20,000’
A
90%
8
Q
approach idle, minimum RPM gear down and no weight on wheels
A
72%
9
Q
%RPM at which bleed valve closes during initial engine acceleration
A
61 +/- 4%
10
Q
idle RPM range on a standard day
A
55 +/- 2%
11
Q
idle RPM which should be obtained within 30 sec after selecting IDLE
A
52%
12
Q
RPM at which ignition is turned off
A
45%
13
Q
RPM at which GTS automatically shuts down
A
45%
14
Q
approximate rpm at which bleed valve opens during initial engine shutdown
A
45%
15
Q
RPM at which READY and GTS advisory lights are extinguished
A
45%
16
Q
RPM above which ATS start valve is inhibited from opening
A
20%
17
Q
minimum N2 RPM required for engine start
A
15%
18
Q
approximate increase in idle RPM after compressor bleed valve closes
A
3%
19
Q
maximum shift in idle RPM between post start and engine shutdown checks
A
2%
20
Q
increase allowed idle RPM for each 1,500’ altitude
A
1%
21
Q
EGT above which the EGT/RPM warning light illuminates
A
650 +/- 8 C
22
Q
maximum EGT for transient acclerations
A
645 C for no more than 20 sec
23
Q
maximum EGT at MRT
A
610 C
24
Q
maximum continuous EGT limit
A
550 C
25
maximum EGT during ground start
550 C
| no more than 570 C for 10 sec
26
maximum EGT for air start
600 C
| no more than 550 for 10 seconds
27
max EGT at idle
450 C
28
firewire temperature required for FIRE warning light to illuminate
300 C
29
firewire temperature required for TAILPIPE HOT warning light to illuminate
150 C
30
approximate decrease in EGT after compressor bleed valve closes
50 C
31
maximum overshoot above 600 C during airstart (10 sec max)
50 degrees
32
maximum overshoot above 550 C during ground start (10 sec max)
20 degrees
33
maximum time limit at MRT
30 min/flt hour
34
minimum interval after 3 GTS start attempts
30 min
35
minimum interval between each GTS start attempt
3 min
36
time bleed valve remains open after GTS assisted airstart using manual fuel
60 sec
37
maximum time ignition system can remain on
45 sec
38
time that firewire must remain below 300 C for FIRE warning light to go out
45 sec
39
time allowed for GTS to reach GTS idle before automatic shutdown
30 sec
40
time ignition system remains on after GTS button release during airstart
30 sec
41
maximum allowable time for EGT to remain above 600 C during transient accelerations
20 sec
42
maximum allowable time for GTS advisory light to illuminate while in flight
28 sec
43
maximum allowable time for GTS advisory light to illuminate at sea level
20 sec
44
maximum allowable time for READY advisory light to illuminate
15 sec
45
maximum allowable time engine light off after moving throttle to idle
15 sec
46
maximum time for EGT to remain normal limit during ground start/airstart
10 sec
47
pressure below which the LP PRESS caution light illuminates
35 PSI
48
oil pressure differential below which the OIL PRESS caution light illuminates after 10 sec delay
10 PSI
49
additional fuel allowed for acceleration by shot of fuel solenoid below 7200' MSL
75 gph
50
capacity of engine oil tank and systems in US pints
25.2 pints
51
unusable or trapped oil in engine oil system in US pints
9.6 pints
52
maximum consumption rate of engine oil in US pints per hour
0.8 pints
53
power rating of two DC ignition plugs
12 joules
54
minimum voltage for engine start
24 volts
55
shot of fuel solenoid closes as aircraft climbs through this altitude
9,500' MSL +/- 300' MSL
56
shot of fuel solenoid closes as aircraft descends through this altitude
7,700' MSL +/- 500' MSL
57
model number of Rolls Royce engine
F405-RR-401
58
N2 rpm at 100%
15,512
59
The READY advisory light illuminates when N1 RPM reaches tins in the correct direction. Ignition begins too
100
60
number of fuel nozzles in engine
18
61
number of high pressure (N2) compressor stages
5
62
number of low pressure (N1) compressor stages
2
63
Bypass air from the N1 compressor does what
cools the engine
provide increased thrust
provides noise reduction
64
T/F Under manual fuel control the compressor bleed valve remain closed at all engine speed except during airstart
true
65
5th stage compressor bleed air supplies ____
environmental system
OBOGS
G-suit
fuel tank pressurization
66
steam ingestion bleed valve provides increased bleed air flow when _____
Weight on wheels
70% N2
LAUNCH BR not retracted
67
the ACCEL caution light illuminates when _____
- Steam ingestion bleed valve not in command position (2 sec delay)
- shot of fuel solenoid failure
68
the engine accessory gear box drive _____
```
hydraulic pumps
DC generator
LP fuel pump
HP fuel pump
Engine oil pump
N2 tach-generator
```
69
____ in the FCU dampens throttle valve response during rapid throttle movements
acceleration switch
70
____ maintains constant pressure drop across throttle valve compensating for airspeed and altitude changes
servo pressure control
71
The ____ in the FCU trims basic fuel flow in response to ECA
solenoid (fuel trim)
72
The ____ automatically prevents overspeed/overtemp conditions by monitoring N1 and two thermocouples behind N1 turbine
engine control amplifier
73
The ____ meters a fuel supply to the fuel spray nozzles during the start cycle
sub idle fuel control unit
74
T/F the ECA contains two identical lanes, and after engine start, the lane with the lowest fuel flow setting takes priority
true
75
Engine operation in manual fuel control is similar to normal except ____
-airstart require throttle modulation
-idle RPM up to 5% lower
-slower engine acceleration without dashpot
-bleed valve closed at all engine speeds except 60 sec on airstart
N2 must remain below 95/90% below/above 20,000' MSL
76
With weight on wheels, ignition is provided when ____
- GTS button pressed and released
- ENGINE switch set to START
- READY is on
77
The ignition switch has two positions
- ISOLATE de-energizes engine and GTS ignition system
| - NORMAL
78
total fuel capacity in gallons
438 gallons
79
total usable fuel capacity in gallons
427 gallons
80
capacity of wing tank in gallons
223 gallons
81
capacity of fuselage
220 gallons
82
amount of unusable or trapped fuel in gallons
11 gallons
83
total fuel capacity in pounds (JP-5)
2975 lbs
84
total usable fuel capacity in pounds
2904 lbs
85
capacity of collector tank in pounds
400 lbs
86
approximate fuel quantity remaining with FUEL LOW caution light illuminated
350 lbs
87
approximate amount of trapped fuel in pounds
75 lbs
88
idle fuel flow in gallons per hour
300-400 gph
89
defueling rate at 11 psi suction
24 gpm
90
capacity of negative G compartment
30 sec
91
time period in seconds fuel boost pump continues to operate after GEN failure to conserve battery power
30 sec
92
delay in illuminating FUEL LOW caution to avoid nuisance flickering
10 sec
93
maximum refueling pressure
50 PSI
94
pressure at which dual datum relief valve opens to relieve an over pressure condition
9.5 PSI
95
pressure of engine bleed air supplied for fuel tank pressurization
6.0 PSI
96
pressure at which dual datum relief valve opens when REFUEL switch set or arresting hook is down
4.0 PSI
97
low air pressure sense switch causes FUEL PRESS caution to illuminate
3 PSI (2-3 PSI)
98
boost pumps automatically turn on when ____
- during GTS operation
| - N2 > 42%, GEN is ON, and ENGINE switch is on
99
two fuel boost pumps are installed in the ____
negative G compartment
100
The FUEL PRESS caution illuminates when ____
- there is insufficient differential pressure across a boost pump (such as inoperative boost pump)
- the fuel tank pressure regulator drops below 3 PSI
101
T/F opening the fuel shutoff handle disables GTS ignition in addition to securing fuel
true
102
the fuel flow transmitter is powered by ____ bus and measures fuel flow prior to the ____ pump
28V essential services
| LP fuel pump
103
T/F the FUEL advisory light and the INLET FUEL caution light are inoperative except during the light test
true
104
T/F the FUEL LOW caution light is triggered by a float switch in the negative G compartment, and is not linked to the fuel quantity indicator
True
105
Fuel tanks are vented to atmosphere through a ____ valve and a ____ valve/orifice
pressure relief
| bleed
106
T/F pressure refueling requires electrical power on the aircraft
true
107
Pressure relief valve opens in power supply package
3600 PSI
108
normal hydraulic pressure
3000 PSI
109
normal RAT operating range
2500-3000 PSI
110
pressure reserved by wheel brake/emergency flap accumulator if HYD 1 loses pressure
2200 PSI
111
pressure at which HYD 2 PRESS caution light extinguishes
2000 PSI
112
pressure required to close hyd 2 bypass valve and retract RAT if deployed
1800 PSI
113
Pressure at which HYD 2 PRESS caution light illuminates
1660 +/- 110
114
pressure at which RAT deploys
1500 PSI +/- 100
115
pressure at which priority valve reopens to provide power for general services
1600 PSI
116
pressure at which priority valve in PSP closes to isolate flight controls from general services
1500 PSI
117
required nitrogen preload pressure for wheel brake/emergency flap accumulator
1300 PSI or greater
118
pressure at which HYD 1 PRESS caution light extinguishes
2000 PSI
119
Pressure at RAT retracts as HYD 2 pressure is lost (aerodynamic load permitting)
700 PSI
120
pressure at which HYD 1 PRESS caution illuminates
1660 +/1 110 PSI
121
N2 RPM to use HYD 2 reset button
45%
122
N2 RPM below which HYD 2 bypass valve is energized open to reduce engine loads on start
42%
123
number of full brake applications provided by brake/emergency flap accumulator
10X
124
three requirements for HYD FAIL warning light
- HYD 1 pressure below 1660 +/- 110 PSI
- HYD 2 pressure below 1660 +/- 110 PSI
- emergency accumulator below 600 +/- 50 PSI
125
Eight hydraulic devices in general services category
```
flaps
slats
landing gear
wheel brakes
NWS
speed brake
LAUNCH BAR
arresting hook
```
126
____ ensure adequate base pressure to resist pump cavitation under all flight conditions
nitrogen pressurized reservoir
127
the power supply package consists of ____
check valve
pressure relief valve
priority valve
128
ATS ___ drives N2 compressor
mechanically
129
Is the FUEL light a caution or warning?
caution
130
with normal engine instrument indications (RPM, EGT, FF) on t/o roll what other indications of loss of thrust could you have besides failure to reach line speed?
ACCEL caution light
131
T/F illumination of the ACCEL caution light indicates the initial shot solenoid or the steam ingestion bleed valve is not in the command position
true
132
In a steep dive, the ECA sense RPM increase and will send a signal to the FCU to ____ fuel flow
decrease
133
If you have ECA failure (full trim) what changes would the engine instruments indicate?
decrease EGT, RPM, FF
134
What is lost with a single inverter failure?
Non-essential AC services
135
With GEN functioning normally, which light (s) on CWS panel would illuminate if undervoltage sensing unit failed?
none
136
what is the min voltage of a fully charge battery?
24 V
137
what is the range for the N1 compressor?
0-120%
138
what is the range for the N2 compressor?
0-115%
139
how many thermocouples does the N1 turbine have?
2
140
What is fuel flow limit on takeoff?
4800 pph
141
what is fuel flow limit at MRT?
6410 pph
142
what is fuel flow limit during acceleration?
6410 pph
143
Engine start switch to ON energizes the ____
start control unit
144
How is tail hook raised?
hydraulically by HYD 1
145
Max pressure provide by hand pump
2800 PSI
146
With a generator failure, batteries will give ____ minutes of power
27
147
overvoltage unit takes generator offline if output exceeds ____
30.2 VDC
148
undervoltage unit deenergizes non-essential buses when output drops to ____
25 VDC
149
What are the indications of an overvoltage condition?
```
GEN warning light
CAUG caution
RMFD disabled
FPRES caution illumination
HUD fail
```
150
What are the indications for an undervoltage condition?
GEN warning
151
How many essential buses are there? Non-essential
three for both
| 2 AC 1 DC
152
What is GTS idle RPM
86%
153
T/F losing one of the ECA lanes will illuminate the ECA caution light
false
154
describe the verification of ECA failure (full trim)
decrease RPM, FF, EGT
155
describe verification of ECA failure (no trim)
increase RPM, FF, EGT
156
at what quantity does the FUEL caution LT illuminate?
350 lbs
157
T/F the FUEL caution light and the fuel gauge receive info from from the same float switch
False
158
What are the verification of a steam ingestion failure?
OPEN-RPM lower, EGT higher, decreased thrust/acceleration
| CLOSED-Engine surge/stall due to steam ingestion
159
on engine start, when does the GTS shut down?
45%
160
What is the first indication of HYD 1 slow pressure loss?
1500 PSI, loss of general services
161
when can RAT be reset, how do you know it is reset?
1800 PSI HYD 2 EDP pressure
| HYD 2 caution light will extinguish at 2000 PSI HYD 2 EDP pressure
162
T/F the wheel brake/emergency flap accumulator allows for 10 wheel brake applications and Flap/slat extension in the event of HYD 1 failure
false, no slats
163
at what pressure will the wheel brake/emergency flap accumulator shutoff access to the flaps?
2200 PSI
164
How and when is the HYD 2 bypass valve closed after engine start?
HYD 2 RESET button once engine is above 45% N2
165
When does the WHEELS warning light illuminate?
- altitude less than 7200' MSL and airspeed less than 170 kts or;
- FLAPS/SLATS lever not in up position
166
Name the general services lost when HYD 1 drops below 1500 PSI
```
normal gear extension
normal flaps
normal brakes
NWS
LBAR extention
speed brake
hook retract
```
167
failure of bleed valve to close will cause what?
loss of thrust at MRT
168
Loss of one inverter will cause what?
AC INV caution illumination
| loss of AC non-essential bus
169
What is max EGT for airstart excluding overshoot
600 C
170
the engine switch controls power to the ____
SCU signal control unit
171
T/F with a complete electrical failure, landing gear and flaps may be extended manually
False, only gear
172
What is the effect on the tailhook with HYD 1 failure?
it may be lowered but not raised
173
T/F a single AC inverter failure will result in AC INV caution light
True
174
how is generator voltage regulated?
voltage regulator 28.2-29.2
175
list 4 generator protection systems
voltage regulator
overvoltage protection unit
undervoltage protection uniit
300 amp fuse
176
if overvoltage of GEN fail, what happens?
```
Gen bus-OFF
non-essential AC buses-Off
generator warning light
master caution
FPRES
CAUG
HUD-out
RT MFD-OUT
LT MFD- revert to ADI. out after 2 minutes unless switch overide
```
177
If undervoltage, what happens?
generator warning light
| master caution
178
will low generator output drain batteries?
no. power diodes protect current from being drawn from essen bus
179
What powers the 28 VDC essen services bus
24 VDC battery
| generator
180
how much time is available on battery power alone?
27 minutes for 2 good batteries
| 12 minutes for 1
181
Ground services runs off what?
#1 battery
182
When does the overvoltage unit take the generator offline?
30.2 Volts
183
what is the biggest user of battery power?
pitot heat
184
Igniters are powered by the ____
28 VDC essential services bus
185
Will you have NWS with emergency gear extension?
No
186
Emergency brake and flap accumulator shows what pressure?
Nitrogen
187
Will a slow loss of HYD2 cause you to lose general services?
no
188
what seperates the engine from the aircraft fuel system?
T-handle
189
during start, what does ATS do?
mechanically drive the N2 compressor
190
The LAUNCH BAR is ____ raised, and ____ lowered
mechanically
| hydraulically
191
When will the SKID advisory light come on?
both switches ON
| gear down
192
what are the indications for a single inverter failure?
loss of AC non essential services
AC INV light
tone
193
What is the first indication of fire on takeoff?
fire light
194
do you have emergency flaps with total electrical failure?
no
195
What powers the ATS on start?
GTS
196
What happens if you lose both inverters
loss of AC services
light
tone
197
indications of generator failure
loss of HUD
right MFD
gen warning light
master caution
198
do you have indications of internal tailpipe over temp?
No, it senses the outside
199
What is the accumulator preload charge?
flight controls: 1100 +/- 50
| Brakes: 1300 +/- 50
200
What is between the generator and the generator bus?
300 amp fuse
201
how does hook extension work?
by gravity, assisted by snubber
202
what does FPRES mean?
boost pump failure
203
If you have a flameout below 1500'AGL at 180 KIAS, what do you do?
eject
204
what is GINA made up of?
GPS and INS
205
How many BIT displays are there?
2
weight on wheels
weight off wheels
206
How do you know that GINA alignment is complete?
waterline replaces by velocity vector
207
What is the purpose of mode C?
altitude reporting for transponder
208
extending the flaps requires what electrical power?
28 VDC power
209
What does yaw damper do?
trims rudder via ARI
210
If CAUG illuminates in flight, what do you lose?
ARI
SBI
rudder trim
yaw dampener
211
Do you have TACAN with generator failure?
yes
212
What CNI device has 2 antennas?
IFF
213
How do you enhance the efficiency of the ECS heat exchanger?
inducers powered by blees air by the IPRSOV which is commanded open by gear down and ECS selected to any position other than off
214
What are the best indications of a stall?
rudder shakers
215
If you have a DEU failure, what approach can you do?
GCA
216
if you have rapid roll during flap/slat transition, what might you have?
split flap/slat
217
What is displayed when ILS is selected on HSI?
ILS needle
218
The display system gets data from what?
gina and pitot static system
219
What does engine switch on in both cockpits do?
energizes starter control unit
220
raisisng the finger lift guard will
allow throttle to go below approach idle
go past idle to off
prevent inadvertent pull to off in rapid retraction
221
How can you keep the L MFD during a GEN failure?
display switch to override
222
what determines ejection mode?
electronic sequencer
