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T-45 ground school > Engine 2 CNI > Flashcards

Engine 2 CNI Flashcards

1
Q

what does the DEU do?

A

control the MUX bus

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2
Q

the DEU exchanges digital data words between what?

A 
itself
ADR
GINA
MDL
all via MUX bus
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3
Q

what are the hard wired interfaces of the DEU?

A

analog
discrete
video

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4
Q

what kind of computer is the DEU?

A

Mission and Display

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5
Q

on power up of the DEU, what is displayed?

A

MENU page

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6
Q

What powers the DEU?

A

28 VDC Essential Bus
28 VDC GEN bus
115 VAC Non essential
26 VAC non essential

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7
Q

MFD failure is indicated by?

A

blank or blinking display

stuck pushbutton

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8
Q

Since MFD and HUD are lost with a DEU failure, what approach are you limited to?

A

PAR approach, no gyro

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9
Q

The display system derives what data from GINA and the pitot static system?

A

GINA: pitch, roll, heading, vertical velocity
Pitot: altitude and indicated airspeed

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10
Q

What are the duplicated MFD inputs on the DEP?

A

LAW, CRS, HDG, BINGO

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11
Q

How many satellites does GINA use?

A

5 satellites but it uses the 4 best ones for the GPS positioni

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12
Q

what is GINA composed of?

A

GPS and INA

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13
Q

when is GINA alignment complete?

A

waterline symbol is replaced by velocity vector

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14
Q

GINA begins alignment with what and when is it complete?

A

auto bit initiate

alignment is complete approximately 3 minutes after auto bit is initiated

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15
Q

What is the HUD?

A

electro-optical device which displays flight and weapon delivery information

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16
Q

What are the different BITS?

A

power up
initiated
continuous and manual

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17
Q

Auto initiation of IBIT occurs in what order?

A 
DEU
GINA
ADR
MDL
RALT
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18
Q

what are the two BIT display pages?

A

weight on wheels

weight off wheels

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19
Q

what does it mean when the bit status says OPGO?

A

single channel failure of the MUX

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20
Q

What is the difference between magnetic bearing and relative bearing?

A

magnetic bearing: a type of bearing that supports a load using magnetic levitation
relative bearing: clockwise angle from the heading of the vessel to a straight line drawn from the observation station on the vessel to the object

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21
Q

What will planimetric TACAN steering do?

A

disable ILS/VOR slection

the VOR/ILS legend will not be displayed

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22
Q

ILS localizer and GS needles will be displayed on the ADI and HUD when what?

A

ILS is boxed on the HSI

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23
Q

Full needle deflection in CDI indicates what?

A

10 or more radial deviation in TACAN
10 or more bearing line deviation in VOR
4 NM or more deviation from CL in WYPT or WOS steering (gear up)
.3 NM or more (gear down)
limits of the localizer in ILS (usually 2.5 degrees)

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24
Q

Mode test illuminates what lights?

A

GO or NO GO lights (not antenna lights)

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25
Q

what is the only system with 2 antennas?

A

IFF

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26
Q

IFF DEGRD on the BIT page indicates what?

A

IFF power off or in the STBY or an IFF BIT failure

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27
Q

what is Mode C?

A

altitude squawk

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28
Q

What does the VCR records what?

A 
HUD
MFD display
ICS
radio comms 
CWS tones
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29
Q

how many GPS channels do you have?

A

5

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30
Q

what are the major components of GINA?

A

GPS and inertial NAV assembly
GPS
INS and accelerometer set

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31
Q

DEU controls what?

A

MUX box

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32
Q

Ring laser gyro has what?

A

few moving parts and is unaffected by G forces

It is affected by earth-rate procession

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33
Q

when do rudder shakers activate?

A

21.5 units

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34
Q

MFD has __ controls, _______ and they are on the _____

A

3, 20 push buttons, MFD bezel

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35
Q

Which instruments display rad alt readout?

A

ADI and HUD

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36
Q

What would you use if your ADI display failed?

A

STBY AI (other MFD should default to ADI anyway)

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37
Q

which instrument would verify VSI display readout failure?

A

STBY AL
STBY airspeed
STBY ALT
STBY VSI

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38
Q

what indication is not a failed AOA front cockpit indicator?

A

missing AOA readout MFD/HUD displays (comes directly from AOA transmitter)

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39
Q

You have the following indications:
Master alert, caution tone, 20 V on voltmeter
what malfunctioned?

A

undervoltage sensing unit

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40
Q

if you have dual inverter failure, what will you lose?

A

all AC services

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41
Q

if you have runaway trim with a GEN failure, which trim will work?

A

primary trim will work

stby will not

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42
Q

what does CAUG provide?

A

yaw dampening
ARI
SBI
rudder trim

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43
Q

yaw dampening and turn coordination is provided up to how many kts?

A

217 KIAS

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44
Q

yaw dampening command is sent through the ___

A

ARI

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45
Q

GTS start button energizes igniters for duration of what with weight on wheels and weight off wheels?

A

WOW: duration of press
WoffW: duration of press + 30 sec

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46
Q

What are the indications of split slats?

A

uncommanded roll
illuminated SLAT caution light
flap position may not show split flat condition because light is connected to left flap only

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47
Q

SKID caution light illuminates when

A

failure condition has been detected by anti-skid control box

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48
Q

SKID advisory will illuminate when

A

anti SKID selected

landing gear is down and locked

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49
Q

what does the paddleswitch deselect on the ground?

A

NWS and CONTR AUG

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50
Q

what does the paddleswitch deselect when airborne?

A

CONTR AUG at all times and NWS as long as the gear is down

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51
Q

NWS caution light indicates

A

malfunction within and subsequent shutdown of NWS system or NWS disconnect with paddleswitch

52
Q

what are the 5 times to secure anti skid switch?

A

after HYD 1 failure (loss of general services hydraulics)
after engine shutdown before setting parking brake
carrier landing
anti-skid caution light illuminated
blown tire

53
Q

max airspeed for slats?

A

217

54
Q

max airspeed for flap extension

A

200

55
Q

approximate full flap deflection in degrees

A

50

56
Q

approximate 1/2 flap deflection in degrees

A

25

57
Q

full slat deflection

A

15

58
Q

Speed at which speed brake blow back begins

A

380 kts

59
Q

speed above which speed brakes may not fully extend

A

340kts

60
Q

full speed brake deflection

A

60

61
Q

kts maximum gear extension/retraction speed

A

200

62
Q

approximate landing gear extension time

A

15 sec

63
Q

approximate landing gear retraction time

A

10 sec

64
Q

main landing gear oleo limits (dry)

A

2.2-2.5”

65
Q

approximate nose gear oleo exposed

A

3.25

66
Q

approximate main landing gear oleo exposed

A

7/8-1 7/8

67
Q

altitude at which presurization begins

A

5000’ MSL

68
Q

number of Gs at which anti g-suit inflation begins

A

2

69
Q

number of Gs at which anti G suit reaches max limits

A

6

70
Q

acceptable range for emergency oxygen bottle

A

1800-2500 PSI

71
Q

maximum pressure of anti-G suit inflation

A

6.5 PSI

72
Q

cabin pressure required to open safety relief valve

A

4.8 PSI

73
Q

maximum cabin pressure allowed by discharge valve

A

4 PSI

74
Q

pressure at which safety and inward relief valves open

A

-0.5

75
Q

approximate duration that emergency oxygen supply provides in minutes

A

4-10 minutes

76
Q

four situations that will cause OBOGS automatic shutoff

A

system malfunction
low oxygen concentration and altitude over 9500’
bleed air temp above 250 F
whenever OBOGS/ANTIG switch is off

77
Q

T/F once started, the oxygen supply cannot be shutoff and restarted

A

false

78
Q

Cabin alt formula

A

(Palt/2) + 3000

79
Q

degree deviation indicated by increments on the CDI for VOR and TACAN

A

5 degrees

80
Q

degree of deviation indicated by increments on the CDI for ILS

A

1 1/4 degrees

81
Q

2 1/4’ standby gyro provides valid altitude data for minimum of ____ after power loss

A

9 min

82
Q

maximum range that can be displayed on the HSI range indicator

A

399.9

83
Q

number of preset channels available

A

30

84
Q

HSI course required for VOR/ILS self test

A

000

85
Q

HSI course required for TACAN self test

A

180

86
Q

heading No.1 points to during VOR/ILS self test

A

315 +/- 2.5 degrees

87
Q

heading No.2 points to during TACAN self test

A

180 +/- 2.5 degrees

88
Q

ILS frequency range

A

108.10-111.95 MHz (odd)

89
Q

VOR frequency range

A

108.10-111.95 MHz (even)

90
Q

VHF frequency range

A

____ - 173.975 MHz

91
Q

static inputs are provided to

A 
Mach/airspeed indicators
barometric altimeter
VSI
OBOGS
SADS
92
Q

T/F the mach indicator is corrected for temperature and pressure

A

true

93
Q

T/F the forward and rear mach/airspeed indicators contains an airspeed switches set for 170 and 270 kts respectively to signal appropriate caution and warning

A

true

94
Q

The SAHRS system provides only what information to the HSI?

A

heading information

95
Q

the SAHRS system provides what information to the yaw damper control

A

roll information

96
Q

the SAHRS system provides what attitude informaiton for what?

A

ADI
HUD
ADR

97
Q

T/F the ILS needles come into view on the ADI whenever a valid ILS frequency is tuned

A

False

ILS must be selected on the NAV/COMM control transfer panel

98
Q

T/F the turn indicator on the ADI will be available in the event of a GEN failure

A

false

99
Q

T/F the number 1 green needle corresponds to VOR and number 2 white needle to TACAN

A

true

100
Q

T/F when T/R&G is selected on the COMM radio both 121.5 and 243.0 MHz are monitored

A

false

only guard freq in the select band

101
Q

AOA range for stall

A

25.5-28 units

102
Q

AOA range at which rudder shakers activate

A

21.5

103
Q

AOA range for upper green chevron

A

> 18 units

104
Q

AOA range for upper green chevron and amber donut

A

17 1/2-18 units

105
Q

optimum AOA on speed

A

17 units

106
Q

AOA range for lower red chevron and amber donut

A

16-16 1/2

107
Q

AOA range for lower red chevron

A

<16 units

108
Q

AOA for best angle of climb and max endurance (holding) ~195-210 kts

A

14 units

109
Q

AOA for best rate of climb and max range (BINGO)

A

12 units

110
Q

T/F the AOA indexer light illuminates with weight off wheels and the gear handle down

A

false

three gear down and locked

111
Q

T/F discrepancies are possible between rear cockpit AOA indicator and rear cockpit indexer lights

A

true

112
Q

maximum altitude displayed on radar altimeter

A

5,000- AGL

113
Q

altitude indicated during the BIT check

A

100 +/- 10’

114
Q

maximum pitch or bank angle for radar altimeter effectiveness

A

40 degrees

115
Q

radar altimeter designation

A

AN/APN-194

116
Q

T/F the low altitude warning system (LAWS) can be set in either cockpit, but the headset warning tone will only be triggered by the front cockpit radar altimeter

A

true

117
Q

AA TACAN channels

A

63

118
Q

to open ram air _____

A

turn AC switch to OFF

119
Q

SBI move what, not what

A

stabilator not stick

120
Q

MFDs are powered by ___

A

28 VDC GEN bus
28 VDC essential bus
115 VAC non essential bus

121
Q

T/F BIT page comes up on power up

A

false, MENU page

122
Q

what malfunction has occurred if ATC reports loss of alt info

A

IFF failure

123
Q

when does CANOPY light illuminate

A

anytime canopy not locked

124
Q

abnormal starts

A

now difference

125
Q

maximum trim rate

A

2 degrees per second

126
Q

maximum time required for CONTROL AUG BIT test

A

120 sec

T-45 ground school (8 decks)

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