Breast Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the mammogram breast density scoring

A

A - almost entirely fatty
B - scattered fibroglandular density
C - heterogeneously dense
D - extremely dense.

A mammogram easier to interpret, more sensitive for diagnosing abnormalities, D hardest to find abnormalities, consider other imaging modality e.g. USS and MRI

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2
Q

Describe what features would be concerning on a mammogram

A

solid mass,
spiculated mass
architectural distortion
microcalcifications (<0.5mm), pleomoprphic calcifications, clustered in one area

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3
Q

What is mammary fistula and how would you treat it?

A

Definition: Connection Between Mammary Duct & Skin Surface
Most Common After Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA), Biopsy or Surgical Intervention While Breast Feeding
Higher Risk in Central Lesions than Peripheral Lesions
Presentation

Spontaneous Drainage of Milk from the Skin
Diagnosis

Clinical Diagnosis (Based on History & Physical)
US May Assist

Treatment
Stop Breast Feeding

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4
Q

What is granulomatous mastitis? How do you manage it?

A

Definition: Rare Benign Inflammatory Disease of the Breast Causing Granulomas
Causes:
Idiopathic – May Be Associated with Corynebacterium kroppenstedtii
Tuberculosis (TB)
Sarcoidosis
Presentation

Peripheral Inflammatory Breast Mass
May Have Abscess or Overlying Skin Inflammation/Ulceration
Diagnosis

Initial Imaging: US
Diagnosis: Core Needle Biopsy (CNB)
Pathology: Non-Necrotizing Granulomatous Lesions Centered on a Breast Lobule
Send for Acid-Fast Stains & Culture (Rule Out TB)
Treatment

Primary Treatment: Conservative Management
Treat Mastitis or Abscess as Indicated by sensitivities empiric for corynebacterium with doxycycline
For Tuberculosis: Typical TB “RIPE” Antibiotic Regimen (Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide & Ethambutol)

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5
Q

What is the TNM for breast cancer

A

Tis - DCIS
T1 < 2cm
T2 2-5cm
T3 >5cm
T4 invading into chest wall excl pecs (a) or skin (b), both (c), inflammatory (d)

N0 - no involved lymph nodes or isolated tumour cells only <0.2mm
N1 - 1-3 involved
N2 - 4-9 involved
N3 - 10+ involved

M0 no spread
M1 spread

(pN1mi means micrometastases. They are > 0.2 mm but < 2 mm.
pN1a means that there are cancer cells in 1 to 3 lymph nodes in the axilla and at least one is larger than 2 mm. A for axilla
pN1b means there are cancer cells in the sentinel lymph nodes behind the sternum (the internal mammary sentinel nodes). B for breastbone
pN1c means there are cancer cells in 1 to 3 lymph nodes in the armpit and in the sentinel lymph nodes behind the breastbone. C for
Combo

pN2a means there are cancer cells in 4 to 9 lymph nodes in the armpit, and at least one is larger than 2 mm.
pN2b means there are cancer cells in the lymph nodes behind the breastbone (the internal mammary nodes), which have been seen on a scan or felt by the doctor. There is no evidence of cancer in the lymph nodes in the armpit.

pN3a means there are cancer cells in 10 or more lymph nodes in the armpit and at least one is larger than 2 mm, or there are cancer cells in the nodes below the collarbone.
pN3b means there are cancer cells in lymph nodes in the armpit and lymph nodes behind the breastbone.
pN3c means there are cancer cells in lymph nodes above the collarbone.

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6
Q

What are the stages for breast cancer

A

Stage 1A = T1N0M0
Stage 1B = T0 or 1, N1mi M0
Stage 2A = T0 or 1, N1 M0 or T2N0M0
Stage 2B = T2, N1mi M0 or T2N1M0 or T3N0M0
Stage 3A = T0-3 N2, T3N1
Stage 3B = T4N0-2
Stage 3C = T0-4, N3
Stage 4 = M1

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7
Q

What are the risk factors for breast cancer

A

Modifiable:
- EtOH
- smoking
- obesity
- radiation exposure

Unmodifiable:
- Female
- >50yo
- Genetic predisposition (BRCA1&2, Tp53, PTEN, CDH-1, PALB-2,
- Increased oestorgen exposure
- early age menarche
- late age menopause
- nulliparity
- didn’t breastfeed
- HRT/OCP
- delayed age of first pregnancy

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8
Q

What is the BiRADS scoring?

A

Breast imaging reporting and data system.

Standardises reports, risk assessment and quality assurance tool that applies to mammograms and USS.

0 = incomplete - need repeat/further imaging
1 = normal, symmetrical, no masses or distortion.
2 = benign
3 = probably benign (<2% chance of malignancy)
4 = suspicious (2-95% chance of malignancy) recommend core biopsy
5 = malignant (>95% chance). recommend biopsy.
6 = already biopsy proven malignant lesion

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9
Q

What is ‘early’ breast cancer?

A

<5cm (T1-2)
Stage 1, 2a,2b,3a
no local invasion or mets

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10
Q

What are concerning features on breast USS?

A
  • taller than wide
  • posterior acoustic shadowing
  • hypoechoic
  • architectural distortion
  • irregular margins
  • lobulated
  • internal vascularity
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11
Q

What are concerning features on axillary USS?

A
  • calcifications in lymph nodes
  • enlarged
  • loss of fatty hilum
  • thickened cortex
  • round instead of oval
  • hypervascular
  • loss of corticomedullary differentiation
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12
Q

What are indications for an MRI breast?

A

Screening:
- high risk, young women, dense breasts for screening

Diagnostic:
- to assess extent +/- multifocality/centrality of lobular cancer and contralateral breast
- pagets disease of nipple to assess for multi centrality
- implant associated concerns e.g rupture or BIA-ALCL

Treatment response
- to assess response to neoadjuvant chemo

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13
Q

Why don’t we use MRI for all breast cancer patients?

A

Although it has a high sensitivity it also has a high false positive rate which can lead to more interventions than should be required and anxiety. Can also upgrade to multifocal/multicentric disease which can be of debatable clinical significance in case of small ductal breast cancers that would otherwise undergo a BCS and adj rx to that whole breast. Debatable whether detection of these leads to overall survival benefit.

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14
Q

What is meant by ER and PR positive?

A

Estrogen receptor and progesterone receptors are nuclear hormone receptors.

ER is a ligand dependent transcription factor and PR is activated in response to ER activation.

55% of cancers are ER/PR+

75% will respond to hormone therapy.

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15
Q

What is HER2 expression and its relevance?

A

Stands for human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.

It is a tyrosine kinase receptor protooncogene on ch 17. Upregulates cell growth. Only 1 mutation is required to turn into oncogene.

Assessed on immunohistochemical staining.
<10% of cells expressing it or >10% but only faintly expressing it = negative.
weak to moderate staining = equivocal and should be sent for FISH to confirm.
>10% strongly staining = 3+ positive.

Poorer prognosis but can treat with trastusumab (Herceptin)

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16
Q

What are the molecular subtypes of breast cancer?

A

Luminal A - ER/PR+, HER2-, good prog, lower grade, low ki67 (<14%), poor response to chemo

Luminal B - ER and/or PR +, HER2 -/+, poorer prog, high grade, high ki67 , poor response to chemo

Her 2 enriched - ER/PR-, HER2+, poorer prog, high grade, high ki67, good response to chemo

Basal type (Triple neg) - ER/PR/HER2 -. poorer prog, high grade, high ki67, good response to chemo

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17
Q

What is the breast cancer grading system?

A

Modified Bloom-Richardson system looks at 3 areas each scored out of 3.

Tubule formation:
1 = >75% normal
2 = 10-75% normal
3 = <10% normal

Nuclear pleomorphism:
1 = small, uniform
2 = enlarged, uniform
3 = pleomorphic, nonuniform, lots of nucleoli

Mitotic rate per 10hpf:
1 = 0-9
2 = 10-19
3 = 20+

Overall score:
3-5 = grade 1 low grade, well differentiated
6-7 = grade 2, intermediate
8-9 = grade 3, high grade, poorly differentiated

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18
Q

What are some of the histological subtypes of breast cancer?

A
  • Invasive carcinoma of no special type (70-80%)
  • lobular (10-15%)
  • medullary (10%)
  • mucinous
  • tubular
  • papillary and micropapillary
  • metaplastic (v poor prog)
  • apocrine
  • NETs
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19
Q

What is invasive carcinoma of no special type?

A
  • It is the most common histological subtype of breast cancer.
  • Makes up 70-80% of breast cancer
  • Often associated with DCIS
  • Heterogenous, nests, cords, diffuse sheets of cells. Variable duct differentiation.
  • Spreads via lymph to liver and lung
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20
Q

What is lobular carcinoma?

A
  • It accounts for 10-15% of breast cancers.
  • Characterised by negative staining for e-cadherin and discohesive cells and indian file tumour cells.
  • Subtypes include:
    • classic
    • pleomorphic (need to reexcise this one if pos margins)
    • signet ring
    • tubulolobular
    • histiocytoid
  • Spreads to peritoneum, GIT and ovaries.
  • Assoc with CDH-1 mutations
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21
Q

What is mucinous or colloid carcinoma of the breast?

A

A breast cancer that is most common in 7th decade of life.
Has good prognosis
Characterised by mucin production

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22
Q

What is medullary breast cancer?

A
  • Accounts for <10%
  • tends to be in younger women
  • associated with BRCA 1 mutation
  • better prognosis than ductal ca
  • characterised by diffuse sheets of tumour cells, pushing border, stromal lymphoid infiltration
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23
Q

What is tubular carcinoma of the breast?

A

Rare cancer
Good prognosis
Single layer of epithelial cells with low grade nuclei and atypical cytoplasmic snoutings arranged in tubules or glands.
- low chance of lymph node involvement

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24
Q

What is papillary cancer of the breast?

A

Very rare
Invasive papillary and invasive micropapillary.

Associated with papillomas.

Therefore centrally located.

Good prognosis (except for micropapillary which has poor prog)

ER/PR+

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25
Q

What is apocrine breast cancer?

A

Rare high grade poor prog cancer

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26
Q

What is adenoid cystic cancer of the breast?

A

low grade, rare tumour similar to salivary tumours in appearance. Tends to be in post menopausal women

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27
Q

What is metaplastic breast cancer?

A

Rare (<1%), highly aggresive cancer. Spreads haematogenously.
Grow very large very rapidly.
Subtypes spindle cell, carcinosarcoma, SCC of ductal origin, adenoSCC, pseudoadenomatous metaplasia

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28
Q

What is Mondors disease?

A

Superficial thrombophlebitis of the lateral thoracic vein or tributary.

Presents usually after recent trauma or surgery as a tender palpable subcutaneous cord.

Treat with NSAIDS and compresses

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29
Q

Describe breast pain eitiology and treatment.

A

Usually benign eitiology. Can be divided into cyclical or non-cyclical.

Cyclical usually late luteal phase and recedes with menstruation.

Non-cyclical; Ill fitting bra, v large breasts, cysts, fibroadenomas, fibrocystic change

Extramammary: costochondritis, cardiac, referred.

Treat with reassurance good bra fitting, dietary modification (cut out caffeine), NSAIDs, compresses, evening primrose oil to alter FAs 3months.

Refractory breast pain can consider tamoxifen, danazol (androgen) or bromocryptine. OCP if cyclical.

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30
Q

What is fibrocystic change and its clinical relevance?

A

Changes to the breast and with involution most commonly in perimenopausal women.

Clinically relevant as can be a cause of breast pain or lumpiness or nipple discharge.

Very common.

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31
Q

How do you manage breast cysts?

A

Usually reassurance however if associated with any concerning features then biopsy and complete triple assessment.

If these are symptomatic and large these can be aspirated. If bloody or recurrent discharge send for cytology and excise. If thickened wall post aspiration then excise.

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32
Q

What is a complex breast cyst?

A

A cyst with a solid component or internal vascularity on imaging. Would need core needle biopsy.

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33
Q

What is a fibroadenoma?

A

A dominant mass in the breast clinically. Non-Proliferative lesion with solid lobulated margins appearance on USS.

Biphasic growth of both epidermal cells and stromal cells.

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34
Q

How do you manage fibroadenoma?

A

Triple assessment.
Can reassure most of the time.
Excise if:
- risk factors,
- disconcordance or diagnostic uncertainty
- symptomatic
- >3cm
- rapidly enlarging

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35
Q

What is a giant fibroadenoma?

A

> 6cm
can be difficult to distinguish from phyllodes

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36
Q

What is a complex fibroadenoma?

A

Fibroadenoma with sclerosing adenosis, papillary apocrine metaplasia or epithelial cell calcs or cysts

Increased risk of cancer

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37
Q

What is a tubular fibroadenoma?

A

Benign, epithelial cell proliferation.

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38
Q

What is Phyllodes tumour and how do you differentiate it from fibroadenoma. How do you manage Phyllodes tumours?

A

Increased growth of epithelial and stromal cells in leaf life projections with proportionally more cellularity of the stroma compared to fibroadenomas.

Needs 1cm margins’

Can be benign, borderline or malignant (10%).
>5mitoses/hpf incr malignant potential

Stain positive for vimentin and actin

Rare to metastasise but if does its haematogenous therefore no role for SNB. Many (Up to 20%) Have palpable Axillary Lymphadenopathy although most are reactive, metastatic lymph node involvement is rare.

Note if found to be phyllodes post excision with enucleation thinking it was a fibroadeanoma then benign or borderline would accept clear margins but if malignant then do need to return to gain 1cm margins. High rate of local recurrence.

Note there is no known treatment for metastatic disease.

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39
Q

What are concerning features of nipple discharge?

A
  • Older women
  • Unilateral
  • Bloody
  • Spontaneous
  • Persistent or recurrent
  • Assoc skin changes or mass
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40
Q

What is duct ectasia?

A

Dilatation of the subareolar duct in peri or post- menopausal women.

Can give viscous discharge

Assymptomatic reassure, symptomatic duct excision

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41
Q

What is the pathogenesis of lactational mastitis? How is it treated?

A

Due to blocked lactiferous sinus and trapped bacteria usually s.aureus.

Treat with NSAIDs, cold compresses, abx

if abscess treat with aspirations preferred over I&D to avoid milk fistula but I&D may still be required in those >5cm, reccurent despite asps, skin compromise

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42
Q

What is the pathogenesis of non-lactational mastitis and breast abscess’? How do you treat them?

A

Usually related to smoking, piercings and duct ectasia with most common organism being s.aureus.

Treat with abx +/- I&D of abscess.

Biopsy skin to r/o inflammatory breast ca.

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43
Q

What is radial scar?

A

Benign proliferative sclerosing lesion of the breast with a stellate shaped centre of collagen/elastin entrapped with epithelial elements.

<1cm

(>1cm = complex sclerosing lesion)

Excise due to concerning appearance on mammogram.

It is not a premalignant lesion but is associated with 1.7-2.2x increased risk of breast cancer in life time and often on excision may be upgraded to DCIS or invasive cancer.

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44
Q

What is atypical lobular hyperplasia?

A

Increased number of cells that line the lobules with atypical features e.g. nuclear pleomorphism etc.

Not a premalignant lesion but a marker of 8-12x increased lifetime risk of developing breast cancer.

Treat with excisional biopsy then tamoxifen or aromatase inhibitor and annual breast MRI

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45
Q

What is tamoxifen?

A

It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator. Binds to and blocks the receptor. This blocks the cells from being stimulated by estrogen to multiply.

Administered usually as a tablet once a day. (can come in liquid preparation too)

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46
Q

What are some indications for tamoxifen?

A

It is used in premenopausal women in chemoprophylaxis post resection of ER+ DCIS, atypical ductal hyperplasia, atypical lobular hyperplasia or invasive carcinomas to reduce recurrence rate and overall survival.

It can be used as sole treatment for ER+ advanced stage or comorbid patients in palliative setting to slow rate of growth.

It can be used in women with high risk of developing breast cancer to reduce chances of ever developing one.

It can be used in refractory severe mastalgia

It can be used in men with refractory gynaecomastia.

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47
Q

What are the side effects of tamoxifen and contraindications?

A

Common:
- hot flashes
- vaginal discharge
- nausea
- fatigue
- mood swings
- joint pain
- loss of libido
(NB protective for osteoporosis)

Severe:
- Endometrial cancer
- VTE
- stroke
- cataracts

Contraindications:
Pregnant or breastfeeding. On aromatase inhibitor - i.e. can’t take concurrently.

To be aware:
Many antidepressants are CYP2D6 inhibitors which will reduce efficacy of tamoxifen.

48
Q

What is anastrozole?

A

An aromatase inhibitor i.e. blocks androgen being converted to estrogen. Common brand name arimidex. Used in post-menopausal women to treat estrogen receptor positive breast cancers adjuvant setting or in advanced stage/advanced age/comorbid patients in palliation as sole treatment.

It is administered as a once a day tablet.

Is more effective than tamoxifen but can’t be used in pre-menopausal women without ovarian suppression because compensatory physiological responses induce ovarian oestrogen production

49
Q

What are side effects and contraindications to anastrozole?

A

Common:
- hot flashes
- joint pain
- arthritis
- osteoporosis
- weakness
- sore throat
- depression
- high blood pressure
- nausea
- insomnia
- oedema
- rash

Severe:
- coronary disease
- fractures
- hyperlipidaemia

50
Q

What is granulomatous mastitis? How is it managed?

A

It is characterised by non-caseating granulomas in the breast, often with abscess formation

Can be triggered by foreign body, sarcoidosis or fungal infection but usually is idiopathic.

Rare. Usually child bearing age and theory related to hormonal changes as occurs within 5 yers of pregnancy but rarely effects nulliparous women.

GM is usually a sterile process; however, an association with Corynebacterium species has been found in some studies. Corynebacterium kroppenstedtii has been found to create a distinct histopathological appearance termed cystic neutrophilic granulomatous mastitis

No consensus on treatment.
- conservative/supportive care incl. abx if corynebacterium or other microbes isolated according to their sensitivities.
- medication (prednisone and/or methotrexate)
- surgery. up to 13% recurrence, hard to localise or too big to operate

51
Q

What is a mammary duct fistula? What is the role for MRI?

A

This is a communication between the skin and a major subareolar breast duct. It may occur following incision and drainage of a non-lactating abscess, spontaneous discharge of a periareolar mass or following biopsy of a periductal inflammatory mass. Treatment is by excision under antibiotic cover

52
Q

What is Oncotype DX and how is it used?

A

It is a molecular diagnostic tool performed on an ER+ tumour tissue analysing for 21 genes to give a risk assessment and rate of recurrence to guide treatment decisions around who may benefit most from adjuvant chemotherapy.

Gives a 3 tier score for recurrence /100.
<18 = low risk of recurrence, risk of chemo outweighed by benefit.

18-30 = mod, difficult to know if chemo risk/SE is outweighed by risk of recurrence.

> 30 = high risk, risk/SE of chemo is outweighe by the risk of recurrence so is likely to be of benefit.

The test is used for stage 1 or 2, oestrogen receptor positive, lymph node negative or 0-3 positive, HER2 negative breast cancer that will be treated with hormone therapy.

Initial results from the TAILORx trial, published in 2015, showed that women with a recurrence score of 10 or lower could safely be treated with hormone therapy and omit chemotherapy. However, it wasn’t clear what was the best treatment for women with an intermediate score.

New results from this trial, presented at the 2018 ASCO (American Society of Clinical Oncology) meeting, show that about 70% of women in this group, with hormone receptor-positive, HER2-negative, lymph node-negative breast cancer, may also be able to avoid chemotherapy.

Currently only privately funded in NZ.

53
Q

What are some indications for prophylactic mastectomy?

A

Known mutation in BRCA 1 or 2, tp53, PTEN, CDH-1

High risk family history for breast cancer e.g. Multiple first degree relatives <50yo.

Personal history of breast cancer, particuarly if young and high risk tumour or associated with genetic predispositions as above.

LCIS

check what guidelines are in NZ for this

54
Q

What is the implant associated cancer? How do these patients present and how is it managed?

A

Breast Implant Associated Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma

Rare lymphoma associated with textured implants as the texture is thought to induce a lymphoproliferative disorder which can progress to lymphoma. Interestingly this can occur even once the prothesis has been removed.

Enlarging breast with fluid collections around implants typically years post implant placement. Need Index of suspicion. Aspirate the fluid collection. Shows anaplastic large cells and CD30 T cells on flow cytometry.

(DDx implant rupture, seroma). Needs surgical removal. With complete removal of implant and capsule and care not to spill fluid during surgery this is usually curative. Small number of women may need chemo.

55
Q

What is Trastusumab?

A

Another name is Herceptin. It is an adjuvant monoclonal antibody treatment targeting HER2 and is administered for 1 year to women with breast cancers showing HER2 overexpression. Side effect of cardiac toxicity.

56
Q

What is the most prognostic important factor in staging for breast cancer.

A

0 postive node
75% 5 year survival
1-4 nodes 40% 5 year survival.

SNB indicated in all invasive breast cancers (except Phylloides as this spreads haematogenosuly).

57
Q

What is the Z011 trial?

A

RCT Compared SNB to AND for women >18yo with T1/T2 and <3+ SNB would get BCS plus whole breast radiation. No difference in local recurrence, disease free survival or overall survival with median follow up ~6 years when compared to AND.

58
Q

Who is recommended an AND?

A

Clinically positive node confirmed by biopsy.

Sentinel nodes not identified during SNB. This is because its usually due to the lymphatics being blocked by tumour and so still recommended to get an AND.

59
Q

What levels do we take for AND in breast?

A

Levels 1 &2.

60
Q

What are the possible reconstruction options broadly speaking for women undergoing mastectomy?

A

Implant vs autologous.

Implant - silicone or saline

Autologous - pedicled or free flaps.
- abdominal wall
- TRAM flap (pedicled transverse rectus abdominus flap) based on superior epigastric artery
- Free TRAM flap.
- Deep Inferior Epigastric Perforator flap (DIEP)
- Superficial Inferior Epigastric Artery flap

  • gluteal artery perforator flap (GAP)
  • transverse or vertical upper gracilis flap
  • superior gluteal artery perforator flap
  • lat dorsi myocutaneous flap
61
Q

What is most common cause of flap necrosis?

A

Venous thrombosis. Smokers at significantly increased risk so not eligible for flap reconstructions.

62
Q

In previously irradiated breast what reconstruction option is preferred?

A

Autologous flaps

63
Q

Are inflammatory breast cancer patients candidates for reconstruction?

A

Immediate reconstruction and nipple sparing or skin sparing mastectomies are contraindicated in inflammatory breast cancer.

They may be appropriate for delayed reconstruction however.

64
Q

What do you do with complete clinical response post neoadjuvant chemotherapy for inflammatory breast cancer?

A

Still requires mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection.

65
Q

What are the most common sites for breast cancer metastases?

A

Bone, lung, brain, liver for invasive cancer of no special type (used to be called IDC)

For lobular can include peritoneum, GIT and ovaries

66
Q

What do you do with isolated tumour deposit in the sentinel nodes?

A

<0.2mm, isolated tumour deposit does not constitute metastatic disease. treat as equivalent to N0.

67
Q

What is Pagets disease of the breast.

A

Definition: An eczematous change around the nipple/areola complex with pagetoid cells and indicates an underlying DCIS or malignancy.

Incidence: Rare ~1% of breast cancers.
Most common in postmenopausal women aged 50-60 but reported age range: 20-90 Years.
Majority in women (97.9%) but can affect men (2.1%).

Pathogenesis:
A couple of theories. Most widely accepted is Epidermotropic Theory: Paget’s disease derives from underlying breast cancer with malignant ductal cells migrating through the ductal system to the nipple.
(other theories: Transformation Theory: Paget’s Disease Derives from Malignant Transformation of Nipple-Areolar Keratinocytes Independent of Underlying Disease or
Dual Origin Theory: Depending on Circumstances, Paget’s Disease May Originate from Either Ductal Cancer Cells or Malignant Transformation of Keratinocytes)

Signs and symptoms:
Presents as eczematous skin change and ulceration in nipple/areolar complex. Can be painful, itchy or burning. In later stage can produce copious exudate. Can have underlying mass palpable (~50%). Can be seen as form of local recurrence after a previous nipple sparing mastectomy.

Histology: Paget cells - malignant adenocarcinoma cells within epidermis of the nipple. Appear as large, pale staining cells with round or oval nuclei andlarge nucleoli situated between keratinocytes. Does not invade through the basement membrane.

Investigations:
Triple assessment. HX & ex. Bilateral diagnostic mammogram + USS +/- MRI to look for occult multicentric disease. Core needle biopsy of underlying mass and full thickness skin punch biopsy of nipple.

Treatment: Usually mastectomy + SNB. Unlikely BCS options due to central location and requirement for resection of nipple/areola. Nipple sparing mastectomy is contraindicated.

68
Q

Invasive cancer on core needle biopsy with a palpable axillary lymph node whats next?

A

Axillary USS with CNB of suspicious nodes

69
Q

Multicentric disease with calcifications extending to the nipple. What are your surgical options?

A

Simple mastectomy. Skin sparing mastecomy. But contraindicated to nipple sparing mastectomy.

70
Q

What is the name of the valveless venous plexus responsible for mets to spine in breast cancer?

A

Batsons plexus.

71
Q

What is the rationale for radiation therapy in breast conserving surgery?

A

Reduces risk of recurrence in the ipsilateral breast but does not increase overall survival.

72
Q

What is the risk of breast cancer as well as ovarian cancer in BRCA 1 and BRCA 2

A

Cummulative risk:
BRCA 1 65% breast, 40% ovarian
BRCA 2 45% breast, 10% ovarian

NB: BRCA 2 gives highest chance of male breast cancer and prostate cancer

73
Q

You have a patient with chronic lymphoedema following AND 10 years prior. Now have dark purple lesion on upper arm what do you need to rule out?

A

Stewart Treves syndrome. Lymphangiosarcoma.

74
Q

What is Poland syndrome?

A

Congenital hypoplasia of chest wall and will have amastia, hypoplastic shoulder and no pectoralis muscle.

75
Q

What are indications and contraindications to breast conservation therapy?

A

Indications unicentric small tumours relative to breast size and absolute size <5cm (T1/2) in a patient with no previous chest wall radiation.

Contraindications those with previous chest wall radiation, large or advanced tumours or inflammatory breast cancer. Breast cancer in 1st trimester pregnancy as can’t undergo radiation.

75
Q

What are Rotters nodes?

A

Nodes between pec major and minor

76
Q

What are the considerations for whether a patient should undergo immediate reconstruction?

A

Oncological:
Radiotherapy may have a detrimental effect on the reconstructed breast, particularly
after implant-based procedures.
* Expanders incorporating metal ports within the radiotherapy field may interfere with
radiotherapy dosage or treatable field.
* Systemic neoadjuvant therapy or delayed breast reconstruction should be
considered where there are concerns that immediate breast reconstruction may
lead to delays in treatment.
* When performing reconstruction of the partial mastectomy defect, the tumour bed
should be localised to aid accurate delivery of radiotherapy according to local
protocols unless radiotherapy has already been delivered.

Patient factors:
* the likely impact of recovery time on the patient’s family employment, and daily
activities
* impact of each technique on their occupation, activities, and lifestyle
* local and systemic disease burden
* the likelihood of the patient requiring adjuvant treatment (chemotherapy and/or
radiotherapy)
* familial and genetic risk factors
* comorbidities
* BMI1
* ASA score
* drug and smoking history
* psychological suitability
* pre-existing shoulder or musculoskeletal problems
* the patient’s expectations, choices, goals, and attitudes to risk.

Psychological assessment:

https://www.health.govt.nz/system/files/documents/publications/breast_reconstruction_guidelines.pdf

77
Q

What do the following letters mean in the TNM staging when put before a TNM.
- c
- p
- yp

A

C =Clinical Staging prior to treatment

P = pathological information post op

Yp = neoadjuvant treatment

78
Q

What is the PALB2 gene?

A

Encodes a protein that works with BRCA2 protein (Partner And Localiser to BRCA2 gene - PALB2) to repair damaged DNA and therefore the BRCA2 protein can’t work well either. 58% chance of developing breast cancer by 70yo.

79
Q

What is Cowdens syndrome?

A

Mutation in tumour suppressor gene PTEN (Phosphatase Tensin). Responsible for regulating cell growth, apoptosis, angiogenesis, cell adhesion and cell movement. Other name is multiple Hamartoma syndrome. Autosomal dominant inheritance on ch10.

30-85% risk of breast cancer over their lifetime, 35% risk of thyroid predominantly follicular, CNS and endometrial, colorectal and melanoma.

Benign features includes mucocutaneous lesions like papillomatous papules on tongue and in mouth. Hamartomatous polyps in small or large bowel. Lipomas. Fibrocystic changes in breast. Adenomas or MNG thyroid.
Neurodevelopmental Associations 1

Neurodevelopmental associations:
Macrocephaly (Large Head Size) – 94%
Dolichocephaly (Head Longer than Wide)
Autism
Intellectual Disability
Developmental Delays

80
Q

Tell me about gynaecomastia (hint use DIPSCHIT)

A

Definition & Differentials: Benign proliferation of glandular breast tissue in men.
- (c.f. pseudogynaecomastia which is accumulation of subareolar fat in obese men without proliferation of glandular tissue.)
- neoplastic

Incidence & risk factors:
Common with trimodal distribution (infancy, puberty, elderly) and often related to medications or other diseases usually.

Risks/causes include:
Physiological: (20%)
high serum oestradiol to testosterone ratio seen in neonates, puberty and elderly

Pharmacological:(20%)
- hormone supplements oestrogen
- hormone inhibitors e.g. Spironolactone, Cimetidine- and Antiandrogens – often seen in treatment of prostate cancer
- drugs causing hyperprolactinaemia e.g.methydopa, tricylic antidepressents.
- Recreational drugs (Marijuana, Alcohol & Amphetamines)

Pathological: (35%)
- Liver Cirrhosis, haemochromatosis, wilsons disease due to impaired hepatic oestrogen clearance
- Neoplasias that increase oesotrogen production e.g. testicular tumours, hepatoma, pituiatry and adrenal tumours, paraneoplastic syndrome e.g. brochial carcinoma.
- Decreased testosterone production e.g. Hypogonadism, hypopituitarism, accquired testicular failure sec to irradiation.
- Hyperthyroidism
- Chronic Kidney Disease
- Malnutrition & Refeeding

Idiopathic (25%)

Pathogenesis:
Imbalance in estrogen and androgen. So either relatively increased estrogen production or relatively decreased testosterone production.
rogression:
Early Stage (First 6 Months): Ductal Hyperplasia & Periductal Inflammation
(Most Symptomatic & Most Treatable Time Period)
Late Stage (After 12 Months): Fibrosis

Signs and symptoms:
Usually firm rubbery tissue, bilaterally and symmetrically. Centrally located deep to nipple/areolar complex and can be tender.

Classification:
Primary: Increased glandular tissue due to increased estrogen to androgen ratio.

Secondary: Also known as pseudogynaecomastia is due to obesity though the excess adipose also converts more estrogen and so also results in some primary gynaecomastia.

Histology: Benign hyperplasia of glandular tissue.

Investigations:
History and Examination taking special note of meds, drugs, EtOH use and on exam if symmetrical/bilateral, include testicular exam and liver/abdo exam.
Laboratory work up: LFTs, renal fx, TFTs, HCG, ?prolactin, ?estrogen and ?testosterone.
Imaging: Bilateral diagnostic mammography and USS if unilateral, uncertain or concerning for malignancy.

Treatment:
If no concerning features for malignancy then often reassurance and stop offending meds/drugs as appropriate.

If uncertainty or for cosmesis especially if >12 month. duration and now fibrotic can consider excision + liposuction. Or for significant pain or psychological distress.

81
Q

Describe a way to classify mastalgia/mastodynia.

A

Cyclical - associated with hormonal fluctuations of the menstrual cycle and most common in late luteal phase and tends to resolve with arrival of menstruation. More likely to be bilateral and diffuse and UOQ. Most common cause fibrocystic change.

Non-cyclical - Not associated with hormonal cycle. More likely to be unilateral and variable location. Common causes include stretching of suspensory ligaments in large pendulous breasts or obesity, HRT, breast cysts, duct ectasia, mastitis, mondors, trauma. Rarely but important to note: inflammatory breast ca.

Extra-mammary: referred pain from non-breast sources e.g. Costochondritis, cardiac disease, referred paraspinal, post thoracotomy syndrome

82
Q

What is granulomatous mastitis? What is it caused by? How is it treated?

A

Basics

Definition: Rare Benign Inflammatory Disease of the Breast Causing Granulomas
Causes:
Idiopathic – May Be Associated with Corynebacterium kroppenstedtii
Tuberculosis (TB)
Sarcoidosis
Presentation

Peripheral Inflammatory Breast Mass
May Have Abscess or Overlying Skin Inflammation/Ulceration
Diagnosis

Initial Imaging: US
Diagnosis: Core Needle Biopsy (CNB)
Pathology: Non-Necrotizing Granulomatous Lesions Centered on a Breast Lobule
Send for Acid-Fast Stains & Culture (Rule Out TB)
Treatment

Primary Treatment: Conservative Management
Treat Mastitis or Abscess as Indicated
For Tuberculosis: Typical TB “RIPE” Antibiotic Regimen (Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide & Ethambutol)

83
Q

What tools are available to assess risk for an individual woman of developing breast cancer.

A

Use eVIQ criteria for risk assessment and referral to genetics criteria.

Familial risk assessment Breast and ovarian prediction tool. Australian breast ca . Org

Gail model

Boadicea model

84
Q

What are risk reduction options for women with high risk family history or a genetic predisposition for developing breast cancer

A

Non-surgical options:
- earlier and more frequently screening
- chemoprophylaxis e.g with tamoxifen if premenopausal and an aromatase inhibitor if post menopausal. No trials showing survival adv. but reduced risk of hormone positive tumours.

Shouldn’t be started before the woman has completed her family. And many and some severe side effects.
- GnRH antagonists to stop ovarian synthesis of estrogen though not routinely used.

Surgical:
Prophylactic mastectomy +/- BSO

85
Q

What are some contraindications to breast conserving surgery?

A

Patient factors
- unable to have chest radiotherapy e.g may have had prev ipsilateral breast ca or Hodgkins lymphoma.
- collagen/vascular diseases esp if lung involvement high risk of complications from radiotherapy.
- strong family hx or known genetic mutation for recurrent breast cancers may be better counselled towards a mastectomy.
- early pregnancy

Disease factors
- inflammatory breast ca.
- T4 (invading chest wall)
- persistent positive margins on prior BCS.
-multicentric disease
- diffuse malignant microcalcifications
- persistently positive margins after multiple attempts at BCS.

Technical factors
- multicentric disease though, some recent studies similar rates for local recurrence as long as able to fully excise the disease and eg round block excision used and reconstruction and still provide good cosmetic outcome.
- large breast cancer to breast volume making reconstruction/oncoplastic techniques not achievable.

86
Q

What are the available localisation techniques for impalpable breast cancer that you are aware of? What are their pros/cons/tricks of the trade to look out for?

A

Most familiar with hookwire localisation where pre operatively a radiologist utilises mammography and USS to place a hook wire through the lesion terminating just past it and then the surgeon tunnels down around the wire in a cylinder down to chest wall to remove the specimen with wire intact. Advantage is it’s relatively cheap, short learning curve, relatively easy to visualise where to operate and can be put on on DOS. Can migrate, can be technically challenging for the radiologist to place, of surgery needs to be post poned for whatever unexpected reason the wire is still needing removal…

Carbon injection

Mag seed

….

87
Q

What is meant by a level 1 or 2 oncoplastic reconstruction.

A

Level 1: <20% breast removed in BCS and need to mobilise tissue of breast plate to obtain closure and good cosmetic result.

Level 2: 20-50% breast removed. Requires dual plane mobilisation and removal of excess skin in order to close a defect. Often based on mammoplasty techniques. Need to consider how dense the breast tissue is I.e cat C/D have lower chance of fat necrosis.

88
Q

What is the expected risk of positive margins for breast conserving surgery?

A

10-25%

89
Q

Who benefits from mastectomy instead of breast conserving surgery.

A

Patient factors:
- contraindicated for radiation therapy
- collagen.vascular disorders
- patient preference
- high risk or known genetic mutation

Disease factors:
- inflammatory breast cancer
- multicentric
- tumour occupies >50% of breast.
- extensive DCIS or microcalcs
- ill defined margins to tumour
- nipple involvement or very central tumours or skin involved

90
Q

What are the different types of mastectomy?

A

Traditional Halsted Radical Mastectomy - complete removal of glandular breast tissue, pec major and minor muscle and AND. Not routine anymore.

Modified radical mastectomy - complete removal of the glandular breast tissue and AND.

Simple mastectomy - complete removal of glandular breast tissue but no nodal surgery.

Skin sparing mastectomy - usually combined with reconstructive procedure. Involves complete removal of the glandular breast tissue with the nipple areola complex.

Nipple and skin sparing mastectomy - combined with reconstructive surgery and is only suitable in women with small breasts without much ptosis and involves complete removal of glandular breast tissue but leaving skin envelope and nipple/areola complex.

91
Q

How would you manage the axilla in a patient who has biopsy confirmed single pathological lymph node prior to commencing neoadjuvant chemotherapy?

A

I would ensure the node in question has a clip/marker placed by our radiology colleagues prior to commencement of chemotherapy such that in instance of complete pathological response the lymph node in question can still be identified at time of axillary surgery. At this stage the evidence would still suggest these patients benefit from an axillary node dissection however some advocate for restaging the axilla and if negative then for dual localised SNB and removal of clipped nodes and to redefine a positive node to include those even with only isolated tumour cells. If any were positive then would proceed to axillary node dissection still.

92
Q

What are the indications for an axillary dissection?

A

Clinically (includes radiologically) positive nodes with core biopsy proven metastasis.

Intraoperarive specimen positive (frozen section not routinely done anymore though)

If regional recurrence

If can’t find sentinel node though most would likely do an axillary sample.

93
Q

What are the indications for adjuvant chemotherapy in breast cancer?

A
  • triple negative
  • HER2
  • > 5cm
  • involved Axillary nodes or positive sentinel lymph nodes
  • > 2cm size of 2/3 or perineural or lymphovascular invasion
  • young patient
  • aggressive tumours including inflammatory breast cancer, medullary, apocrine, metaplastic adenocystic
94
Q

What is the typical adjuvant chemotherapy regime for breast cancer?

A

Usually commences 4-6weeks post op if a relatively uncomplicated recovery.

Consists of (TAC) a taxane e.g paclitaxel, cyclophosphamide, anthracyckine such as doxyrubicin,

Side effects include

T - Hand foot syndrome, peripheral neuropathy, alopecia, diarrhoea

A - N&V, bone marrow suppression, febrile neutropenia and cardiac toxicity.

C -

If HER 2 + then also benefit from trastusumab and given in combination with chemo w/o anthracycline or in sequence due to the concern for cardiac toxicity in both drugs.

95
Q

What are some possible benefits to neoadjuvant chemotherapy in breast cancer?

A
  • high risk tumours to reduce chance of recurrence e.g inflammatory breast cancer.
  • prior to surgery such that if any complications of surgery delay access to adjuvant treatment the patient has at least already received some chemo.
  • to downstage a tumour to change from mastectomy to breast conserving surgery
  • change a patient from locally invasive inoperable cancer to operable.
  • allows assessment of tumour response to give further information about tumour biology and to guide adjuvant treatment.
  • buys time for genetic testing results esp in young patients and those with triple negative tumours and then can guide choice of mastectomy over BCS
96
Q

Tell me about breast cysts. (Hint use DIPSCHIT)

A

Defintion:
Fluid filled benign mass from the terminal duct lobular unit.

Incidence:
Common. Account for 25% of all benign breast lesions.
More common in perimenopausal women.

Pathophysiology:
Thought to be abnormalities of involution process.

Signs and symptoms:
Can present assymptomatically at screening mammogram.

Can present as a palpable lump which can be painful.

Classification:
Simple: Well Circumscribed Anechoic Lesions
BI-RADS 2. <1% chance of malignancy

Complicated: Homogenous with Low-Level Internal Echoes without Solid Components, Thick Walls, Thick Septa or Vascular Flow
BI-RADS 2-3 <1% chance of malignancy

Complex: Solid Components, Thick Walls, Thick Septa or Vascular Flow
BI-RADS 4-5. 1-23% chance of malignancy

Histology:

Investigations:
Triple assessment. USS is best modality for assessing these so if already had mamm/MRI still recommend USS.

Treatment:
If small and assymptomatic and simple or complicated but not complex then can reassure and leave alone.

If large and symptomatic can aspirate.

If any diagnostic uncertainty or appears complex then biopsy +/- excise.

97
Q

What is a distinguishing feature of fat necrosis histologically.

A

Foam cells. Lipid leden macrophages.

98
Q

Describe a way of classifying benign breast lesions and give examples under each heading.

A

Non-proliferative lesions: (1.2-1.4x RR)
- Mild duct hyperplasia
- pseudoadenomatous stromal hyperplasia (PASH)
- simple columnar cell change (<2 layers)

Proliferative lesions: (1.7-2.2x RR)
- fibroadenoma
- simple papilloma
- florid ductal hyperplasia (at least 70% of lumen)
- columnar hyperplasia (>2 layers)
- mammary adenosis
- radial scar <1cm
- complex sclerosing lesion >1cm

Proliferative lesions with atypia: (4-5x RR)
- atypical ductal hyperplasia (<2-3mm in size and don’t completely fill 2 duct spaces)
- atypical papilloma
- flat epithelial cell atypia (1.5x RR)
- atypical lobular hyperplasia (<50% of lobular unit is filled and not distended)
- lobular carcinoma in situ (>50% and distended)

99
Q

What are the known genetic predispositions to breast cancer?

A

BRCA 1
BRCA 2
PALB2
STK11 (Peutz Jeghers)
PTEN (Cowdens)
TP53 (Li Fraumeni)
CDH-1
Lynch (MSH1, MLH1, MSH6, PMS2 & EPCAM)
ATM

100
Q

Compare and contrast LCIS to DCIS

A

Both are proliferation of their respective cells without invasion into basement membrane.

LCIS NOT premalignant but marker of increased risk of developing breast cancer in BOTH breasts (40%). Of these breast cancers to later develop majority are actually ductal.

DCIS is PREMALIGNANT, i.e. the lesion if left alone would transform into an invasive cancer. Increases risk of breast cancer in IPSILATERAL breast.

On mammograms LCIS does NOT cause calcifications. DCIS does cause CALCIFICATIONS.

On core biopsy specimen stains NEGATIVE for e-cad for LCIS and its positive for DCIS.

Requirement for margins is not necessary for LCIS* as its not premalignant and need to treat whole women to reduce risk e.g. hormone treatment given its a bilateral risk vs DCIS needs 2mm margins to be clear.
(If both DCIS & invasive cancer are present, goal is “No Ink on Tumor”
behaves more like invasive cancer
*For pleomorphic LCIS subtype behaves more like DCIS and may argue for clear margins.

LCIS alone does not warrant SNB or Rtx. DCIS if doing a mastectomy would do SNB and and if doing BCS needs Rtx as reduces chance of breast ca in ipsilateral breast by 50% but no survival benefit.

101
Q

What are the important subtypes of LCIS and DCIS to be aware of.

A

The high risk subtype of LCIS is pleomorphic. This behaves more like DCIS and is treated similarly in accordance.

The other LCIS subtypes are classic and florid.

The high risk subtype of DCIS is comedo. This behaves aggressively with rapid growth past its blood supply hence hallmark is central necrosis.

other DCIS subtypes are cribriform, micropapillary, papillary and solid type.

102
Q

What is difference between multifocal vs multicentric breast cancer?

A

Multifocal = multiple discrete tumours within one quadrant

Multicentric = multiple discrete tumours in more than one quadrant. Higher risk or this if a central tumour or subareola tumour are found.

103
Q

How do invasive lobular cancers appear on core needle biopsy compared to invasive carcinoma of no special type (previously called ductal carcinoma/IDC)?

A

ILC: small malignant cells that infiltrate between tissue planes rather than distorting them and therefore form linear arrangement of malignant cells. Stain negative for e-cadherin and are discohesive.

IDC: malignant cells form cords or nests with varying gland formation and fibrotic response. Stain positive for e-cad.

.

104
Q

What are the diagnostic steps in inflammatory breast cancer?

A

Triple assessment and MDT but in essence these women need high index of suspicion so don’t misdiagnose for infectious process.

Needs punch biopsies of skin as well as core needle biopsy of mass and biopsy of involved nodes (almost all have involved nodes). Will also need staging CT as 1/3 present with distant mets at diagnosis.

Diagnostic Criteria:
Rapid Onset of Erythema, Edema, Warmth and/or Peau d’Orange
Duration ≤ 6 Months
Erythema Occupying ≥ 1/3 the Breast
Pathologic Confirmation of Invasive Carcinoma

105
Q

What are the clinical features of inflammatory breast cancer?

A

Rapidly growing (weeks-months) mass with associated pain, erythema, warmth, oedema causing dimpling/peau d’ orange (due to dermal lymphatic invasion).

106
Q

What is the diagnostic and treatment pathway for occult breast malignancy?

A

These patients present with clinically positive lymph nodes and then need to go hunting for the primary. Still needs triple assessment. With the examination examine along entire milk-lines embryologically and the imaging part includes MRI if occult to mammogram/USS. Still ~30% won’t find a primary on imaging.

Treatment is modified radical mastectomy + axillary node dissection. May consider AND + whole breast radiotherapy if patient wishes to retain breast. Also consider adjuvant chemotherapy in those where primary is not found.

107
Q

Describe the embryology of the breast.

A

Milk lines/ridges form from primitive axilla to groin in 4-6th week of gestation. These consist of ectoderm and mesoderm. The ectoderm goes on to become epidermal cells and mesoderm the stromal tissue of the breast. Ultimately the ridges then involute and disappear apart from remaining mammary glands that will become the breasts.

Polythelia (multiple nipples) and polymastia (multiple breasts) will be along these milk ridges.

108
Q

What are the salient considerations of breast cancer during pregnancy?

A
  • worse prognosis
  • predominantly poorly differentiated and diagnosed at late stage
  • lower frequency of hormone expression (25%)
  • physical exam more difficult due to hypertrophy and engorgement
  • mammography less sensitive due to oedema, increased density but note mammogram not contraindicated
  • treatment surgery is mastectomy if early pregnancy, could consider BCS + RTx if late in preg and delay the Rtx till post partum
  • SNB performed with radioisotope only. Blue dye teratogenic so contraindicated.
  • Never use Rtx during pregnancy - regnancy Loss, Malformation, Growth Disturbance or Mutation
  • Never use hormonal therapy, trastuzumab, in pregnancy
  • Chemo never used in first trimester, can be considered in second or third
109
Q

What are the key points to know about male breast cancer?

A
  • Higher chance with BRCA 2 than 1.
  • Triple assessment incl mammography.
  • mastectomy usually rather than BCT due to smaller breast volume
  • 82% hormone positive
  • Tamoxifen not anastrozole

Otherwise similar to females in terms of management.

110
Q

What is the relevance of a pathological supraclavicular lymph node in breast cancer?

A
  • considered distant met rather than regional spread and as such patient recommended for chemotherapy, radiation therapy and resection of primary. Only resect the lymph node if not fully treated by above.
111
Q

What are the indications and contraindications to a sentinel lymph node biopsy?

A

Indications:
- T1/2 tumours with clinically and radiologically negative nodes.
- DCIS if mastectomy required

Contraindications:
- Inflammatory breast cancer
- Clinically positive lymph nodes
- Locally adv disease T3/T4

Debated contraindications:
- T3 tumours
- After neoadjuvant chemotherapy
- prior axillary surgery

112
Q

What is a MUGA scan and a bone scan and a bone density scan and what are the indications for ordering these in breast cancer patients?

A

MUGA = Multi-Gated Acquisition scan where a radioactive material that targets the heart is administered and then viewed with a gamma camera to assess blood flow through the heart and assess cardiac function. Another name is nuclear ventriculography. Patients undergoing chemotherapy with an anthracycline or trastusumab (both have possible cardiotoxicity side effects) are requested one to assess function pre-treatment.

Bone scan is a whole body nuclear medicine scan where a radiotracer is adminsitered and areas of irregular activity show up dark on the scan. Inidicated in concerns for metatstic disease to bone is symptomatic patients or as staging in assymptomatic patients with high risk disease e.g. T3/4 tumours or positive lymph nodes.

A bone density scan or DEXA is a series of xrays to assess for osteoporosis in patients about to commence of whoa re already on aromatase inhibitors to assess ongoing safety of use of the drug and whether bisphosphonates may be of benefit. It gives a T score - The difference between your measurement and that of a young healthy adult. above -1 SD is normal
between -1 and -2.5 SD is defined as mildly reduced bone mineral density (BMD) compared with peak bone mass (PBM)
at or below -2.5 SD is defined as osteoporosis

113
Q

How may radiation use impact reconstruction choices?

A

If patient has had previous radiation then reconstruction with autologous methods is preferred as better cosmetic outcome and tissue doesn’t accomodate expanders well due to permanent vascular injury to the irradiated tissue.

If a patient is anticipating adjuvant radiotherapy then a delayed reconstruction is preferred. This is because if an immediate autologous one is performed the radiation contracts and increases complication rate to that flap. Also may delay access to adjuvant treatment if complications in the reconstruction. However options of delayed autologous reconstruction still fine post adjuvant rtx. Also option to put a temporary expander in pre-radiation and plans to remove and reconstruct post.

114
Q

Tell me about Lymphoedema (DIPSCHIT)

A

Definition: Swelling due to accumulation of lymphatic fluid

Incidence and risk factors:
- Nodal disease e.g. grossly malignant nodes.
- Nodal surgery (AND risk ~20%, SNB <5%)
- filariasis due to wuchereria bancrofti parasite.

Pathogenesis:
due to lymphatic obstruction or incompetence. This can be congenital or accquired. Acquired due to above risk factors.

Signs and symptoms:
- woody oedema.
- painless swelling
complications of it:
- recurrent cellulitis
- lymphangiosarcoma years later.
- malnutrition from loss of proteins

Classifications:
- Latent Phase: Fluid Accumulation Around Lymphatics without Edema
- Grade I: Pitting Edema Relieved by Elevation, No Fibrosis
- Grade II: Non-Pitting Edema Not Relieved by Elevation, Fibrosis Present
- Grade III: Lymphostatic Elephantiasis, Irreversible Edema from Repeated Inflammation & Fibrosis

Histology:
Accumulation of hyaluronan & glycoproteins causes increased fibroblasts, keratinocytes & macrophages. Increased collagen & connective tissue causes progressive subcutaneous fibrosis.

Investigations:
- Usually a clinical diagnosis
-Bioimpedance spectroscopy represents a standard diagnostic approach to assess for breast cancer-related lymphedema, allowing for early detection and treatment
- Can use lymphoscintography and venous USS to be sure.

Treatment:
Prevention is better than treatment - techniques include clipping lymphatics during nodal surgery, only removing the required nodes, care not to be too rough with tissue during sentinel node dissection.

Compression garments
Lymphatic decompression massage
Elevation
Skin care

Microsurgery with lymphovenous anastomosis or lymph node transfer are rarely used in NZ.

115
Q

What are the risk factors for male breast cancer?

A

Modifiable:
- EtOH
- Smoking
- Obesity (hyperoestrogenic)
- Occupational exposure: high temperatures, electromagnetic fields
- Prior chest irradiation e.g. Hodgkins lymphoma

Unmodifiable:
- Genetic predisposition: BRCA2 highest risk, BRCA1, rare Cowden (PTEN) and CHEK2
- Hyperoestrogenic states e.g. Klienfelters XXY, testciular crytoorchidism/dysgenesis

116
Q

What is the optimal timing for operating post neoadjuvant chemotherapy?

A

4-8 weeks.

too early and effect on wound healing too high

too late and lose opportunity lowest risk disease, after 8 weeks % of complete pathological response decreases.