END OF PHASE TEST

Question 1

With the HSD extended, the AR Pod is capable of refueling at speeds from ____ (min) to ____ (max).

Answer 1

185 - 250

Question 2

Hose operation (deployment, retraction, and reel response test) should be commanded only in ____ flight, to reduce the risk of AR system malfunction.

Answer 2

straight and level

Question 3

The Contact Checklist is initiated ____ during LSD operations.

Answer 3

once the PF calls for Flaps

Question 4

During the Receiver AAR Precontact Checklist, set the IFF to STBY when within ____ NM of the Tanker.
Ref: TO 1C-130J(M)-1 p.2A-133

Answer 4

3

Question 5

If you are utilizing MANUAL BOOM LATCHING procedures, you have to advise the Tanker that all disconnects will have to be initiated from the ____.
Ref:

Answer 5

receiver.

Question 6

The 3” diameter aerial refueling manifold is rated at ____ psig operating pressure and connects the ____ manifold to the AR Pods.

Answer 6

120, cross-ship

Question 7

Concerning Aerial Refueling Tanker System Controls and Indicators, the ____ is used to translate analog signals to digital for status lights, etc. and to output the information to the MIL-STD-1553B bus when requested by the mission computers.
Ref: TO 1C-130(M)J-1 p.8-8

Answer 7

TECU

Question 8

Excessive precipitation (>50mm/hr rain rate) is depicted as \_\_\_\_ on the LPCR display when WX Mode is selected.
Ref: TO 1C-130(M)J-1 p.18B-34

Answer 8

magenta

Question 9

Windshear hazard is processed and displayed for up to ___ NM of range coverage +or- ___ degrees off the nose.
Ref:

Answer 9

10, 30

Question 10

The AN/ALE-47 countermeasures dispenser system requires a ___ sec warm-up.
During warm-up ____ dispensing is possible.
Ref: TO 1C-130(M)J-1 p.18C-2

Answer 10

5, no

Question 11

How many dispensers and sequencers mane up the AN/ALE-47 dispenser system?
Ref: TO 1C-130(M)J-1 p.18C-4

Answer 11

14 dispensers, 9 sequencers

Question 12

On the Defensive System Control Panel, the HANDOFF button allows for selecting one of these 3 audio states:
Ref: TO 1C-130(M)J-1 p.18C-7

Answer 12

1) OFF
2) FLOAT
3) LATCHED

Question 13

FLOAT Mode displays a ___.

Ref: TO 1C-130(M)J-1 p.18C-7

Answer 13

yellow or magenta diamond enhancement (corresponding with threat color attributes) around the highest priority threat symbol

Question 14

LATCHED Mode displays a ____.

Ref: TO 1C-130(M)J-1 p.18C-7

Answer 14

cyan (blue) diamond enhancement to the highest priority threat

Question 15

Concerning the MWS, in general, the ____ is used to select the power status and the configuration of different parts of the CMDS.

Answer 15

CNI-MU

Question 16

The 70% Flaps Vmos is defined as ____.

Answer 16

Vs + 5, power required to maintain powered flight.

Question 17

When flying an IPRA, whenever START is pressed during the approach, guidance cues are provided direct to the ____.

Answer 17

IAF

Question 18

During an airdrop, if either or both CARP XTK or CARP VERT conditions is/are true, the airplane will not automatically turn on the Green Light.
The crew must ____.

Answer 18

be prepared to manually turn the Green Light on.

Question 19

Limit conversation to that essential for crew-coordination and mission accomplishment during taxi, takeoff, approach, landing, and any flight below ____.
Ref: CONOPS Annex C p.66 para 5.19.3

Answer 19

3000A

Question 20

Any time wheel brakes are used on landing rollout greater than defined in the -1 as a “partial brake landing”, the PIC will ____.

Answer 20

ensure the Brake Cooling chart in the 1-1 are complies with

Question 21

The fuel recording portion of the Master Flight Plan my be discontinued at the discretion of the PIC when all of the following have been met ____.
Ref: CONOPS Annex C p.151 para 11.10.8.4

Answer 21

1) The ETP has been crossed (CAT I routes)
2) Fuel systems and quantity indicators are functioning normally.
3) There is obvious extra fuel and the +EXCESS fuel trend is favorable.

Question 22

During tactical missions, fuel should be checked every ____ min.

Answer 22

60

Question 23

The min operating equipment for an NVG SCA (AMP-4) is ____.

Ref: CONOPS Annex C p.201 para 17.6.

Answer 23

1 INS
1 RAD ALT
either the EO/IR or the APN-241 radar

Question 24

Start Climb Points will be computed during planning, annotated on all charts, and briefed during route study for all significant climbs when there is a ____ft/NM (single-ship)/____ft/NM (formation) or greater over ____NM or less.

Answer 24

1500/1000, 3

Question 25

MSA provides terrain clearance and limited threat avoidance during situations that require the interruption of low-level operations ____ft above the highest terrain or obstacle within ____NM of route centerline or the planned flight path (whichever is greater), and round up to the next 100- foot increment.
Ref: CONOPS Annex C p.205 para 17.9.3

Answer 25

500, 3

Question 26

True or False:

Lack of sufficient illumination may prevent NVG contour operations.

Answer 26

True (less than 10% requires additional ORM)

Question 27

Threat Penetration must be pre-planned and is restricted to flat/rolling terrain and coastal penetrations. Minimum TP altitude is ___.

Answer 27

100A

Question 28

If approved, IMC SCA weather minimums will be no lower than ____.
Ref:

Answer 28

200 & 1/2

Question 29

For SCA departure planning, if the terrain along this flight path rises at t greater rate than ____ft/NM, refer to the 1-1 to verify ____ climb gradient.

Answer 29

200, 3-engine

Question 30

Minimum enroute flight time from takeoff to CARP will be sufficient to safely accomplish all required checklists.
For Personnel airdrops, enroute time less than ____min must be approved by the Jumpmaster.

Answer 30

25

Question 31

With respect to HAAR, airspeeds less than ____KIAS may cause the paradrogue to become slightly less stable.

Answer 31

105

Question 32

During HAAR contacts, when hose slack and whip occur and are observed by the Tanker scanner or reported by the Receiver pilot, the Receiver will be instructed to ____.

Answer 32

go to the observation position.

Question 33

During HAAR, if electronic and visual contact are lost after the Tanker is within 3 NM of the Receiver, the Tanker will:

Answer 33

1) Immediately call “CONTACT LOST”
2) establish a minimum of 500’ separation (if able)
3) Turn 45 deg away from track hdg in the safest direction
4) After 30 sec, maneuver for another RV

Question 34

If adequate power is not available for the Receiver (ie loss of an engine or high density altitude), the RV may need to be changed to a ____ RV.

Answer 34

Receiver High

Question 35

Concerning HAAR communications for EMCON 3 and 4, ___ will be used to pass the BREAKAWAY signal.

Answer 35

light signals

flashing red or all covert pod status lights

Question 36

Concerning HAAR/TAAR refueling light signals, a single flash is ____sec in duration.

Answer 36

2

Question 37

During Receiver AAR, the Receiver will maintain ____KIAS until ____NM in-trail, then slow during closure to reach the Astern position at ____KIAS.

Answer 37

215, 1/2, 200

Question 38

Flight planning emphasis should be placed on the environment at least ____NM either side of the intended flight path.

Answer 38

3

Question 39

A Rule of Thumb for ridge-crossings is to never allow airspeed to fall below ____KIAS in mountainous terrain.

Answer 39

170

Question 40

Flight along the ____ of a ridgeline keeps your potential energy higher than a route along the valley floor and improves terrain masking.

Answer 40

military crest

Question 41

____ is the best climb method when distance traveled during a climb must be minimized. The best Angle of Climb is achieved using ____ speed.

Answer 41

Max climb angle, flaps up obstacle clearance speed (1.2Vs)

Question 42

HAAR MSA must provide at least ____ft / ____ft (mountainous) of clearance above all obstacles within ____NM of track.

Answer 42

1000/2000, 5

Question 43

Concerning CARP solutions, ____ altitude is to be flown when the altimeter setting is derived by inflight calibration.

Answer 43

True

Question 44

Airdrops of USAF Personnel and/or USAF Equipment from USAF aircraft on DZs that do NOT meet AF min size requirements must be waivered.

Answer 44

True