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T-45 ground school > Engine 2 CNI > Flashcards

Engine 2 CNI Flashcards

1
Q

what does the DEU do?

A

control the MUX bus

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2
Q

the DEU exchanges digital data words between what?

A 
itself
ADR
GINA
MDL
all via MUX bus
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3
Q

what are the hard wired interfaces of the DEU?

A

analog
discrete
video

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4
Q

what kind of computer is the DEU?

A

Mission and Display

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5
Q

on power up of the DEU, what is displayed?

A

MENU page

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6
Q

What powers the DEU?

A

28 VDC Essential Bus
28 VDC GEN bus
115 VAC Non essential
26 VAC non essential

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7
Q

MFD failure is indicated by?

A

blank or blinking display

stuck pushbutton

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8
Q

Since MFD and HUD are lost with a DEU failure, what approach are you limited to?

A

PAR approach, no gyro

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9
Q

The display system derives what data from GINA and the pitot static system?

A

GINA: pitch, roll, heading, vertical velocity
Pitot: altitude and indicated airspeed

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10
Q

What are the duplicated MFD inputs on the DEP?

A

LAW, CRS, HDG, BINGO

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11
Q

How many satellites does GINA use?

A

5 satellites but it uses the 4 best ones for the GPS positioni

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12
Q

what is GINA composed of?

A

GPS and INA

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13
Q

when is GINA alignment complete?

A

waterline symbol is replaced by velocity vector

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14
Q

GINA begins alignment with what and when is it complete?

A

auto bit initiate

alignment is complete approximately 3 minutes after auto bit is initiated

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15
Q

What is the HUD?

A

electro-optical device which displays flight and weapon delivery information

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16
Q

What are the different BITS?

A

power up
initiated
continuous and manual

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17
Q

Auto initiation of IBIT occurs in what order?

A 
DEU
GINA
ADR
MDL
RALT
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18
Q

what are the two BIT display pages?

A

weight on wheels

weight off wheels

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19
Q

what does it mean when the bit status says OPGO?

A

single channel failure of the MUX

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20
Q

What is the difference between magnetic bearing and relative bearing?

A

magnetic bearing: a type of bearing that supports a load using magnetic levitation
relative bearing: clockwise angle from the heading of the vessel to a straight line drawn from the observation station on the vessel to the object

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21
Q

What will planimetric TACAN steering do?

A

disable ILS/VOR slection

the VOR/ILS legend will not be displayed

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22
Q

ILS localizer and GS needles will be displayed on the ADI and HUD when what?

A

ILS is boxed on the HSI

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23
Q

Full needle deflection in CDI indicates what?

A

10 or more radial deviation in TACAN
10 or more bearing line deviation in VOR
4 NM or more deviation from CL in WYPT or WOS steering (gear up)
.3 NM or more (gear down)
limits of the localizer in ILS (usually 2.5 degrees)

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24
Q

Mode test illuminates what lights?

A

GO or NO GO lights (not antenna lights)

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25
what is the only system with 2 antennas?
IFF
26
IFF DEGRD on the BIT page indicates what?
IFF power off or in the STBY or an IFF BIT failure
27
what is Mode C?
altitude squawk
28
What does the VCR records what?
``` HUD MFD display ICS radio comms CWS tones ```
29
how many GPS channels do you have?
5
30
what are the major components of GINA?
GPS and inertial NAV assembly GPS INS and accelerometer set
31
DEU controls what?
MUX box
32
Ring laser gyro has what?
few moving parts and is unaffected by G forces | It is affected by earth-rate procession
33
when do rudder shakers activate?
21.5 units
34
MFD has __ controls, _______ and they are on the _____
3, 20 push buttons, MFD bezel
35
Which instruments display rad alt readout?
ADI and HUD
36
What would you use if your ADI display failed?
STBY AI (other MFD should default to ADI anyway)
37
which instrument would verify VSI display readout failure?
STBY AL STBY airspeed STBY ALT STBY VSI
38
what indication is not a failed AOA front cockpit indicator?
missing AOA readout MFD/HUD displays (comes directly from AOA transmitter)
39
You have the following indications: Master alert, caution tone, 20 V on voltmeter what malfunctioned?
undervoltage sensing unit
40
if you have dual inverter failure, what will you lose?
all AC services
41
if you have runaway trim with a GEN failure, which trim will work?
primary trim will work | stby will not
42
what does CAUG provide?
yaw dampening ARI SBI rudder trim
43
yaw dampening and turn coordination is provided up to how many kts?
217 KIAS
44
yaw dampening command is sent through the ___
ARI
45
GTS start button energizes igniters for duration of what with weight on wheels and weight off wheels?
WOW: duration of press WoffW: duration of press + 30 sec
46
What are the indications of split slats?
uncommanded roll illuminated SLAT caution light flap position may not show split flat condition because light is connected to left flap only
47
SKID caution light illuminates when
failure condition has been detected by anti-skid control box
48
SKID advisory will illuminate when
anti SKID selected | landing gear is down and locked
49
what does the paddleswitch deselect on the ground?
NWS and CONTR AUG
50
what does the paddleswitch deselect when airborne?
CONTR AUG at all times and NWS as long as the gear is down
51
NWS caution light indicates
malfunction within and subsequent shutdown of NWS system or NWS disconnect with paddleswitch
52
what are the 5 times to secure anti skid switch?
after HYD 1 failure (loss of general services hydraulics) after engine shutdown before setting parking brake carrier landing anti-skid caution light illuminated blown tire
53
max airspeed for slats?
217
54
max airspeed for flap extension
200
55
approximate full flap deflection in degrees
50
56
approximate 1/2 flap deflection in degrees
25
57
full slat deflection
15
58
Speed at which speed brake blow back begins
380 kts
59
speed above which speed brakes may not fully extend
340kts
60
full speed brake deflection
60
61
kts maximum gear extension/retraction speed
200
62
approximate landing gear extension time
15 sec
63
approximate landing gear retraction time
10 sec
64
main landing gear oleo limits (dry)
2.2-2.5"
65
approximate nose gear oleo exposed
3.25
66
approximate main landing gear oleo exposed
7/8-1 7/8
67
altitude at which presurization begins
5000' MSL
68
number of Gs at which anti g-suit inflation begins
2
69
number of Gs at which anti G suit reaches max limits
6
70
acceptable range for emergency oxygen bottle
1800-2500 PSI
71
maximum pressure of anti-G suit inflation
6.5 PSI
72
cabin pressure required to open safety relief valve
4.8 PSI
73
maximum cabin pressure allowed by discharge valve
4 PSI
74
pressure at which safety and inward relief valves open
-0.5
75
approximate duration that emergency oxygen supply provides in minutes
4-10 minutes
76
four situations that will cause OBOGS automatic shutoff
system malfunction low oxygen concentration and altitude over 9500' bleed air temp above 250 F whenever OBOGS/ANTIG switch is off
77
T/F once started, the oxygen supply cannot be shutoff and restarted
false
78
Cabin alt formula
(Palt/2) + 3000
79
degree deviation indicated by increments on the CDI for VOR and TACAN
5 degrees
80
degree of deviation indicated by increments on the CDI for ILS
1 1/4 degrees
81
2 1/4' standby gyro provides valid altitude data for minimum of ____ after power loss
9 min
82
maximum range that can be displayed on the HSI range indicator
399.9
83
number of preset channels available
30
84
HSI course required for VOR/ILS self test
000
85
HSI course required for TACAN self test
180
86
heading No.1 points to during VOR/ILS self test
315 +/- 2.5 degrees
87
heading No.2 points to during TACAN self test
180 +/- 2.5 degrees
88
ILS frequency range
108.10-111.95 MHz (odd)
89
VOR frequency range
108.10-111.95 MHz (even)
90
VHF frequency range
____ - 173.975 MHz
91
static inputs are provided to
``` Mach/airspeed indicators barometric altimeter VSI OBOGS SADS ```
92
T/F the mach indicator is corrected for temperature and pressure
true
93
T/F the forward and rear mach/airspeed indicators contains an airspeed switches set for 170 and 270 kts respectively to signal appropriate caution and warning
true
94
The SAHRS system provides only what information to the HSI?
heading information
95
the SAHRS system provides what information to the yaw damper control
roll information
96
the SAHRS system provides what attitude informaiton for what?
ADI HUD ADR
97
T/F the ILS needles come into view on the ADI whenever a valid ILS frequency is tuned
False | ILS must be selected on the NAV/COMM control transfer panel
98
T/F the turn indicator on the ADI will be available in the event of a GEN failure
false
99
T/F the number 1 green needle corresponds to VOR and number 2 white needle to TACAN
true
100
T/F when T/R&G is selected on the COMM radio both 121.5 and 243.0 MHz are monitored
false | only guard freq in the select band
101
AOA range for stall
25.5-28 units
102
AOA range at which rudder shakers activate
21.5
103
AOA range for upper green chevron
>18 units
104
AOA range for upper green chevron and amber donut
17 1/2-18 units
105
optimum AOA on speed
17 units
106
AOA range for lower red chevron and amber donut
16-16 1/2
107
AOA range for lower red chevron
<16 units
108
AOA for best angle of climb and max endurance (holding) ~195-210 kts
14 units
109
AOA for best rate of climb and max range (BINGO)
12 units
110
T/F the AOA indexer light illuminates with weight off wheels and the gear handle down
false | three gear down and locked
111
T/F discrepancies are possible between rear cockpit AOA indicator and rear cockpit indexer lights
true
112
maximum altitude displayed on radar altimeter
5,000- AGL
113
altitude indicated during the BIT check
100 +/- 10'
114
maximum pitch or bank angle for radar altimeter effectiveness
40 degrees
115
radar altimeter designation
AN/APN-194
116
T/F the low altitude warning system (LAWS) can be set in either cockpit, but the headset warning tone will only be triggered by the front cockpit radar altimeter
true
117
AA TACAN channels
63
118
to open ram air _____
turn AC switch to OFF
119
SBI move what, not what
stabilator not stick
120
MFDs are powered by ___
28 VDC GEN bus 28 VDC essential bus 115 VAC non essential bus
121
T/F BIT page comes up on power up
false, MENU page
122
what malfunction has occurred if ATC reports loss of alt info
IFF failure
123
when does CANOPY light illuminate
anytime canopy not locked
124
abnormal starts
now difference
125
maximum trim rate
2 degrees per second
126
maximum time required for CONTROL AUG BIT test
120 sec

T-45 ground school (8 decks)

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