Abdominal wall & Retroperitoneum & Urogenital Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the borders of lumbar hernias.

A

Inferior lumbar hernia of petit:
Lateral = EO
Inferior = Iliac crest
Medial = Lat dorsi

Superior lumbar hernia of Grynfeltt:
Lateral = IO
Medial= Quadratus lumborum
Superior = 12th rib

Most commonly however is a diffuse lumber hernia outside of these anatomic triangels due to trauma, infection or surgery.

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2
Q

What is the pathogenesis of fascial dehisence?

A

The abdominal wall pressure overcomes the tissue, suture or knot integrity.

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3
Q

What is Hesselbach’s triangle?

A

An area of relative weakness in anterior abdominal wall where direct inguinal hernias arise. It is bordered medially by linea semilunaris, superiolaterally by inferior epigastric vessels and inferiorly by inguinal ligament.

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4
Q

What makes up the femoral triangle?

A
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5
Q

Where do femoral hernias pass through?

A

The femoral ring (which is bordered by the lacunar ligament medially, femoral vein laterally and pectineal ligament posteriorly) and into the femoral canal.

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6
Q

In a TEP repair what are the triangles of pain and triangles of doom and what are their contents?

A

Triangle of pain is lateral and bordered by superiorly by iliopubic tract, medially by spermatic vessels and laterally by peritoneal reflection. It contains
- Femoral nerve
- Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
- Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
- Anterior femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

Triangle of doom is bordered by the vas deferens medially, spermatic vessels laterally and the peritoneal reflection inferiorly. It contains the external iliac vessels and the genital branch of genitofemoral nerve.

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7
Q

What is the corona mortis and its relevance surgically?

A

common variant arterial anastomosis between either the external iliac artery or deep inferior epigastric artery and the obturator artery. Occurs in up to 33% of population.

Its relevant in pelvic pubic rami trauma as a cause of significant bleeding also relevant in TEP hernia repairs .

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8
Q

What is Palmers point? What is it used for and what are contraindications to using it?

A

3 cm below the left costal margin in the mid-clavicular line.

Used for laparoscopic direct optical entry.

Contraindicated in previous LUQ surgery, splenomegaly, portal hypertension.

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9
Q

Spot diagnosis

A

Amyands hernia (appendix in an indirect inguinal hernia)

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10
Q

Spot diagnosis

A

Aftermath of a Richters hernia (only antimessenteric border of small bowel has herniated).

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11
Q

Describe how indirect and direct inguinal hernias develop.

A

Indirect is due to patent processus vaginalis

Direct is due to weak transversalis fascia in Hesselbachs triangle.

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12
Q

What is the recurrence rate for inguinal hernia repair with and without mesh.

A

Quote 3-4% with mesh (no difference between open vs lap techniques) and 10-30% for tissue repair without mesh.

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13
Q

What is your approach to recurrent inguinal hernias?

A

Mitigate any modifiable risk factors for recurrence and then;
Asymptomatic or Minimal Symptoms: Watchful Waiting vs Surgical Repair
Choice Based on Patient Preference
Symptomatic: Surgical Repair
Previous Tissue Repair: Any Approach
Previous Mesh Repair: Approach Through Unviolated Tissue Planes
Failed Anterior Repair: Posterior Approach
Failed Posterior Repair: Anterior Approach
Leave a New Mesh, Even if Mesh Was Already Used Previously
Do Not Remove Old Mesh

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14
Q

Are femoral hernias more common in women?

A

Femoral hernias are 4x more common in women than men but inguinal hernia is still the most common hernia in women.

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15
Q

What are the following hernias?
1. Pantaloon
2. Sliding
3. Indirect
4. Direct
5. Femoral
6. Amyand
7. Littre
8. De Garengeot
9. Obturator
10. Athletic pubalgia
11. Richter

A
  1. Both direct and indirect inguinal hernias
  2. Contains retroperitoneal structure in wall of hernia sac e.g. sigmoid colon, bladder.
  3. Inguinal hernia through the internal ring due to patent processus vaginalis.
  4. Inguinal hernia through weakness in transversalis fascia at Hesselbach’s triangle.
  5. Hernia through femoral canal
  6. Appendix in indirect inguinal hernia
  7. Meckels diverticulum in inguinal or femoral hernia
  8. Appendix in femoral hernia
  9. Hernia through obturator foramen.
  10. Not a true hernia - groin pain without evidence of groin hernia.
  11. Only antimessenteric border is in the hernia.
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16
Q

What is this?

A

This is a femoral hernia (medial to the femoral vessels)

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17
Q

What is this?

A

Obturator hernia through obturator foramen.

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18
Q

What is obturator neuralgia?

A

Pain from groin to medial knee due to compression of the obturator nerve. Can be due to a number of things but consider obturator hernia. Howship-Romberg sign - this neuralgia is exacerbated by hi extension, internal rotation and abduction.

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19
Q

Describe the different open groin hernia repair techniques.

A

Mesh repairs;
Lichentenstein tension free mesh repair - uses mesh to decrease tension. 2cm overlap at pubic tubercle. sutured here with non-absorbable suture e.g. prolene.

Other mesh repairs patch and plug out of favour due to complications.

Tissue repairs:
Bassini - suture conjoint tendon to inguinal ligament

McVay - suture conjoint tendon to coopers ligament (covers femoral canal and therefore used for femoral hernia repair)

Shouldice 2-4 layer closure. Layer 1: Inferolateral Transversalis Fascia Flap to Deep Muscular Fascia
Layer 2: Superior-Medial Transversalis Fascia Flap to Shelving Portion of Inguinal Ligament
Layer 3: Conjoint Tendon to Inferolateral Transversalis Fascia Flap
Layer 4: Conjoint Tendon to Inguinal Ligament

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20
Q

What are the anatomic remnants for each of the following?
1. Vitelline duct
2. Urachus
3. Umbilical arteries
4. Umbilical veins

A
  1. Should fully obliterate however can result in Meckels diverticulum if it hasn’t fully done so.
  2. Median umbilical ligament
  3. Medial umbilical ligaments
  4. Falciform ligament.
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21
Q

Describe the embryology of the fore, mid and hind gut.

A

Foregut
GI Tract: Esophagus to Proximal Duodenum (To Ampulla of Vater)
Organs: Liver, Gallbladder, Bile Ducts, Pancreas & Lungs
Arterial Supply: Celiac Artery
Hepatic Portal Drainage: Splenic Vein

Midgut
GI Tract: Distal Duodenum to Distal 1/3 Transverse Colon
Arterial Supply: Superior Mesenteric Artery
Hepatic Portal Drainage: Superior Mesenteric Vein
Rotates 270 Degrees Counterclockwise

Hindgut
GI Tract: Distal 1/3 Transverse Colon to Anal Canal
Arterial Supply: Inferior Mesenteric Artery
Hepatic Portal Drainage: Inferior Mesenteric Vein

Diagram:
Classic “En-Bloc Rotation” Model of Gut Morphogenesis: Midgut Herniates and Rotates 90-Degrees (B1), Forms Loops (B2), & Slides Back into the Abdomen (B3). The Midgut Then Rotates an Additional 180-Degrees to its Final Position (C)

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22
Q

Describe the different ligaments of the inguinal region.

A

Inguinal ligament = rolled edge of external oblique aponeurosis and goes from ASIS to PT.

Conjoint tendon = confluence of transversus abdominus and internal oblique fibres joined together and attach to the pubic tubercle and pectineal line.

Lacunar ligament = curvilinear fibres that go between inferior edge of inguinal ligament and attach to the pubic bone. Forms the medial wall of the femoral canal.

Coopers ligament = an extension of the lacunar ligament along the pectineal line of the pubic bone and creates the posterior wall of the femoral canal.

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23
Q

Describe the borders of the inguinal canal.

A

Bordered

Anterior = external oblique aponeurosis.

Inferior = rolled edge of external oblique creating the inguinal ligament.

Posterior = Transversalis fascia.

Superior = Conjoint tendon

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24
Q

Describe the boundaries of the femoral triangle.

A

Superior = inguinal ligament

Medial = medial border of adductor longus

Lateral = medial border of sartorius

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25
Q

Describe the boundaries of the femoral ring.

A

Anterior = inguinal ligament

Posterior = coopers ligament

Medial = lacunar ligament

Lateral = femoral vein

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26
Q

Describe the contents of the femoral sheath and the femoral canal.

A

Femoral sheath is a continuation of transversalis fascia anteriorly and iliacus fascia posteriorly and encases the femoral artery and vein and some lymphatics. It is divided vertically into 3 compartments. Medial most makes up the femoral canal, Intermediate = femoral vein, lateral = femoral artery

The femoral canal extends from femoral ring above to saphenous opening below. It occupies most of the medial compartment of the femoral sheath. It contains fat, lymphatics and lymph node of Cloquet.

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27
Q

Label the photo. TBC

A
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28
Q

What is the significance of the lymph node of cloquet?

A

This is groin lymph node located in the femoral canal and is the lymph node at the junction of deep inguinal nodes and the external iliac chain.

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29
Q

What are the contents of the spermatic cord?

A

3 arteries
- artery to vas deferens (origin inferior vesicular artery)
- cremasteric artery (origin inferior epigastrics)
- testicular artery (origin aorta)

3 nerves
- sympathetic branches
- testicualr nerve fibres
- genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve
(- ilioinguinal nerve runs outside but along it.)

pampiniform plexus of veins

cremasteric muscle fibres (continuation of internal oblique)

vas deferens

lymphatics

tunica vaginalis

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30
Q

Describe the layers of the scrotum from skin to testis.
Hint ‘Some Damn Englishman Called It The Testis.’

A
  • Skin
  • Dartos fascia and muscle
  • External spermatic fascia
  • Cremasteric fascia
  • Internal spermatic fascia
  • Tunica vaginalis
  • Tunica albuginea
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31
Q

What is the bell clapper deformity and what is its significance?

A

The tunica vaginalis extends up over the entire testis to the origin of the vessels and so makes it easier for the testis to tort.

https://www.vumc.org/global-surgical-atlas/sites/default/files/public_files/PDF/Orchiectomy%20and%20Orchipexy%20for%20Testicular%20Torsion.pdf

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32
Q

Describe the embryology of testicular descent.

A

Start off up by kidneys.

Attached at caudal pole by gubernaculum as tether to the inguinal canal by 8th week

intra-abdominal phase chatacterised by growth of gubernaculum inferiorly towards scrotal swellings pulling testis down with it.

at same time enlogated diverticulum of peritoneum from the anterior abdominal cavity develops (processus vaginalis) and invaginates through abdominal wall between EO and IO to become spermatic cord.

The testis envaginates into the periotneal covering forming a pouch. The cranial part obliterates and the caudal part becomes the tunica vaginalis.

Descent timing:
- 4th fetal month near deep ring
- 7th fetal month within deep ring
next few days to weeks descend into scrotum.

33
Q

Describe the embryology associated with each of the following conditions:
- Congential hydrocoele
- Cryptoorchidism
- Indirect inguinal hernia
- Bell clapper deformity

A
  • partially patent processus vaginalis
  • maldescent/undescended testes
  • patent processus vaginalis
  • processus vaginalis that becomes the tunica vaginalis doesnt fully obliterate at cranial areas giving whole testis covering in tunica vaginalis.
34
Q

How do you manage cryptoorchidism?

A

It depends on the age of the patient:

  • Between birth and 3 months of age they may spontaneously descend still.
  • Before puberty aim is to preserve the testis to improve fertility chances (does not fully decrease the malignant potential of a maldescended testis). Perform a Fowler Stephens procedure if high in abdomen as length of the testicular artery is the main lenght-limiting factor (2 stage technique with laparoscopic surgery whereby 1st stage divides the testicular artery high and then second stage 6 months later once collaterals well established the testis is moved down into scrotum).
  • between puberty and 30 years old orchidectomy recommended (laparoscopic surgery). This is due to the malignant potential (particularly seminomas) of the testes and it is already too far gone re retrieval of fertility.
  • after 30 years old orchidectomy may not be recommended due to balance of risks and cancer risk stabilisation as by the age of 30 the peak incidence of testicular cancer in undescended testes has usually passed and the risk begins to stabilise or decrease. This is because the testes are often now atrophic/
35
Q

What are the triangles of doom and pain in hernia repair surgery? What are their contents.

A

Triangle of doom is bordered medially by the vas deferens, laterally by the testicular vessels and inferiorly by the peritoneal fold. It contains the external iliac artery and vein. It also contains the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve.

Triangle of pain is bordered medially by the testicular vessels, laterally by the lateral margn of the peritoneal reflection and superiorly by the iliopubic tract. It contains (laterally to medially) the Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, the anterior femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, the femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve and the femoral nerve. It also has the deep circumflex iliac vessels.

36
Q

You encounter arterial bleeding when placing a tack medially around the pubic tubercle at time of laparoscopic hernia repair. What have you likely hit?

A

Corona mortis. It is a vascular anastomosis between the obturator and external iliac or inferior epigastric arteries.

37
Q

How is an inguinal hernia repair different in children c.f. to adults.

A

In children an inguinal hernia is an indirect inguinal hernia due to patent processus vaginalis. In adults it can be either indirect due to same eitiology or direct.

In children a herniotomy is performed i.e. ligation and amputation of the hernia sac once contents reduced. In adults it is recommended mesh is used after this step to prevent recurrence. In children the mesh would not grow with the child so causes more problems and recurrence rates are low with a herniotomy alone in children.

38
Q

How do you manage an umbilical hernia in a child?

A

Up to 10% of children have an umbilical hernia when born but most spontaneously resolve before the age of 3 without causing complications.

An umbilical hernia is repaired in children >3 years old or in rare instances here its causing strangulation.

39
Q

What are Bochdalek and Morgagni hernias?

A

Bochdalek = congential diaphragmatic hernia (makes up ~70% of them). Is posteroinferior defect. Usually on the left.

Morgagni = congential diaphragmatic hernia (least common). Is a defect anteriorly and often smaller and present later.

40
Q

Describe the embrology of visceral herniation and return and its relation to exomphalos and gastroschisis

A

AT around 6th week of gestation bowel herniates out due to rapid growth phase and not enough intraabdominal space.

Around 10th week the bowel returns to the abdominal cavity and is completed by 12th week.

Exomphalos is remaining umbilical defect resulting in herniated (usually bowel) contained in a sac inside the umbilicus.

Gastroschisis is also associated with malrotation and incomplete return of the bowel to the abdomen but is through a defect usually inferolateral to the right of the umbilicus and the contents are not contained within a sac.

41
Q

What is a spigelian hernia?

A

A hernia at the spigelian fascia (between rectus abdominus muscle and transversus abdominus/internal oblique aponeurosis).

It is contained deep to external oblique which is why its classically hard to palpate.

Spigelian hernias can occur anywhere along the semilunar line (lateral edge of rectus abdominus) but most commonly occur at level of arcuate line (marks inferior margin of posterior layer of the rectus sheath)

42
Q

What is the arcuate line and its significance?

A

The arcuate line marks the inferior most margin of the posterior layer of the rectus sheath.

Superior to the arcuate line the anterior rectus sheath is made up of the fascia of EO and half of IO and the posterior rectus sheath is made up of other half of IO, transversus abdominus and transversalis fascia.

Inferior to the arcuate line the anterior rectus sheath is made up of EO/IO and TA and the posterior rectus sheath is only made up of transversalis fascia.

Clinical significance is around this line spigelian hernias classically develop. Below the arcuate line and bordered by the rectus abdominus muscle medially, the inferior epigastric vessels laterally and the inguinal ligament inferiorly is Hesselbachs triangle as here only transversalis fascia means relative weakness in abdominal wall can result in direct hernias.

Its surface landmarks are 1/3rd of the way from the pubic crest to the umbilicus.

43
Q

Describe anatomical course and function for each of the following nerves;
- Ilioinguinal nerve
- Iliohypogastric nerve
- Genitofemoral nerve
- Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

A

Ilioinguinal Nerve

Enters Through Superior Border Between Internal Oblique & Transversus Abdominis
Near Iliohypogastric Nerve
Runs Parallel Over the Spermatic Cord
Not Inside
Function: Cutaneous Sensation Over Penis Root & Scrotum

liohypogastric Nerve

Enters Through Superior Border Between Internal Oblique & Transversus Abdominis
Near Ilioinguinal Nerve
Runs Transverse Over Internal Oblique, Superior to Deep Ring
Function: Hypogastric Cutaneous Sensation

Genitofemoral Nerve

Genital Branch
Travels Through Deep Ring to Cremaster Muscle
Function: Cremaster Muscle & Scrotal Skin
Femoral Branch
Parallels Iliac Vessels Through Femoral Canal
Function: Inner Thigh Sensation

Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve

Initially Parallels Ilioinguinal and Iliohypogastric Nerves
Exits Posterior to Inguinal Ligament Through Femoral Canal
Function: Lateral Thigh Sensation

44
Q

Which side are varicocoeles more common on and why?

A

Varicocoeles are more common on the left due to the left spermatic vein draining into the left renal vein (higher pressure and tighter angle of curvature) than the right spermatic vein which drains into the lower pressure IVC.

If varicocoele seen on the right raise suspicion for potential retroperitoneal mass, renal mass or lymphadenopathy.

45
Q

What options are available for management of hydrocoele?

A

Adults:
Asymptomatic leave alone

Symptomatic
- Can aspirate
- In adults investigate and treat underlying cause
- surgical hydrocolectomy two techniques >
- Jaboulay removes excess sac, everts edges and sews them together behind cord.
- Lord plication removes excess sac and then plicates and oversews edges.

Paeds:
Non-communicating:
- asymptomatic leave alone
- symptomatic hydrocolectomy

Communicating:
Age 1-2: Observe (Most Spontaneously Resolve by Age 1-2 Years)
Age > 2: High Ligation of the Patent Processus Vaginalis
Distal Sac is Drained & Left Behind

46
Q

How do you treat varicocoele?

A

If asymptomatic no need to but caution right sided varicocoeles may warrant further investigation for underlying mass.

In symptomatic varicocoeles or due to testicular atrophy or poor sperm counts; options include embolisation by interventional radiology or surgical ligation through open approach in the groin or laparoscopic approach intraabdominal.

47
Q

What would be concerning signs of secondary (i.e. due to venous obstruction) causes of varicocoele?

A
  • Right sided
  • Visible or palpable even in supine position
  • Acute onset.
48
Q

Describe the lymphatic drainage of the testis.

A

Right goes to the para-caval and interaortocaval lymph nodes

Left goes to para-aortic lymph nodes

49
Q

What are the serum tumour markers for testicular cancer?

A

Bhcg, LDH and AFP

Note AFP NOT raised in seminomas

In non-seminomatous germ cell tumours bhcg, LDH and AFP may be high

In stromal tumours none of the markers are raised but may see elevation of hormonal markers.

50
Q

What are the histological subtypes of testicular tumours?

A

Germ cell tumours (95%)
- Seminoma (most common and exquisitely sensitive to radiation therapy, good outcomes).
- Non seminomas include; yolk sac, embryonal carcinoma - aggressive with high rates of mets, choriocarcinoma, teratomas.

Non germ cell tumours (~5%)/ stromal tumours
- Leydig cell tumour
- Sertoli cell tumour
- Granulosa cell tumour

Other (rare)
- lymphoma
- carcinoid
- mets

51
Q

How would you work up a suspected testicular tumour?

A
  • tumour markers germ cell tumours (bhcg, LDH and AFP)
  • hormonal markers if thinking stromal tumours (testosterone, LH and FSH)
  • USS
  • CT abdo/pelvis +/- chest CT to assess for mets/staging
  • discuss sperm banking if clinically indicated for fertility reasons.
  • NB: Do not biopsy for concern for seeding to scrotal sac which then can give inguinal lymphatic spread. As such once suspicious definitive diagnosis on orchidectomy by inguinal incision to avoid scrotal lymphatics.
52
Q

What properties make up an ‘ideal mesh’?

A

An ideal mesh would have the following properties;

  1. Tensile strength
  2. Easy to manipulate
  3. Durable
  4. Good degree of tissue ingrowth
  5. Chemically and biologically inert, non-allergenic response
  6. Non- carcinogenic
  7. Resistant to bacteria
  8. Sterilisable
  9. Low cost
  10. Limited contraction
53
Q

Provide an outline of different mesh types available.

A
54
Q

What is the advantage of each of the following properties regarding mesh?
1. large pore size
2. lightweight
3. heavyweight
4. monofilament
5. multifilament
6. absorbable
7. non-absorbable
8. microporous (small pores)

A
  1. encourages tissue ingrowth
  2. easy to manipulate, flexible and lower infection risk, decreased shrinkage
  3. increased tensile strength
  4. reduced infection risk, typically easier to cut and shape, less prone to shrinkage and better tissue intergration
    5.typically softer and more pliable, increased surface area can encourage rapid tissue ingrowth
  5. can be used in clean-contaminated or contaminated fields, often a material safe to use against viscera
  6. permanent tissue support
  7. Doesn’t allow tissue ingrowth which can be advantage in decreasing adhesions e.g. against bowel.
55
Q

What are abdominal binders useful for post laparotomy closure?

A

May reduce post operative pain.

They do not decrease risk of incision hernias or burst abdomen.

56
Q

When is temporary abdominal closure/ “open abdomen”/laparostomy indicated?

A

In the damage control unstable patient with excessive oedema or tension whereby attempting to close the fascia may result in abdominal compartment syndrome.

57
Q

What is abdominal compartment syndrome? How is it diagnosed? How can it be managed?

A

Abdominal compartment syndrome (ACS) is defined as intraabdominal pressure >20mmHg with end organ damage.

Diagnosed by measuring the intraabdominal pressure (IAP):
- indirectly via in dwelling catheter in bladder with pressure probe. Normal IAP is 5-7mmHg, ACS is when IAP = 20mmHg+ + need evidence of end-irgan dysfunction e.g. hypotension, oliguria, respiratory distress

Management can be broken down into prevention, medical, surgical
and correction of cause.

Prevention - open abdomen in oedematous, damage control unstable patients undergoing laparotomy

Medical mx:
- decompression with NGTs, rectal catheters, bladder catheter.
- fluid resuscitation to maintain perfusion but avoid odema
- optimising ventilation with low tidal volumes and PEEP.
- neuromuscular blockade to reduce abdominal wall tension

Surgical mx:
- laparostomy and temporary abdominal closure techniques.

Treatment of underlying cause e.g. escharotomies in severe burns, abx and treatment of sepsis, control of haemorrhage etc.

58
Q

Describe the temporary abdominal closure techniques?

A

Negative pressure wound therapy:
- e.g. Abthera
- suction at 100-150mmHg
- excellent fluid control.

Vacuum pack;
- ‘homemade’ set up
- Barker technique
- non adherent sheet over the viscera and fenestrate it to allow fluid absorption. (can use ioban upside down, sterile xray machine cover or 10x10 steri-drape)
- two large vascular packs laid out flat on top of this
- silicone suction drains along the packs that can be attached to suction.
- adhesive sheet over top of abdomen and skin e.g. ioban to seal the system.

Patch closure;
- uses synthetic mesh bridge between the fascia +/- NPWT over top.

Bogota bag
- sterile IVF bag is sutured to each side of the fascia as a bridge to contain the viscera.

Zipper closure
- zipper device sutured in
- allows repeated procedures.

Skin-only closure.

59
Q

What is a proboscoid hernia?

A

Umbilical hernia with excsessive stretching of the skin such that it hands down like an elephant trunk or the nose of a proboscis monkey which it is named after.

60
Q

How would you manage an umbilical hernia during pregnancy?

A

If asymptomatic observe

If symptomatic but no acute incarceration, strangulation or skin necrosis concerns then delay repair till after delivery or even consider concomitant repair at time of elective C-section if that is chosen mode of delivery.

If planning subsequent pregnancies if appropriate then try wait till after family complete. Ideally wait a year post partum last pregnancy for hormone stabilisation and return to normal body weight.

NB also pregnant women more likely to develop rectus divarication which though itself is not a hernia it can increase risk of recurrence of umbilical hernia and so ideally use a mesh and without fixation e.g. glues or self-adhesive meshes in retromuscular plane.

There is no consensus about the timing of surgery for an umbilical hernia in a woman who is already pregnant or planning a pregnancy. If the hernia is incarcerated or strangulated at the time of diagnosis, an emergency repair is inevitable. If the hernia is not complicated, but symptomatic, an elective repair should be proposed. If the hernia is repaired by suture, the risk of recurrence is high during pregnancy. Repair with a mesh may restrict the flexibility of the abdominal wall and may cause pain during a subsequent pregnancy. When the patient has a small and asymptomatic hernia, it may be better to postpone the repair until she gives birth.

https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC5796887/#:~:text=early%20postpartum%20period.-,A%201%2Dyear%20interval%20can%20give%20the%20patient%20a%20very,like%20to%20have%20more%20children.

61
Q

What is loss of domain?

A

International Consensus Definition 2020:
“A ventral hernia large enough such that simple reduction in its contents and primary fascial closure either cannot be achieved without additional reconstructive techniques OR cannot be achieved without significant risk of complications due to the raised intra-abdominal pressure”

62
Q

What structures pass through the diaphragm?

A

Diaphragmatic Openings
Main 3
T8 – Vena cava foramen
In central tendon
Carries vena cava and right phrenic N
T10 – Oesophageal hiatus
2.5cm to the left of midline, in the fibres of the left crus
Fibres of right crus sling around
Carries oesophagus, vagal trunks, oesophageal branches of left gastric vessels
T12 – Aortic Hiatus
Behind median arcuate ligament
Carries aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct (from cisterna chyli)
Other structures passing through diaphragm (x8)

Other structures through diaphragm
Hemi azygos vein
Through left crus
Greater, lesser, least splanchnic nerves
Pierce the crus
Sympathetic trunks
Pass behind median arcuate ligament
(lateral to azygos and thoracic ducts)
Subcostal nerve and vessels (T12)
Behind lateral arcuate ligament
Left phrenic nerve
Pierces left muscular dome
Neurovascular bundles of T7-11 (lowest 5)
Pass between digitations of the diaphragm and transversus abdominus
Superior epigastric vessels
Between xiphisternum and costal fibres of diaphragm
Extra peritoneal lymph vessels
Pass directly through

63
Q

Describe course of phrenic nerves.

A

Phrenic Nerve
C3,4,5 cervical plexus
Mostly C4, 2/3 motor and 1/3 sensory
Travels in neck over anterior scalene
Across dome of pleura
Behind subclavian vein
In chest runs anterior to Vagus
In contact laterally with the mediastinal pleura throughout its whole course
Runs as lateral as possible towards the pleura
Runs anterior to the root of the lung
Right phrenic nerve
Medial aspect related to venous structures throughout course
R Brachiocephalic V, SVC, pericardium over R atrium, IVC
Then through vena cava foramen with IVC
Left phrenic nerve
Medial aspect related to arterial structures throughout its course
Left common carotid and left subclavian from aortic arch,
Crosses aortic arch
Lateral to superior intercostal vein
Anterior to front of Vagus nerve
Runs laterally over pericardium over left ventricle towards apex of heart

64
Q

Describe an anterior component seperation.

A

Primary goal is to facilitate fascial closure in the midline in patients with loss of abdominal domain.

Priniciple of anterior component separation is to isolate and divide the external oblique (EO) muscle.

Steps are as follows:
Generally performed as part of a retrorectus ventral hernia repair after hernia reduction and lysis of adhesions

  1. Create subcutaneous flaps
    - extend to anterior axillary lines laterally (lateral to the EO insertion)
    - avoid excessively large flaps (source of morbidity)
    2.. Incise EO aponeurosis
    -start 2cm lateral to the semilunar line and rectus sheath
    - extend from costal margin to the pubis.
    3.. Free the EO from the IO.
    - extend as far laterally as possible.

Generally reinforced with a retrorectus mesh placement.
Complete with closure of anterior rectus sheath in midline and close skin.

65
Q

Describe a posterior component seperation.

A

Primary goal is to facilitate fascial closure in the midline in patients with loss of abdominal domain.

Priniciple of posterior component separation is to separate the transversus abdominus muscle from the internal oblique (IO). It requries disruption of the neurovascualr bundle and renders the rectus abdominus muscle denervated.

Generally performed as part of a retrorectus ventral hernia repair after reduction of the hernia and lysis of adhesions.

Step 1.
Incise the posterior rectus sheath 1cm from medial edge of rectus muscle.
- this develops retrorectus plane
Step 2: Incise the ventral layer of posterior rectus sheath and enter plane between IO and TA.
Step 3:
Dissect out laterally the plane between IO and TA.

Then close posterior sheath in midline, place retrorectus mesh and close anterior rectus sheath and skin.

66
Q

What is difference between Posterior component separation and transversus abdominus resection (TAR) ?

A

Posterior component seperation essentially develops plane between IO and TA.

TAR similar first steps to posterior component separation but then incise the transversus abdominus muscle to develop the TA and transversalis fascia plane instead to avoid the neurovascular bundle disruption of a posterior component seperation.

67
Q

Why are cirrhotics at increased risk of developing umbilical hernias? (20-40% develop them)

A
  • increased intraabdominal pressure due to portal hypertension and ascites
  • recanalisation of umbilical vein
  • manutrition and subsequent sarcopenia
68
Q

What are the considerations in repair of umbilical hernias in patients with ascites?

A

Elective repair vs expectant mx - emergent surgery if then required significantly higher mortality.

Timing of elective repair debated.
- if transplant candidate then preferred to delay until transplant and repair hernia in same operation.
- consider elective repair after aggressive medical mx of ascites

Management of ascites
- sodium restriction
- diuresis
- paracentesis
- nutritional optimisation
- TIPS

Mesh use
- use in elective setting, lower recurrence rate, higher infection rate but mesh explantation not significantly higher rates.
- avoid in emergent setting as infection risk too high.

69
Q

How do you classify rectus sheath haematomas?

A

Type 1 - small doesnt cross midline

Type 2 - crosses midline along transversalis fascia plane

Type 3 - extensive and not confined. Usually below arcuate line and into Retzius space prevesical

70
Q

How are rectus sheath haematomas managed?

A

Stable and small - consider pausing anticoagulants temporarily

Unstable - manage anticoagulants and IR embolisation. Surgery if embolisation fails or skin necrosis.

71
Q

How are parastomal hernias repaired?

A

Takedown stoma where appropriate

If unable to options include repositioning and primarily closing defect or

Sugarbaker vs Key hole mesh repair

72
Q

Describe the anatomy of the renal hilum with mention of any differences left and right with respect to nearby relations.

A

Both kidneys from anterior to posterior go renal vein, artery, ureteric pelvis.

the right renal artery passes posterior to the IVC

the left renal vein passes anterior to the aorta

73
Q

Describe the course of the ureter.

A

Travel between renal pelvis and bladder and are about 20-30cm long.

Can be divided into abdominal ureter and pelvic ureter at pelvic brim.

Abdominal ureter descends long anterior edge of psoas muscle in close relationship with ipsilateral colon.

At pelvic brim crosses over the bifurcation of the common iliac vessels inot internal and external branches at level of L5.

Plevic ureter then descneds along the side wall of pelvis to enter the posterior baldder and drain into the trigone.

In females the ureters are crossed by the uterine artery (water under the bridge)

74
Q

What are indications for emergent management of urolithiasis? What approach would you take?

A
  1. Obstructing stone and UTI/sepsis
  2. Bilateral obstructions and AKI
  3. AKI and obstructing stone in solitary kidney.

Urgent decompression and subsequent semi-elective management of the stone as stone manipulation in sepsis risks worsening sepsis.

Decompression options surgical using ureteroscopy + stent placement vs interventional and nephrostomy placement.

75
Q

Describe techniques for ureteric repair if noticed intraoperatively.

A

Primary repair by ureteroureterostomy over a stent for proximal 2/3rd injury

Ureteroneocystostomy in distal 1/3rd i.e. reimplant into bladder.

Options to reduce tension;
- psoas hitch (bladder mobilised and sutured to psoas) - preferred
- transureteroureterostomy (implantation into contralateral ureter)
- Boari flap (use slip of bladder to tubularise and anastomose to ureteric end.
- ilieal interposition

76
Q

Patient has recurrent umbilical infections, fluid leakage and urinary infections. What is most likely diagnosis?

A

Urachal remnant due to maldescent/incomplete descent of the bladder. Can have patent urachus, urachal sinus, urachal cyst or urachal/bladder diverticulum. The question would suggest most likely a patent urachus as this is the only one that has bladder in continuity with umbilicus.

NB: does confer increased malignancy risk as adult.

77
Q

What is phimosis and paraphimosis? How are they treated?

A

Phimosis is inability to retract foreskin over glans penis. Physiologic in children usually self resolving by age 16 and no need for treatment. In adults treat with topical steroid or stretching/dilatation and dorsal slit if fails.

Paraphimosis is a surgical emergency whereby the retracted foreskin is trapped over the glans and can cause venous/lymphatic obstruction and strangulation leading to necrosis. This is treated with manual reduction and if fails a dorsal slit. An elective circumcision then considered to prevent recurrence.

78
Q

What is balanitis and how is it treated?

A

Inflammed glans penis. Can be acute or chronic. Most commonly treated with topical antifungals.