ENDOCRINE: DIABETES, THYROID, Flashcards

1
Q

drug causes dysglycemia

A
glucocorticoids 
BB
atypical antipsychotics 
fluoroquinolone 
protease and calcineurin inhibitors 
statins ( HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors)
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2
Q

the diagnosis of diabetes in Canada is established by

A

a random plasma glucose ≥11.1 mmol/L

a fasting plasma glucose (FPG) ≥7 mmol/L

2hPG in a 75-g OGTT ≥11.1 mmol/L

an HbA1c ≥6.5% (in adults)

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3
Q

what is the target for diabetes

A

FPG 4-7 mmol/L
2HPG 5-10 mmol/L OR 5-8 if A1C target not met

HBA1C <7% or <6.5% if patient has low hypoglycemia risk to reduce CKD & retinopathy

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4
Q

when is higher <8.5% A1C target indicated?

A

<8.5% in patient with history of severe hypoglycaemia, limited life expectancy, frail and/elderly with dementia

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5
Q

when is higher <8.0% A1C target indicated?

A

functionally dependent ( to avoid hypoglycaemia)

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6
Q

diabetes+ ASCVD ( acute MI, Coronary/ arterial vascularization, stroke, TIA, PAD)–> add?

A

GLP1 ( liraglutide, dulaglutide or SQ semaglutide)

SGLT2 ( empa, cana)

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7
Q

Diabetes + HF?

A

Dapa or empa

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8
Q

CKD+ DIABETES

A

SGLT 2 ( cana ( most evidence) then daga or empa)

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9
Q

ESRD + diabetes, what agent ??

A

ESRD < 15ml/min

DPP4 ( alogliptin, linagliptin, sitagliptin) or dulaglutide or repaglinide or SU (gliclazide) )insulin (low dose)

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10
Q

Which diabetes agent has benefit on weight loss

A

GLP1 and SGLT2I

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11
Q

which diabetes agent have reduce risk of hypoglycaemia

A

GLP1
SGLT2
acarbose or pioglitazone

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12
Q

when is appropriate to add insulin?

A

symptomatic hyperglycaemia, metabolic decompensation or antihyperglycemics insufficient
A1C >10%
Glucose >16.7 mmol/L

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13
Q

what is the recommended insulin basal starting dose

A

0.1-0.2 units/kg/day OR 5-10 units/ day , titrate 1 unit/day to taget BG ( FP <7 mmol/L

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14
Q

when it is appropriate to initiate bolus insulin?

how should bolus insulin be initiated?

A

BG not control despite being on basal + SGLT2 or GLP1 OR gylcemic values extremely high, may start basal/bolus right away

then add bolus

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15
Q

what is the renal cutoff in metformin, SGLT2-inhibitor

A

eGFR <30 ml/min

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16
Q

what is the MOA of biguanides and AE?

A

AI: increasing peripheral glucose uptake and insulin sensitivity and decreasing hepatic production

AE: upset stomach, N/V/, metallic taste, rhinitis, acidosis, B12 deficiency

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17
Q

MOA of a-glucosidase inhibitor and AE?

A

acarbose; inhibit a-glucosidase enzyme in SI, less glucose in absorbed since carbohydrates are B/D

AE: flatulence, diarrhea, abdominal pain ( dose related), hepatitis

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18
Q

sulfonylureas MOA and AE

A

gliclazide, glyburide, glimepiride, tobutamide

Meglitinides ( repaglnide)
depolarizes beta cells to stimulate insulin

hypoglycaemia ( higher with glyburide and eGFR <60 ml/min) 
weight gain 
headache 
dizziness 
GI effects
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19
Q

MOA of thiazolidinediones and AE

A

pioglitazone and rosiglitazone
increase PPAR-y sensitivity to insulin and decrease hepatic glucose production

ae: exacerbations/cause of HF, fluid retention, weight gain ( 2-2.5 kg), fractures, macular edema (rare), URI, headache

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20
Q

what are the CI of thiazolidinediones

A

HF, liver failure, bladder cancer( pioglitazone-rare), MI ( rosiglitazone- controversial)

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21
Q

DPP-4 inhibition MOA and adverse effects

A

“liptin” drug, sitagliptin, saxagliptin, linagliptin, alogliptin

DPP-4 inhibition leads to increase incretin levels

AE: headache, N/V/D, nasopharyngitis,

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22
Q

what should we be cautious of when initiating DPP-4 inhibition

A

**caution with history of pancreatitis or pancreatic cancer

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23
Q

what diabetic agent should we avoid in HF patient

A

DPP-4 I ( saxagliptin only)

thiazolidinediones,

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24
Q

what are the MOA of GLP-1 agonist and adverse effects

A

“tide drug”- exenatide, dulaglutide, liraglutide, lixisenatide, semaglutide

increased incretin concentrations

AE: N/V/D, weight loss
rare: acute pancreatitis, gallbladder

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25
Q

GLP-1 agonist Contraindication

A

pregnancy, personal/family hx of MTC or MENS, caution with history of pancreatitis or pancreatic cancer

**gastric emptying ( give agents requiring rapid GI absopr

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26
Q

what is the MOA of SGLT2 inhibitor and adverse effect

A

inhibits glucose reabsorption in the kidneys

AE: UTI, yeast infection. hypotension, hyperkalemia and diabetic ketacidosis (rare)

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27
Q

what are the CI of SGLT2

A
bladder cancer ( dapagliflozin) 
EGFR < 30ML/MIN
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28
Q

Adverse effects of insulin

A

weight gain, hypoglycaemia, lipohypertrohy ( must rotate site)

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29
Q

what is a significant side effects of rosiglitazone

A

increased cardiovascular event risk, NEED WRITEN CONSENT FROM PATIENT

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30
Q

MOA of lipase inhibitor and AE

A

Orlistat ( decreases fat and breakdown and absorption by 30%) used as weight loss agent

AE: N/V/D, increased bowel movement, flatulence

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31
Q

CI of lipase inhibitor

A

pregnancy, chronic malabsorption syndrome, cholestasis

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32
Q

what counselling point should be mentioned when taking meglitinides

A

take 15-30 mins prior to meals or right before, Delay or skip dose if delayed or skipped ** quicker onset compared to SU and less risk of hypoglycaemia

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33
Q

which class of diabetic meds can you NOT combine with GLP1 agonist

A

DPP 4 INHIBITOR

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34
Q

which diabetic class have weight gain potential

A

insulin, SU, meglitinides, TZD,

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35
Q

which insulin is basal ?

which is bolus

A

Insulin NPH, glargine 100u/ml + glargine 300 u/ml, degludec, determir

bolus: insulin glulisine (apidra) , lispro ( humalog), aspart (novorapid)
regular: Humulin-R, Entuzity

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36
Q

what is the difference between ultra-rapid analogues and regular insulin

A

ultra rapid has less hypoglycaemia than regular insulin, take right before eating (lispro, aspart, glulisine)

Regular: take 30 min prior to eating (Novolin R)

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37
Q

basal insulin longest to shortest acting

A

degludec>glargine>determir/levemir> Humulin N, Novolin

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38
Q

Which insulin is cloudy

A

INTERMEDIATE BASAL NPH ( Humulin N,

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39
Q

drug of choice for pregnancy

A

rapid acting insulin or regular insulin,

lisper and aspart have decreased risk of hypoglycaemia compared to regular insulin
if Insulin is CI, metformin or glyburide can be used ( off labels)

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40
Q

is ACE, ARB or STATINS safe in pregnancy?

A

no

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41
Q

what are the recommended target for pregnancy?

A

FPG <5.3
2HRPG < 6.7
HBA1C: <6.5& OR <6.1% if safely achievable

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42
Q

what is the chronic adverse effect of metformin

A

vitamin B12 deficiency

43
Q

What is the difference between dawn phenomenon and Somogyi effect?

A

If the blood sugar level is low at 2 a.m. to 3 a.m., suspect the Somogyi effect. If the blood sugar level is normal or high at 2 a.m. to 3 a.m., it’s likely the dawn phenomenon.

44
Q

what is diabetic ketoacidosis? signs and symptoms? how to treat?

A

acute and fetal metabolic complication due to severe insulin deficiency. more common in type 1

  • decreased consciousness
  • depleted Na+ K+ Cl- H2O
  • hospitalization
  • fluid
45
Q

how to treat diabetic ketoacidosis

A
  1. ICU
  2. fluid resuscitation and K+ replacement
  3. insulin and dextrose infusion (10u bolus IV until BG 5-7)
  4. bicarbonate ( beneficial when pH <7)
46
Q

what is consider mild and moderate to severe hypoglycaemia

A

mild <4 mmol/ L + autonomic symptoms: sweating, trembling, palpitations, anxiety, tingling, hunger

moderate to severe <2.8 mmol + neuroglycopenic symptoms: LOC, drowsiness, confusion, weakness, visual disturbances, speech impairment

47
Q

how to treat hypoglycaemia

A

15g of carbohydrate ( 4 glucose tabs OR 3 tsp of table sugar (15ml) or 1 tbsp of honey (15ml) ), check BG in 15 mins and if BG <4, 6 life savers repeat treatment

48
Q

what is consider microvascular and macrovascular complications

A

macro: cerebrovascular, CAD, PVD
micro: retinopathy, neuropath, nephropathy

49
Q

symptoms of hyPOgylcemia and hyPERgylcemia

A

hypo: sweating, trembling, LOC, drowsiness, confusion, weakness
hyper: polydipsia, polyuria, kussmaul breathing (hyper-ventilation), acetone breath

50
Q

what is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism

A

graves disease ( thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin stimulate TSH receptor on thyroid gland ** overproduction of thyroid hormone

51
Q

clinical presentation of hyperthyroidism

A

nervousness, palpitation hand tremors, increased appetite, weight loss, goitre, nodules

52
Q

which drug can cause hyper-t

A

levothyroxine ( over replacement , amiodarone, lithium ( rare), interferon, Tyrosine kinase inhibitors ( TKIs), SU (glyburide)

53
Q

what are laboratory for hyper-t

A

increase RAIU, decreased TSH and increased FT4

54
Q

What are treatment option for hyper-t

A

radioactive iodine
methimazole
propylthiouracil
propanolol

55
Q

what are the MOA of radioactive iodine? adverse effects?

CI?

A

radioactive damages thyroid tissue
N/V/D/ metallic taste, sore neck, worsen graves opthalmopathy

CI: pregnancy and breastfeeding

56
Q

important counselling point for radioactive iodine

drug interaction?

A

wait at least 6 months before conceiving

lithium prolongs RAI

57
Q

1) MOA of methimazole?
2) ae?
3) CI

A

Blocks conversion of T4 to T3
arthralgia, rash, nausea, sore throat and fever
GI
rare: bone barrow suppression, agranulocytosis

CI: 1st trimester of pregnancy ( MMI) ** d/c at least 5 days before diagnostic test

58
Q

Propylthiouracil MOA,

indication?

adverse effects?

A

inhibits peripheral T4 to T3 conversion

ae: same same as Methimazole + higher risk of hepatotoxicity and agranulocytosis with propythiouracil

59
Q

significant DI between methimazole and propylthiouracil?

A

clozapine ( risk of agranulocytosis)

60
Q

which agent can be used in children and which in pregnancy for hyperthyroid

A

methimazole: can be used in children
propylthiouracil: preferred in 1st trimester of pregnancy, avoid in children due to risk of hepatotoxicity

61
Q

what drug is used in management of severe hyper-t ( thyroid storm)

A

lug’s solution

62
Q

which disease is classified as primary hypo-t

A

hashimoto thyroiditis

autoimmune destruction of thyroid cells due to overproduction of antibodies against thyroid gland

63
Q

laboratory for primary hypo-t, secondary and tertiary

A

primary: Increased TSH and decreased fT4

2 + 3: decreased TSH and decreased fT4

64
Q

what the difference b/w 2 and 3 hypo-t

A

2: pituitary gland disorder ( neoplasm or trauma
3: hypothalamus disorder ( neoplasm or trauma

65
Q

what value is subclinical hypo-t

A

increased TSH, normal T3T4

66
Q

what are clinical presentation and symptoms of hypo-t

A

fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, bradycardia

67
Q

is female at an increased risk of hypo-t

68
Q

what medication can cause hypo-

A

lithium, amiodarone, thionamides,

69
Q

is there non-pharm therapy for hypo-t

A

no, thyroid hormone replacement is mainstay of therapy

70
Q

pharmacotherapy for hypo-t

A

levothroxine (synthetic t4)- drug of choice

liothyronine ( synthetic T3)- replaces endogenous T3 ( shorter acting)

71
Q

AE of synthroid

A

symptoms of hyper-t and may worsen angina

72
Q

dose of synthroid

A

1.6 mcg/kg/ day ( dose titration of 12.5-25 mcg q 4-8 weeks) PRN

consider 12.5-25 mcg/day for elderly or those with cardiac disease

73
Q

what are counselling points for synthroid

A
  • take 1/2 hr before food

- space at least 4 hrs from calcium and iron containing products

74
Q

what is the indication of liothronine

A

short term management in thyroid cancer patients off synthroid therapy

75
Q

when should u check TSH after dose changes?

76
Q

TSH is produced by

A

pituitary gland

77
Q

Which compound is necessary for the production of T3 and T4?

78
Q

Which of the following drugs may block the conversion of T4 to T3?

A

amiodaone and PTU

79
Q

what is the role of beta blocker in thyroid disease

A

elieve the thyrotoxic symptoms such as palpitations, anxiety, tremor and heat intoleranc

80
Q

what is the interaction b/w warfarin and synthroid ?

A

increases warfarin. ( decrease in the dose of anticoagulant may be warranted with correction of the hypothyroid state or when the levothyroxine sodium dose is increase)

81
Q

The cause of the hyperthyroidism is the production of an antibody that does which of the following?

A

Activates the thyroid gland TSH receptor and stimulates thyroid hormone synthesis and release

82
Q

Which of the following is a drug that is a useful adjuvant in the treatment of thyroid storm?

A

In thyroid storm, beta blockers such as propranolol are useful in controlling the tachycardia and other cardiac abnormalities, and propranbolol also inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.

83
Q

What hormone is produced in the peripheral tissues when levothyroxine is administered?

84
Q

When should screening for type 2 diabetes using a fasting plasma glucose (FPG) be performed in the average adult patient?

A

Every 3 years for individuals ≥ 40 years.

85
Q

which diabetic medication can prevent progression from prediabetes to diabetes

A

metformin + acarbose

86
Q

when is ketone testing indicated

A

all individuals with type 1 diabetes during periods of acute illness accompanied by elevated BG, when preprandial BG levels remain elevated (>14.0 mmol/L), or when symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) (such as nausea, vomiting or abdominal pain) are present

87
Q

when should SMBG be done in type 1 and type 2 diabetes

A

type 1: 3 times daily
2: once daily on basal + oral antihyperglycemic agents
IF not on insulin- individualized (usually 1 to 2 times per week)

88
Q

What is the duration of effect of long-acting basal insulin analogues?

A

42 hours ( degludec)

89
Q

What is the recommended treatment of an unconscious patient with hypoglycemia?

A

1 mg glucagon SC or IM

90
Q

Which of the following would be considered as alternatives to NPH insulin in someone prone to hypoglycemia?

A

Use of long-acting basal insulin analogues (insulin detemir, insulin glargine, insulin degludec) in those already on antihyperglycemic agents reduces the relative risk of symptomatic and nocturnal hypoglycemia compared to treatment with NPH insulin

91
Q

When should you realistically expect to attain a target A1C in patients with type 2 diabetes who are using antihyperglycemic agents?

A

3-6 months

92
Q

in DKA, is serum bicarb decreased or increased

A

decreased serum bicarbonate level

93
Q

what are the common carbbohydrate ratio?

A

1:10 to 1:15

1 unit per 10 g CHO

94
Q

when is post prandial BG testing done?

A

2 hours after a meal

95
Q

what site is best for injecting bolus and basal insulin

A

bolus: abdomen for rapid reabsorption
basal: abdomen or thigh or arms since rapid absorption is not critical

** note switching between sites will lead to variability in BG control.

96
Q

Anatomical areas ranked in decreasing order of absorption rate are:

A

adomen, arm, thigh, buttock

97
Q

how should patient administer insulin

A

hort term re-use of needles/syringes are not recommended (unless there is an emergency situation). Most patients should use a 90 degree angle (45 degrees is reserved for very thin people

98
Q

which insulin can be mixed and which cannot

A

LANTUS CANNOT be mixed with other insulin

regular short insulin can be mixed with NPH with no problem

99
Q

rapid analogues have onset of?

A

Apidra / Humalog / NovRapid have onset of 10-15 minutes

100
Q

NPH peak?

long acting insulin onset???

A

5- 8 hours

90 mins

101
Q

when would insulin pump CSII be indicated for patient with type 1 diabetes

A

CSII can be considered in people with type 1 diabetes who do not reach glycemic targets despite optimized basal-bolus injection therapy, as well as in the following individuals: those with significant glucose variability; frequent severe hypoglycemia and/or hypoglycemia unawareness; significant “dawn phenomenon” with rise of blood glucose early in the morning;

102
Q

increasing breakfast aspart dose will decrease the—- meal preprandial glucose readings, and increasing the lunchtime aspart dose will decrease the —- r meal preprandial glucose readings.

A

lunch, dinner

*** Adjustment of fast-acting insulin doses will affect the preprandial glucose levels at the following meal

103
Q

which GLP1 is dose weekly

A

semaglutide, dulaglutide

exenatide 2mg

104
Q

which GLP-1 RA what CV benefit

A

liraglutide