Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

What nerves are at risk during thyroidectomy and how do you avoid injuring them? what would be the consequence of injury to them?

A

This nerve branches off the vagus nerve and passes lateral to the thyroid gland. It is most commonly injured during superior pole mobilisation and to minimise risk - ligate the superior thyroid vessels close to the gland

This branches and the external branch supplies cricothyroid muscle and damage therefore leads to voice fatigue and altered projection. The internal branch provides sensation for the pharynx and epiglottis above the vocal cords and therefore damage leads to poor cough/aspiration risk

These nerves branch off the vagus nerve. They take different paths on left and right. (Left loops under the aortic arch and right loops under the right subclavian artery) to then pass superiorly in the tracheooesophageal groove and posterior to the thyroid gland. This is when they are at risk during posterior mobilisation of the thyroid gland.

They supply all the intrinsic muscles of the larynx (except criothyroid) and the vocal cords. Therefore damage to these nerves results in the cord being fixed in adduction position which if unilateral damage results in hoarse voice and bilateral damage results in obstruction.

These nerves are at even higher irks of injury when the nerves are non-recurrent. This is more common on the right this can occur on the right in an abberant right subclavian (arteria lusoria) or on the left if there is a right sided aortic arch.

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2
Q

Describe the embryology of the thyroid.

A

The thyroid arises from the endoderm from foramen cecum and descends into the neck.

The C cells arise from the neural crest of the 4th pharyngeal pouch.

The pyramidal lobe is the remnant of the thyroglossal duct.

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3
Q

Describe the suspensory ligaments of the thyroid.

A

Anterior suspensory ligament suspends the thyroid from the cricoid & thyroid cartilidges. It contians Delphians nodes.

Posterior suspensory ligament suspends the thyroid from the trachea and is close to recurrent laryngeal nerves.

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4
Q

Describe the vascular supply of the thyroid.

A
  • Superior thyroid artery from external carotid. Adjacent to superior laryngeal nerve
  • Inferior thyroid artery from thyrocervical trunk off the subclavian artery. Adjacent to the recurrent laryngeal nerve. Usually anterior to the RLN on the right and posterior to it on the left. THis artery also supplies both superior and inferior parathyroids.
  • Thyroidea ima artery from the innominate artery (most common) or aorta or carotids. supplies the isthmus in 3-5% of the population.

Venous drainage is via the superior and middle thyroid veins into the internal jugular and via the inferior thyroid vein into the innominate vein.

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5
Q

What cells produce hormones in the thyroid?

A

Thyroid follicles (spherical groupings of thyrocytes/follicular cells) produce T3/4 and surround a thyroglobulin core.

The parafollicular C cells (scattered in spaces between follicles) produce calcitonin.

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6
Q

What is the process of T3/T4 production in the thyroid?

A
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7
Q

What are the functions of T3/4 and calcitonin?

A

T3
- more active than T4
- 87% produced in periphery by deiodinase converting T4 to T3
- increases HR & CO
- increases RR
- increases basal metabolic rate
- potentiates catecholamine effects

T4
- 15x more prevalent than T3
- less active but similar effects at T3

Calcitonin
- decreases calcium and phosphate
- decreases bone osteoclast calcium secretion
- decreases renal reabsorption of calcium
- decreases renal reabsorption of phosphate
- can cause diarrhoea with oversecretion.

*Calci-tone-in: Tones Down Calcium

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8
Q

What would you expect to see on blood tests for
- primary hypothyroidism
- subclinical hypothyrodism
- secondary hypothyroidism
- primary hyperthyroidism

A

Primary hypothyroidism:

  • decreased T4, increased TSH
  1. Less T4 and T3 are produced due to the thyroid’s reduced capacity to produce hormone or respond to TSH.
  2. As a result, there is reduced negative feedback on the pituitary and hypothalamus.
  3. The reduction in negative feedback results in increased production of TRH (which we don’t typically measure) and TSH.
  4. The end result is low T4 and T3 and a raised TSH.

A normal T4 in the context of a raised TSH may suggest subclinical hypothyroidism (most commonly caused by underlying autoimmune disease).

Pathology which affects the pituitary and hypothalamic glands can result in decreased production of TRH and TSH, causing secondary hypothyroidism.

Secondary hypothyroidism is a rare cause of hypothyroidism, accounting for 1% of all cases.

  1. Decreased production or secretion of TRH and TSH results in decreased stimulation of the thyroid gland.
  2. The thyroid gland, therefore, produces less T3 and T4.
  3. The low T3 and T4 would normally stimulate the pituitary and hypothalamic glands to increase TRH and TSH production, however, they are unable to increase production.
  4. The end result is low T4 and T3 and a normal/low TSH.

Is excessive T3/T4 production as a result of thyroid gland pathology.

  1. The thyroid produces excessive amounts of T4 and T3.
  2. The excessive T4 and T3 cause negative feedback on the pituitary and hypothalamus, resulting in decreased production of TRH and TSH.
  3. The end result is a raised T3 and T4 and a low TSH.

involves stimulation of the thyroid gland by excessive thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).

  1. TSH production is increased by either the pituitary/hypothalamus or another source (known as ectopic production).
  2. The excess TSH causes overstimulation of the thyroid gland, resulting in high levels of T3 and T4 production.
  3. Normally a raised T3 and T4 level would cause negative feedback, decreasing TSH production, however, in this instance, the TSH production is not responsive to any negative feedback, resulting in continued excess production.
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9
Q

What are the clinical features of hypothyroidism?

A

BRADYCARDIC

Bradycardia
Reflexes slowed
Alopecia
Dry skin
Yawning - fatigue/lethargy
Cold intolerance
Anaemia
Raised weight
Depression
Impaired memory
Constipation

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10
Q

What is thyroiditis?

A

Inflammation of the thyroid gland. It may initially present as hyperthyroid/thyrotoxicosis but ultimately leads to hypothyroidism.

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11
Q

What are some causes of Hypothyroidism?

A

Painless thyroiditis:

Can be divided into primary (99%) and secondary (1%). Within primary can divide into thyroiditis that cause painless and painful hypothyroidism and then non-thyroiditis causes. Within secondary can divide into pituitary or hypothalamic causes.

Primary = low T3/T4 production due to inability to respond to TSH stimulation.

  • Hashimotos
  • Postpartum
  • Riedels (fibrous)
  • Drug-induced
  • De Quervains
  • Acute supparative
  • Trauma induced
  • Radioiodine induced
  • Thyroidectomy (hemi or tot)
  • Euthyroid sick syndrome
  • cervical radiation therapy
  • iodine deficiency
  • decreased TSH by pituitary

Secondary = low TRH or TSH resulting in low stimulation of the thyroid gland therefore low T3/T4.

  • adenoma (most common)
  • radiation or surgery that damages pituitary tissue
  • hypothalamic or suprasellar tumour
  • radiation or surgery that damages hypothalamus tissue
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12
Q

What is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A
  • autoimmune inflammation of the thyroid
  • most common cause of hypothyroidism
  • autoantibodies include anti-thyroglobulin (anti-Tg), anti-thyroperoxidase (anti-TPO) and anti-microsomal.
  • associated with increased iodine intake
  • most common in woemn 7:1 aged 30-50
  • most assymptomatic and painless.
  • increased risk for thyroid lymphoma
  • on USS looks heterogenous and diffusely enlarged
  • on FNA will show lymphocytic infiltrates with germinal centres, Hurthle cells, fibrosis and small follicles with decreased colloid.

Treat with synthetic thyroxine with goal TSH normal level and to relieve symptoms.

Surgical if symptoms of mass effect, concern for malignancy or cosmesis.

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13
Q

What is post-partum thyroiditis?

A
  • Variant of Hashimotos thyroiditis with autoimmune antibody mediated destruction of the thyroid within 1 year post partum.
  • usually self resolving with 6-12 months
  • recurrence is common
  • may develop permanent hypothyroidism over next 3-12 years.
  • on FNA would show lymphocytic infiltrates WITHOUT germinal centres, Hurthle cells or fibrosis.
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14
Q

What is Riedel’s (fibrous) thyroiditis?

A
  • invasive fibrotic replacement of thyroid +/- perithyroid tissue including parathyroids.
  • Fibrosis may also involve other extra-thyroidal sites (Retroperitoneum, Mediastinum, Lungs & Parotid Glands
  • thyroid gland is typically non tender and stone hard.
  • on USS appears hypoechoic, reduced vascularity, difficult demarcation of thyroid from surrounding tissue.
  • on biopsy extensive fibrosis and paucity of follicular epithelium.
  • Treat with steroids.
  • If airway obstruction perform isthmusectomy only (resection of the other lobes high risk for damage to surrounding structures due to loss of normal tissue planes)
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15
Q

What drugs are most commonly implicated in drug-induced thyroditis?

A
  • Amiodarone
  • Tyrosine kinase inhibitors e.g. imatinib
  • Interferon alpha
  • Interleukin 2
  • Lithium
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16
Q

What organisms are most commonly implicated in acute supparative thyroiditis and how is it treated?

A

Staph aureus or strep

most arise from haematogenous spread in immunocompromised patients

treat with abx and perc drainage, may need surgical drainage if abscess.

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17
Q

What are the clinical features of hyperthyroidism?

A

Remember SWEATING

Sweating
Weight loss (despite increased appetite)
Emotional lability (anxiety and irritability)
Arrhythmia, palpitations and hypertension
Tremor & tachycardia
Intolerance of heat
Nervousness (hyperactivity, restlessness) & Nausea and vomiting
Graves specific = exopthalmos, pretibial myxoedema

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18
Q

What is meant by a thyroid storm?

A

Thyrotoxic crisis whereby a sudden release of large amounts of thyroid hormone can lead to life threatening sequelae of high output cardiac failure.

Occurs independent of TSH and can be caused by cessation of thioamide medication, due to trauma, severe illness or during thyroid manipulation intraoperatively.

Often have previously undiagnosed Graves disease.

Can be exacerbated by aspirin (decreases protein binding to T3/T4).

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19
Q

What is Amiodarone Induced Thyrotoxicosis?

A

Amiodarone-Induced Thyrotoxicosis (AIT)
- Can potentially cause both Hypothyroidism & Hyperthyroidism (From High Iodine Content).
- Highly Lipophilic with 100 day half-life therefore can cause toxicity well after drg discontinuation and no immediate benefit to drug discontinuation.
- Type I: Iodine-Induced Increase in Thyroid Hormone Synthesis
More Common in Preexisting Thyroid Disease
US Shows Increased Vascularity
(treat with radioactive iodine or thioamides)
- Type II: Direct Toxicity Causes Destructive Thyroiditis
More Common in Those Without Preexisting Thyroid Disease
US Shows Absent Vascularity
(treat with steroids)

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20
Q

What is Plummer’s disease?

A

Hyperthyroidism due to Toxic multinodular goitre

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21
Q

What is Jod-Basedow Phenomenon?

A

Hyperthyroidism as a result of excess iodine given to someone who is iodine deficient.

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22
Q

What are secondary causes of hyperthyroidism?

A
  • TSH secreting tumour
  • hcG secreting tumours
  • thyroid hormone resistance (resistant to the negative feedback loop)
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23
Q

What would your work up pathway be for someone with Hyperthyroidism?

A

History and examination:
- key hx points - family hx, radiation hx. surgical hx
- key examination - goitre, lid lag, exopthalmus viewed from side, pretibial myxoedema

Investigations:
Laboratory
- TSH (expect low in primary hyperthyroidism or high in secondary hyperthyroidism), T4 (high)
- thyroid receptor antibodies
Scans
- USS to assess for nodule or MNG or graves
- radioactive iodine scan
> high diffuse uptake = graves
> high assymmetric uptake = Toxic MNG
> high uptake in single hot nodule = solitary toxic nodule
> minimal/no uptake = thyroiditis, iodine induced or excess exogenous hormone administration.
NB: suspicious or non-functioning nodules require FNA

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24
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Graves disease?

A
  • autoimmune induced production of thyroid hormone
  • anti-TSH receptor IgG antibody (thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins TSIs) bind to the receptor causing its activation leading to production of T3/T4 despite negative feedback loop on TSH production.
  • causes diffuse symmetrical enlargement.
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25
Q

How is Graves disease treated?

A

Immediate treatment for symptomatic thyrotoxicosis = beta blockers

First line treatment = thioamides e.g. carbimazole.
Usually 12-18months treatment and if this fails then RAI or thyroidectomy.

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26
Q

What are indications for near or total thyroidectomy in Graves?

A
  • suspicious nodule
  • refractory to thioamide or radioactive iodine treatment
  • contraindication to thioamide or radioactive iodine treatment e.g. desire to become pregnant in <6months
  • non compliant with medication
  • compressive goitre
  • operating in area for other reasons e.g. parathyroidectomy
  • moderate to severe orbitopathy
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27
Q

What is the first line treatment for solitary toxic nodules or toxic multinodular goitre?

A

Surgery or RAI.

Medications reserved for pregnancy as bridge to surgery post partum.

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28
Q

What medications are used to treat thyrotoxicosis and hyperthyroidism and what are their side effects/contraindications?

A

Thioamides
- treat hyperthyroidism
- inhibit TPO
- carbimazole converts to methimazole and is generally first line however is teratogenic causing cretinism in infant.
- propylthiouracil (PTU) is a thioamide that can be used in pregnancy but has potential hepatotoxicity.
- both drugs have potential to cause agranulocytosis
- NB exopthalmos is resistant to thioamides.

Beta blockers
- reduce sympathetic hyperactivity
- decrease peripheral conversion fo T4 to T3.
- used for immediate control of thyrotoxicosis.

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29
Q

What is Radioactive Iodine? How does it work?
How is it used?
When is it contraindicated?

A

Sodium Iodide 131

The RAI is taken into thyroid hormone causing ionising destruction of thyroid follicular cells.

It is used as a treatment of hyperthyroidism. Often pretreatment with thioamides and beta blockers is used to reduce chance of transient hyperthyroid exacerbation upon starting the RAI. Usually stop thioamides and beta blocker 2-3 days before commencing RAI and don’t resume them until 2-3 days after cessation of RAI.

Its side effects are transient hyperthyroidism exacerbation, sialolithiasis and neck pain.

It is contraindicated in:
- pregnancy & lactation
- thyroid malignancy
- children <5 yo
- mod-sever orbitopathy (may worsen)

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30
Q

What is the role for preoperative medication in Graves disease prior to thyroidectomy?

A
  • Making a patient Euthyroid preoperatively reduces risk of thyroid storm
  • Done by using thioamides and beta blockers and potassium iodide 7-14 days preoperatively
  • Lugols solution utilises Wolff-Chaikoff effect of saturating thyroid with high dose iodine leading to inhibition of TSH.
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31
Q

Spot diagnosis.
What is this?
How does it occur?
Who does it affect?
How does it present?

A

Lingual thyroid
i.e. ectopic thyroid tissue at base of tongue due to embryological maldescent. (Thyroid ususally originates in embryo from the endoderm from foramen cecum and descends into the neck).

Affects women > men 4-7:1

They present
- Most commonly diagnosed with periods of rising TSH causing hypertrophy e.g. during puberty, pregnancy or menopause.
- 70% are hypothyroid and 70% do not have any other functional thyroid tissue
- most are assymptomatic
- can cause bleeding
- dysphonia
- dysphagia
- upper airway obstruction

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32
Q

What is Pembertons sign?

A

It is facial flushing or cyanosis as well as respiratory distress after one minute of arms raised and indicates thoracic outlet venous obstruction in patients with goitre.

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33
Q

What are the indications for surgery for goitre?

A
  • Large > 4 cm
  • Dysphagia
  • Airway Compromise
  • Local Discomfort
  • Substernal Location (Risk of Hidden Malignancy & Further Extension Can Require More Extensive Surgery in the Future)

Approach:
- Unilateral Enlargement = Lobectomy
- Bilateral Enlargement = Total/Near-Total Thyroidectomy
- Substernal Goiters Can Mostly Be Removed Through a Cervical Incision & Rarely Require Sternotomy

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34
Q

What is difference between total and near-total thyroidectomy?

A

Total thyroidectomy is an operation that involves the surgical removal of the whole thyroid gland. Near‐total thyroidectomy is an operation that involves the surgical removal of both thyroid lobes except for a small amount of thyroid tissue (on one or both sides less than 1.0 mL).

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35
Q

How long does it take for transplanted parathyroid tissue to become functional?

A

The autotransplanted parathyroid gland takes about 4 to 6 weeks to start working again and during this time patients will need to take calcium supplements and calcitriol (vitamin D).

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36
Q

What percentage of population is thought to have thyroid nodule(s) and what percentage are malignant?

A

37-57% population have nodule(s).

90% are benign with extremes of age more likely to be malignant (50% benign in kids).

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37
Q

What are risk factors for a thyroid nodule to be malignant?

A
  • male sex
  • kids or elderly
  • radiation to head or neck (most likely papillary)
  • solitary nodule (vs multinodular)
  • large >2cm
  • concerning features on USS
  • cold nodule (i.e. non-functioning, either euthyroid or if hyperthyroid have had scintigraphy and not hot).
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38
Q

What are concerning features on USS for thyroid nodules?

A
  • taller than wide
  • microcalcifications
  • hypoechoic
  • heterogenous
  • hypervascular
  • solid
  • large
  • lobulated/irregular margins
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39
Q

What is the TIRADS score?

A

A system to standardise USS reporting of thyroid nodules and guide management and risk estimation.

Points are given for composition, echogenicity, shape, margin and echogenic foci.

Highest points are given for a solid, hypoechoic, large taller than wide, irregular or lobulated margin nodule with punctate echogenic foci.

TIRADS 1 = normal
TIRADS 2 = benign nodules TIRADS 3 = probably benign TIRADS 4 = suspicious of malignancy,
TIRADS 5 = highly suggestive of malignancy

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40
Q

What would you recommend for a TR3 nodule?

A

FNA if >2.5cm, follow if >1.5cm for 1, 3 and 5 years.

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41
Q

What would you recommend for a TR4 nodule?

A

FNA if >1.5cm, follow if >1cm for 1,2,3 and 5 years

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42
Q

What would you recommend for a TR5 nodule?

A

FNA if >1cm, follow if >0.5cm annually for 5 years.

43
Q

If there are multiple nodules reported which ones are FNA’d/followed?

A

If there are multiple nodules receiving TR3-5, the two with the highest ACR TI-RADS scores should be sampled (rather than the two largest), with largest size being used a tie-breaker if there are multiple nodules of the same classification.

44
Q

What level of enlargement on surveillance USS is cause for concern?

A

Interval enlargement on follow-up is significant if there is an increase of >20% and >2 mm in two dimensions or a >50% increase in volume.

If the ACR TI-RADS level increases between scans, an interval scan the following year is again recommended.

45
Q

What is the risk of malignancy associated with each of the TIRADS levels?

A

TR1: 0.3%

TR2: 1.5%

TR3: 4.8%

TR4: 9.1%

TR5: 35%

46
Q

What is the sensitivity and specificity of the ACR TIRADS system?

A

sensitivity ranging 75-97% and specificity ranging 53-67%

47
Q

What is the Bethesda system? What is the risk of malignancy for each category?

A

System for reporting cytopathology of FNA thyroid specimens.

Category 1-6, malignancy risk in (%)

1 = non diagnostic (5-10%)
2 = benign (0-3%)
3 = atypia of undertermined signficance (AUS) or follicular lesion of undetermined significance (FLUS) (10-30%)
4 = Follicular neoplasm or suspicious for a follicular neoplasm (25- 40%)
5 = Suspicious for malignancy (50-75%)
6 = Malginant (97+%)

48
Q

What would you do for a patient with a thyroid lesion that returns Bethesda category 1?

A

Repeat FNA, if a second FNA non-diagnostic consider excision.

49
Q

What would you do for a patient with a thyroid lesion that returns Bethesda category 3?

A

Molecular testing or repeat FNA and molecular testing if the molecular testing not reflexively done upon indeterminate diagnosis originally.

If molecular testing suggests benign molecular pattern this has 97% negative predictive value so deemed safe to forgo diagnostic lobectomy.

A repeat USS would then be performed in 12-24months to reassess.

50
Q

What would you do for a patient with a thyroid lesion that returns Bethesda category 4?

A

Traditionally would recommend a lobectomy with these lesions having a 25-40% chance of malignancy.

Some evidence now for performing molecular testing and if benign molecular pattern that these could forgo the diagnostic lobectomy in favour of USS follow up instead.

51
Q

What are some of the mutations associated with thyroid cancer?

A

BRAF - esp in papillary
RAS
RET - esp in medullary
VEGFR
NTRK1
PAX8 - esp in follicular
PPAR - esp in follicular
pT53 - - esp in anaplastic

52
Q

What are some subtypes of thyroid cancer?
Please Feel My Lean Abs

A

Papillary
Follicular
Medullary
Lymphoma
Anaplastic

This is in order of most common to least common and in order of most favourable to least favourable prognosis.

53
Q

What are these cells indicative of and what other features would be typical of this lesion?

A

These are Orphan Annie Eyes in other words large washed out nuclei (nuclear clearing and powdery chromatin and nuclear grooves)

They are seen in papillary thyroid cancer.

Would also commonly see Psammoma bodies (calcium clumps).

“Little Orphan Annie Wants a Momma & a Pappa”

Orphan Annie – Orphan Annie Nuclei
“s a Momma” – Psammoma Bodies
Pappa – Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma

54
Q

Which thyroid malignancies spread via lymphatics and which ones haematogenously?

A

Lymphatic spread:
- Papillary - most common site of mets = lungs
- Anaplastic, lungs
- Hurthle cell.

Haematogenously:
Follicular - most common site of mets = bone

55
Q

How do you differentiate Non-invasive Follicular Thyroid Neoplasm with Papillary-like nuclear features (NIFTP) from Follicular Thyroid cancer?

A

Need excision as FNA alone doesn’t give information about capsule and vascular relationship.

56
Q

What are the key histological features of each of the following thyroid cancers?
- papillary
- follicular
- medullary
- lymphoma
- anaplastic
- Hurthle cell

A

Papillary
- Orphan Annie Eyes
- Psammoma bodies

Follicular
- crowded microfollicles
- scant/absent colloid

Medullary
- spindle shaped pleomorphic cells
- stain for calcitonin and amyloid in stroma

Anaplastic
- marked pleomorphism
- spindle cells and giant cells

Hurthle cell
- oncocytic oxyphilic, eosinophilic cells w abundant cytoplasm

57
Q

The second image is the same specimen stained for calcitonin. What cancer is it?

A

Medullary Thyroid Cancer

This is a neuroendocrine tumour of the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid that produce calcitonin.

58
Q

What percentage of medullary thyroid cancers are hereditary and what would be some clues as to the hereditary inheritence?

A

25% are heriditary due to an inherited mutation in RET gene and resultant MEN2a/b.

Clue would be multicentric and bilateral medullary cancers and family history.

59
Q

What would you do if you saw Hurthle cell on the report for FNA?

A

Hurthle cells are commonly seen on FNA. If the same was almost entirely Hurthle cells then this would be more concerning for Hurthle cell malignancy.

This result in conjunction with other factors, previous USS results, prev FNA results, family hx etc then decision would be made on surgery or not as FNA does do distinguish between bening adenoma and Hurthle cell cancer. Need to assess for invasion into capsule or vessels.

60
Q

What condition is thyroid lymphoma associated with?

A

Hashitmotos thyroiditis. Increases risk 60x.

61
Q

For mets in the thyroid where are the most common sites of primary tumour?

A
  • Renal cell carcinoma
  • GI tract
  • lung
  • skin
  • breast

NB Parathyroid invades but doesnt metastasise to the thyroid.

62
Q

How are papillary and follicular (i.e. differentiated) thyroid cancers staged?

A

TNM staging but age is the most predictive prognostic indicator so staging is different for <55yo and >55yo.

63
Q

How are anaplastic thyroid cancers staged?

A

TNM staging but ALL are considered stage 4 due to the aggressive nature of this cancer.

64
Q

How is medullary thyroid cancer staged?

A

TNM staging.

65
Q

What are some indications for total thyroidectomy in differentiated thyroid cancer?

A
  • > 4cm
  • Extrathyroidal extension
  • adjuvant RAI indicated (residual thyroid tissue would interfere with RAI)
  • contralateral disease
  • contralateral benign nodules
  • concomitant Graves disease or hypothyroidism
  • history of significant radiation
  • FHX of thyroid cancer
  • comorbidities that would preclude future completion thyroidectomy
  • patient preference
66
Q

What are some benefits and risks of total thyroidectomy vs lobectomy for differentiated thyroid cancer?

A

Benefits of total:
- removal of potentially multifocal disease (common in papillary thyroid cancer)
- indication for RAI may not be fully known till after surgery and RAI interfered with by residual thyroid tissue)
- able to use thyroglobulin for post operative surveillance.

67
Q

When is a node dissection (and which nodes are taken) indicated in differentiated thyroid cancer?

A
  • > 4cm
  • Extra-thyroidal extension
  • clinically or confirmed involved lymph nodes
  • central neck dissection unless lateral neck nodes involved known already in which case would do ipsilateral lateral and central node dissection.
68
Q

What are the indications for adjuvant radioactive iodine (RAI) in differentiated thyroid cancers? When is it given post operatively?

A
  • > 4cm
  • Extra-thyroid extension i.e. local lymphovascualr invasion or lymphatic spread or distant mets.
  • aggressive histologic findings

It is administered ~4-6weeks post op when TSH is at its highest.

69
Q

When would you consider a total thyroidectomy for anaplastic thyroid cancer?

A
  • To treat with a tumour without local invasion and no mets (though unfortunately this is rare, most present (90%) with regional or distant spread already).
  • To palliate in those with locally invasive tumour causing airway obstruction and often need tracheostomy at same time.
70
Q

How is medullary thyroid cancer treated?

A

With total thyroidectomy and node dissection at outset.

Central node dissection or if lateral nodes involved as well then both central and lateral node dissections.

71
Q

When might you consider a prophylactic total thyroidectomy?

A

MEN2

72
Q

Are there any blood tests/markers that can be monitored for post op for thyroid cancer recurrence akin to CEA for bowel cancer or PSA for prostate?

A

Yes
Thyroglobulin for differentiated thyroid cancers like papillary or follicular (but only if total thyroidectomy was performed)

Calcitonin for medullary thyroid cancer as well as CEA.

73
Q

Where do the superior and inferior parathyroids arise from in foetus? What structures come along with them?

A

Superior parathyroids are from the 4th pharyngeal pouch along with lateral thyroid

Inferior parathyroids are from the 3rd pharyngeal pouch along with thymus.

74
Q

What is the typical place to find parathyroids?

A

Superior = posterolateral to recurrent laryngeal nerve, superior to the inferior thyroid artery.

Inferior = anteromedial to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, inferior to the inferior thyroid artery.

75
Q

Where are the most common parathyroid ectopic sites?

A

Superior = retrooesophageal or paraoesophageal
(80% of superior PTs will appear in same place as their contralateral counterpart)

Inferior = tail of thymus.
Much more variable (as further to travel embryologically)

76
Q

Describe the blood supply to the parathyroids and how this would affect partial parathyroid resection?

A

The blood supply comes from the inferior thyroid artery for both superior and inferior glands. The blood supply always enters the gland medially so in performing a partial parathyroid resection it is the lateral half that should be harvested.

77
Q

What affects does Parathyroid hormone (PTH) have on phosphate, calcium, hydrogen and chloride?

A

Phosphate - decreases (Phosphate Trashing Hormone PTH)
Calcium increases
Hydrogen increases
Chloride increases
(can cause acidosis)

78
Q

What do each of these do to calcium and phosphate?
- PTH
- Calcitonin
- Vit D

A
  • PTH “Phosphate trashing hormone” decreases phosphate and increases calcium
  • Calcitonin “Calci tone in” decreases calcium and phosphate
  • Vit D as active form Calcitriol increases phosphate and calcium
79
Q

How does Cholecalciferol increase phosphate and calcium?

A

Converts to active form Calcitriol which in turn

Increases calcium and phosphate absorption from GI tract

Increases renal reabsorption of Calcium

Stimulates osteoblasts to release RANKL which stimulated osteoclasts to secrete calcium from bones.

80
Q

What are the differentials for hypercalcaemia?

A

Most common
- Hyperparathyroidism
- Breast cancer
- Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
- Lytic bone disease

Less common
- Vit D intoxication
- thiazide diuretics
- lithium
- Familial hypercalcaemic hypocalciuria
- Milk-alkali syndrome

81
Q

How may hypercalcaemia present?

A

“Bones, stones, groans, thrones and psychiatric overtones”

Bones
- pathological fractures
- osteoporosis
- bony aches

Stones
- kidney stones
- gallstones

Groans
- abdominal pain
- peptic ulcer disease
- pancreatitis
- constipation
- anorexia
- N&V

Thrones (the porcelain toilet you sit on)
- polydipsia
- polyuria

Psychiatric overtones
- fatigue
- delirium
- coma

82
Q

How would you treat mod-severe hypercalcaemia?

A
  • IV Normal Saline and Frusemide
  • Bisphosphonates
  • Calcitonin
  • Dialysis
83
Q

What is Familial Hypercalcaemia Hypocalciuria?

A

Autosomal Dominant inherited inactivating mutation of the calcium sensing receptor leading to relative insensitivity of parathyroid to calcium and therefore PTH release in setting of inappropriately high serum calcium.

84
Q

What is Milk-alkali syndrome?

A

Inappropriately (usually inadvertently) high ingestion of calcium.

Usually in elderly osteoporotic women taking calcium carbonate supplements.

Leads to triad of hypercalcaemia, metabolic alkalosis and acute renal failure.

Can be life-threatening due to metastatic calcium deposition and multi organ failure.

85
Q

How do some malignancies lead to hypercalcaemia?

A

3 main mechanisms; through PTHrP (080%), bony mets (~20%) and vit D production

  1. Malignancies (most commonly; breast cancer, squamous cell lung/head/neck cancer and ovarian cancer) can lead to increases in serum calcium via secretion of PTH-related protein (PTHrP).

It acts at the same receptor as PTH and causes bone resorption, increased phosphate excretion from the proximal tubules, and calcium reabsorption from the distal tubules in the kidney. It does not have any effect on 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D production
(labs characterised by increased PTHrP, Low PTH, high Ca, normal Vit D)

  1. Bony mets e.g. from breast cancer or bone destruction from myeloma.
    Causes release of calcium due to bone breakdown by osteoclasts. Typically bloods will show low to low-normal PTH, PTHrP, and 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D levels. Though the levels of PTHrP are low to normal, breast cancer cells in the bone produce PTHrP locally and increase the activity of osteoblast (RANKL), which, in turn, promotes osteoclastic activity and hypercalcemia.
  2. Vit D production in Hodgkin and 1/3rd of non-hodgkin lymphoma patients (as well as granulomatous diseases such as TB or sarcoidosis) increase Vit D production. This population responds to steroids.
86
Q

What are some differentials for Hypocalcaemia?

A
  • Parathyroidectomy
  • Parathyroid injury during thyroidectomy
  • Autoimmune parathyroid destruction
  • chelation during blood transfusion
  • hypomagnesemia
  • Vit D deficiency
  • CKD > vit D deficiency
  • acute pancreatitis
  • surgery, sepsis or severe illness
  • some meds e.g. bisphosphonates and chemotherapy.
87
Q

What are some signs of hypocalcaemia?

A

Earliest sign is perioral tingling/numbness

Tetany
- Chvostek sign = cheek tap > spasm
- Trousseau sign = blood pressure cuff > carpopedal spasm

Seizures

Anxiety & Depression

Prolonged QT interval

https://youtu.be/kvmwsTU0InQ?si=uf4B29UnVuPMAkQo

88
Q

What are some causes of Hyperphosphatemia?

A
  • Renal Failure – Most Common
  • Tumor Lysis Syndrome
  • Rhabdomyolysis
  • Hypoparathyroidism
  • Bisphosphonates
  • Lactic Acidosis with Acute - Extracellular Shift of Phosphate
  • Exogenous Administration
89
Q

What are some causes of Hypophosphatemia?

A
  • Refeeding syndrome
  • Hyperparathyroidism
  • Liver resection
  • Acute Resp alkalosis or hyperventilation
  • malnutrition poor oral intake
  • chronic diarrhoea
  • urinary phosphate wasting syndrome (Fanconi syndrome)
  • renal replacement therapy
90
Q

What is primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Inappropriately elevated serum parathyroid hormone levels due to a problem withe parathryoid gland.

91
Q

What is incidence of primary hyperparathyroidism? What percentage are single gland disease?

A

1.5% of elderly

85% single gland affected

92
Q

When taking a history and examination for a patient with suspected primary hyperparathyroidism, what are the key points and why do you consider these to be key?

A

Symptoms important for ascertaining indications for surgery
- duration
- renal stones
- osteoporosis
- abdominal pains
- neurocognitive effects etc

History important for raising suspcion of multigland disease;
- FHx
- radiation hx
- age of onset
- lithium

On examination these findings may influence surgical decision making;
- neck surgery hx/scars
- radiation tattoo
- concurrent neck pathology
- vocal cord check

93
Q

In diagnosing hyperparathyroidism what is the minimum laboratory dataset?

A

Serum Calcium
Serum PTH
Serum Vit D
Urinary Calcium

94
Q

What do each of these patients have?

A

A - primary hyperparathyroidism
(increased PTH, increases serum Ca, doesn’t effect urinary Ca and doesn’t effect vit D)

B - vit D deficiency has lead to PTH increasing to compensate to try maintain normal calcium levels.

C - Familial Hypercalcaemia Hypocalciuria is an inactivating mutation in calcium sensing receptor in parathyroid hormone so the parathyroid produces more PTH as ‘thinks’ low Ca even when there isn’t. So leads to hypercalcaemia but also hypocalciuria.

95
Q

In which primary hyperparathyroid patients is surgery indicated?

A

Everyone*

All those who are symptomatic
All those who have end-organ effects

Those that are asymptomatic are still likely to derive benefit from it if life expectancy >10 years (may not realise how much better they feel afterwards and also may prevent symptoms or end organ effects that haven’t happened yet).

Caveat is those that are so comorbid their life expectancy is <10 years and/or are unfit for an anaesthetic. In these patients recommend avoiding operation.

Based on the Position statement of the endocrine society of Australia, the Australian and New Zealand Endocrine surgeons and the Australian and New Zealand bone and mineral society

96
Q

What is the role for each of these scans in work up prior to parathyroidectomy?
- USS
- Sestamibi
- SPECT
- 4D CT

A

USS in clinic and intraoperatively for MIPS. Formal one can also review concomitant thyroid pathology.

Sestamibi may show how many glands are ‘hot’ and very rough location. Uses 99mTc

SPECT = single-photon emission computed tomography imaging. Uses 99mTc and CT scanner. Overlays images of sestamibi scan with CT essentially.
Reduced role for Sestamibi and SPECT these days.

4D CT is high resolution CT with non con, arterial and venous phases which is more accurate at localising parathyroid adenomas than Sestamibi or SPECT.

97
Q

What is a 4D CT and what do the parathyroids look like on this?

A
  • non-con phase (parathyroid should be isodense with thyroid gland)
  • arterial phase (parathyroid should be hyperenhancing)
  • venous phase (washes out more quickly than the thyroid)
98
Q

Label this photograph

A
99
Q

What post operative labs do you order for post parathyroidectomy? What do you do with the results?

A

Calcium and PTH day 1 post op.

Also serum calcium at 3-4 months

Serum calcium at 6 months

100
Q

When might you perform each of the following operations;
1. Minimally invasive parathyroidectomy
2. Bilateral neck exploration
3. Radical parathyroidectomy

A
  1. Preoperatively localised single parathyroid adenoma
    • Preoperatively unable to localise single parathyroid adenoma OR
    • MEN 1 MEN 2 syndromes
    • Parathyroid 4 gland hyperplasia
    • Concern for parathyroid adenocarcinoma. Takes thyroid lobe en bloc but no need for prophylactic lymph node dissection as low risk of mets to nodes.
101
Q

What are the options for 4 gland hyperplasia causing hyperparathyroidism?

A

Total parathyroidectomy and autotransplantation (risks hypoparathyroidism).

Subtotal - 3.5 gland resection (risks needing to reoperate on neck).

102
Q

What is secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Disease outside the parathyroid gland causes hypersecretion of PTH.

103
Q

What is tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Autonomously hyperfunctioning parathyroid glands outside of normal feedback controls.

Most commonly after long standing secondary hyperparathyroidism following chronic renal disease and renal transplantation.

104
Q

What is the treatment for secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Medications
- calcium and vit D supplementation
- phosphate binders
- calcium mimics cinacalcet to activate calcium sensing receptors and provide negative feedback loop to PTH.

Surgery
- symptomatic
- refractory
- patient preference
- calciphylaxis