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1
Q

1(GENERAL).
Who accepts the final authority for accepting a waiver affecting the crew or mission?

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 2.7.5

A

C. Pilot in command

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2
Q

2(GENERAL).
Who is responsible for the overall employment of all air assets assigned to a multi-element formation?

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 2.8

A

B. Airborne Mission Commander

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3
Q

3(GENERAL).
The owning Maintenance Group (MXG)/CC
(or designated official), the senior maintenance officer,
or the chief of the AFMC repair team authorizes release, one time flights authorized in the MEL require either ___ or ___ approval.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 4.6.1

A

C. Either B or D

B. COMAFSOF
D. Operations Group CC

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4
Q

4(EP).
(T/F) If a landing gear system or position indicator malfunction is encountered, only a full stop landing will be made.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para 4.8

A

A. True

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5
Q

5(OPS LIMITS).
Oxygen on board for takeoff will be a minimum of ____ liters.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.21.2

A

D. minimum of 5 liters

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6
Q

6(GENERAL).
Simulated EPs are __________ with passengers on board unless such personnel are required for mission accomplishment.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 9.4.4

A

B. Prohibited (unless such personnel are required for msn accomplishment)

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7
Q

7(INST).
Prior to entering MNPS airspace, both _____ must be fully operational to meet the MNPS requirements of having two fully serviceable Long Range Navigation Systems.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 11.1.1.7

A

A. INSs

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8
Q

8(EP).
Prior to Refusal Speed (Vref), any crew member noting a safety of flight condition/malfunction will state _____ and give a brief description of the malfunction.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Table 6.1 NOTE 1

A

C. “Reject” (with a brief description)

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9
Q

9(EP).
(T/F) Fuel will not be jettisoned except in combat, emergency conditions, or rescue missions requiring gross weight reduction.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 5.27.3

A

A. True

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10
Q

10(GENERAL).
While overwater, life preserver units (LPUs) will be sized and available at the crewmember’s station,
and worn whenever below ____ except for _____.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 5.21.4

A

D. 2,000 feet overwater / (except for takeoff and landing)

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11
Q

11(INST).
Wind Factor and ETP data computations are required on Category I routes or Category I route segments when the total time between the LSAF and the FSAF is __ hours or more.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 12.8

A

A. 5 hrs or more

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12
Q

12(INST).
Suitable airfields are those normally within ___ NM of flight planned course centerline meeting weather, fuel, and C-130J runway requirements.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 12.8

A

C. 100 NM

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13
Q

13(LOW LEVEL).
If electronic charts are used, a ____ chart, prepared IAW chart requirements, must be immediately available for each crew member using electronic charts.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.7.6

A

A. backup paper chart

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14
Q

14(LOW LEVEL).
Aeronautical charts do not depict man-made obstacles less than ___ feet AGL or a change in terrain until it exceeds the chart contour interval.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.7.6

A

C. 200 feet AGL

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15
Q

15(LOW LEVEL).
Threat penetration (TP) must be pre-planned and is restricted to flat/rolling terrain and coastal penetrations. Limit the time at TP altitude to the duration needed to avoid/negate the threat.
Minimum TP altitude is ___ feet AGL.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.9.6.5

A

B. 100 feet AGL

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16
Q

16(AIRDROP).
When performing multiple equipment airdrops across the same DZ, _____ airdrop checklists will be accomplished.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.18.4.5

A

D. all airdrop checklists

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17
Q

17(AIRDROP).
When performing multiple personnel drops across the same DZ, checklists may resume at the __ min warning assuming no airdrop parameters or aircraft configuration changes are made from the previous drop.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.18.4.5

A

B. the 6 minute warning

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18
Q

18(AIRDROP).
Who is the approval authority for Jumpmaster Directed Airdrops?

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.18.1.8

A

C. Group/CC

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19
Q

19(AIRDROP).
Prior to the 1- or 2- minute warning, ___ when any condition exists that could jeopardize a safe drop.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.18.9.1

A

C. notify the PIC

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20
Q

20(AIRDROP).
After the 1- or 2- minute warning, any crewmember observing a condition that would jeopardize a safe drop will transmit “_____” on interphone.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.18.9.2

A

A. “no drop”

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21
Q

21(AIRDROP).
A “No drop” will be called if all checklists are not completed by the “_____” call.

Ref: TO 1C-130(M)J-1 2A-107 Ch: 2A

A

B. “10 second” call

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22
Q

22(AIRDROP).
During combination drops, if the computed release point will result in any jumper landing within _____ yds of any boundary of the DZ, ___________.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.18.13.2

A

D. 150 yards on and DZ boundry; inform the jumpmaster

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23
Q

23(AIRDROP).
When dropping a door bundle in conjunction with personnel, the _____ will be the first to exit.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.18.20

A

B. bundle

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24
Q

24(LOW LEVEL).
Emergency Safe Altitude is an altitude that will provide positive terrain clearance in IMC during situations that require the exiting of the low-level environment.
To compute ESA, add ____ feet (_____ feet in mountainous terrain) to the highest obstacle or terrain feature within __NM of route centerline or intended flight path (whichever is greater), rounded to the next 100-foot increment.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.9.2

A

D. 1,000 feet (2,000 feet in mountainous), within 10NM

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25
Q

25(LOW LEVEL).
Minimum Safe Altitude provides terrain clearance and limited threat avoidance during situations that require the interruption of low-level operation.
To compute MSA for each leg or leg segment, add ___ feet to the elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle within __ of route centerline or the planned flight path (whichever is greater), and round up to the next ___ foot increment.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.9.3

A

A. add 500 feet to highest terrain or obstacle,
within 3NM of centerline of flight path,
round up to the next 100 foot increment

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26
Q

26(LOW LEVEL).
Upon hearing “emergency climb”, the CSO will state______ or ______ (as appropriate),
monitor terrain, and call “_________” when above all critical terrain.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.2

A

C. MSA or ESA (as appropriate), “clear of terrain”

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27
Q

27(LOW LEVEL).
Set radar altimeter to no lower than __% below the planned en route altitude.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para 17.11.1

A

B. 20%

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28
Q

28(LOW LEVEL).
Set the radar altimeter no lower than ___ feet for threat penetration.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.11.1.1

A

A. 100 feet

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29
Q

29(SCA).
_____ is the approval authority for IMC SCA operations.

Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, 17.14.3.1

A

D. HQ MAJCOM/A3V

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30
Q

30(FORM).
During dissimilar formations ____ feet lateral separation is the minimum spacing for different MDS aircraft.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.19.8

A

B. 500 feet

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31
Q

31(HAAR/TAAR).
Minimum HAAR/TAAR altitude is ____ feet AGL.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.20.1

A

D. 500 feet

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32
Q

32(TOLD).
The minimum runway length for shortfield operation landings is ___ + ___ feet.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 6.22.3.4

A

A. ground roll + 500 feet

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33
Q

33(FARP).
(T/F) For FARP, the pilot, copilot, and CSO will remain on the flight deck in the event of an emergency taxi,
i.e. moving the aircraft.

NOT UPDATED
Ref: MC-130J Operations CONOPS, Annex C

A

A. True

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34
Q

34(FUEL).
In-flight fuel management is ______ on all missions. Monitor fuel status once per hour on all flights. Compute/record fuel status once per hour when route portions transit regions with no or unreliable NAVAIDs exceeding __ hours.

NOT UPDATED
Ref: MC-130J Operations CONOPS, Annex C Para: 11.12.7.1.3

A

A. Required / 3 hrs

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35
Q

36(FORM).
Upon entering marginal VMC or IMC, the following procedures apply:

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.19.11

A

E. All of the above.

A. Wing aircraft immediately initiates a climbing turn as required for its position in the formation and gives “(Call Sign)” then “IMC Break” three times over the primary interplane radio. The lead aircraft responds with call sign, heading, base altitude. Base altitude will be as follows: MSA, if position is within the MSA corridor; or ESA, if not.

B. All aircraft turn navigation lights to bright and turn transponder modes 1 and 3 to normal (if the threat environment allows).

C. Lead aircraft uses power as required and climbs straight ahead at a base airspeed of 220 KIAS until reaching base altitude or VMC conditions, whichever occurs first. Upon reaching this altitude, maintain base airspeed of 220 KIAS. If lead is unable to climb at 220 KIAS, the aircraft commander will establish a new base airspeed and inform the formation over interplane frequency.

D. The #2 aircraft immediately turns right 10 degrees or more (if feasible), sets power as required and climbs at base airspeed minus 20 KIAS to base altitude plus 500 feet or VMC conditions, whichever occurs first. After 30 seconds, resume original heading. Upon reaching altitude, accelerate to base airspeed.

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36
Q

37(TOLD).
Use of non-hard surfaced runways or taxiways require _____ (or deployed equivalent) approval.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 6.22.3.1

A

C. GP/CC (COMAFSOF for contingency operations)

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37
Q

38(FUEL).
(T/F) The primary concern with inoperative fuel boost pumps or quantity indicators is fuel balance and wing loading.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 4.7

A

A. True

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38
Q

39(FUEL).
All missions will plan to land with a minimum of ______ pounds calculated main tank fuel.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 4.7.1.5

A

B. Min = 4000 pounds main tank fuel

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39
Q

40(GENERAL).
(T/F) Any crew member seeing a deviation of 200 feet in altitude or 10 knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the PF.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 6.11.1.2

A

A. True

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40
Q

41(LZ).
(T/F) During NVG operations, on blacked out runways, a go-around point will be identified to all crew members prior to execution.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 6.22.3.6. & Table 6.8

A

A. True

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41
Q

42(GENERAL).
(T/F/) When conducting Drop Zone (DZ) / LZ operations, ONLY the CSO will verify CNI-MU CARP / LZ information with a valid DZ/LZ survey.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 5.8.2.

A

B. False

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42
Q

43(LOW LEVEL).
To conduct NVG/IMC low-level operations as lead or single-ship, the following equipment must be operational: (3 things)

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.1

A
  • Rad Alt
  • Radar (Map or MGM)
  • INS
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43
Q

44(LOW LEVEL).
To conduct DAY low-level operations as lead or single-ship, the following equipment must be operational: (2)

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.1

A
  • Rad Alt

- INS

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44
Q

45(SCA).
To conduct an NVG SCA, the following equipment must be operational: (2 things)

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.1

A
  • Rad Alt

- INS

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45
Q

46(SCA).
To conduct an NVG SCA at an AMP-4 airfield, the following equipment must be operational: (3 things)

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.1

A
  • Rad Alt
  • Radar or EO/IR
  • INS
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46
Q

47(SCA).
(T/F) To conduct an IMC SCA, the minimum equipment that must be operational is one RAD ALT AND either a minimum FOM of 2 on the EGI
OR
one INS and APN 241 radar.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.1

A

A. True

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47
Q

48(AIRDROP).
(T/F)Visual airdrops require TWO operative INS.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.1

A

B. False

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48
Q

49(AIRDROP).
(T/F) Mission computer directed airdrops require one EGI.
A FOM 4 or greater requires an update.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.1

A

A. True

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49
Q

50(LOW LEVEL).
Start climb points are determined to identify where along the planned route of flight a climb must
be initiated to maintain a specific NVG altitude profile in mountainous terrain.
These points are determined by working backwards from the NVG altitude along the planned route of flight using a ______ climb gradient.

Ref: MC-130J AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.7.6.1.2

A

D. preplanned

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50
Q

51(LOW LEVEL).
The minimum en route NVG Low-Level altitude is ______ feet AGL.
Squadron commanders may
restrict crews to ______ feet AGL in mountainous terrain.

Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.9.6.2

A

D. Min = 300 feet AGL,

Sq/CC discrection = 500 feet AGL in mountainous

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51
Q

52(LOW LEVEL).
(T/F) Day VMC low-level should be flown at 300 foot AGL contour.

Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.9.6.1

A

A. True

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52
Q

53(LOW LEVEL).
(T/F) Crews may fly low-level in IMC at MSA altitudes. During training, conduct planned IMC routes
under instrument flight rules (IFR) on a published or surveyed route unless FLIP or host nation rules
define other procedures.

Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.9.6.4

A

A. True

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53
Q

54(SCA).
You are planning on flying into an OCONUS airfield that does not have any instrument approaches and are likely to use the airfield as a staging base for the next 30 days.
You are thinking that creating and submitting an IMC SCA to HQ MAJCOM/A3V is your quickest and smartest avenue just in case for bad weather.
If the IMC SCA is approved, weather minimums will be no lower than ___ foot (ceiling) and ___ NM (vis).

Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.14.3.1

A

C. IMC SCA mins = 200 ft & 1/2.

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54
Q

55(SCA).
(T/F) To compute MDA for VMC SCAs, add 100 feet to the Touchdown Zone Elevation (TDZE).
For approved IMC SCAs, add 200 feet to the TDZE.

Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.14.4

A

A. True

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55
Q

56(SCA).
When constructing an SCA, significant obstacles are those within ____ feet of the desired glideslope.

Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.15.6

A

D. Significant Obstacles = within 300 feet

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56
Q

57(AIRDROP).
Airdrops may be conducted in ___ and ___.

Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.18.1.3

A

A. IMC and VMC

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57
Q

58(FORM).
(T/F) MINIMUM formation takeoff interval is 20 seconds.

Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.19.3

A

B. False

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58
Q

59(FORM).
Minimum spacing for reduced flap setting drops, i.e., CDS and CRS, is ____ feet between aircraft.
Min spacing for visual formation airdrop is ____ feet.
MCADS minimum spacing is ____ feet.

Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.19.6.1

A

Reduced flap setting = 6,000 feet spacing
Vis Airdrop = 2,000 feet spacing
MCADS = 500 feet spacing

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59
Q

60(LOW LEVEL).
(T/F) Pilots will comply with appropriate flight manual procedures upon receipt of a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)/TAWS/Enhanced GPWS (EGPWS)/Ground Collision Avoidance System (GCAS) warning.
During day/VMC flight, terrain warnings need not be followed if the pilot can verify the warning is false by visual contact with the terrain/obstacle.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 3.23.3.

A

A. True

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60
Q

61(GENERAL).
Crew rest is NOT required to preflight, load, start, and taxi aircraft.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 2.1

A

B. False

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61
Q

63(LOW LEVEL).
Do not operate aircraft over congested areas (cities, towns, settlements) or groups of people if the altitude does not ensure at least ____ feet above the highest obstacle within a ____ foot radius of the aircraft.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 6.2.3.3

A

D. Congested = 1000 feet above, 2000 foot radius

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62
Q

64(LOW LEVEL).
Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over non-congested areas at an altitude of less than ____ feet AGL, except over open water, in special use airspace, or sparsely populated areas.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 6.2.3.2

A

B. Non-congested = 500 feet AGL

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63
Q

65(LOW LEVEL).
Fly over national parks or monuments no lower than ____ feet AGL. (Assuming no special use airspace, LATN or MTR)

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 6.2.3.4

A

B. National Parks/Monuments = 2000 feet AGL

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64
Q

66(AIRDROP).
Any occupant, not trained IAW AFI 11-403, limits the time at cabin altitudes between 10,000MSL and 13,000MSL without supplemental oxygen to __ hours.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 3.14.2.1.4

A

C. 3 hours between 10,000-13,000MSL

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65
Q

67(AIRDROP).
Normally, aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft MSL.
For unpressurized operations, all persons will use supplemental oxygen while above ______ MSL.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 3.14.2.2

A

B. All pers on oxygen above 14,000MSL unpressurized

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66
Q

68(GENERAL).
(T/F) Aircrew will preflight NVDs prior to each use to ensure proper operation and optimum night visual enhancement.

Ref: AFI 11-202, AFSOC sup 2.9.5

A

A. True

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67
Q

69(INST).
What are the basic USAF VFR wx minimums for Class G airspace below 10,000 feet according to AFI 11- 202 V3?

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Table 6.1

A

C. 500’ below, 1000’ above, 2000’ horizontal, visibility 3 SM

*3-152

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68
Q

70(INST).
If filing VFR, the forecast weather for the planned route of flight conducted under VFR must be equal to or greater than ____ foot ceiling and ____ SM vis.
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 7.2.2

A

B. VFR = 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 SM vis

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69
Q

71(GENERAL).
For basic aircrew, the maximum flight duty period (FDP) is ___ hours.
No tactical training, HAAR/TAAR below 3,000 feet AGL, pilot proficiency training, or functional check flights (FCF) will be accomplished after ____ hours.
No AAR/HAAR/TAAR at or above 3,000 feet AGL will be accomplished after ___ hours.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 9.7.7 (added); Table 9.1

A

B. Basic FDP = 16 hours
Tac Below 3000 = 12 hours
Above 3000 = 14 hours

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70
Q

72(LOW LEVEL).
Mountainous terrain as defined by 14 CFR §95.11 and adopted by AFFSA is defined as:
500 ft surface elevation change over 1/2 NM.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: Attachment 1, Terms

A

A. True

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71
Q

73(LOW LEVEL).
Do not fly directly above (within 2,000 feet) thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds.
If unable to clear thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds by at least 2,000 feet vertically, avoid them by at least __ NM for tactical low-level operations.

Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.14.3.3

A

D. 5 NM

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72
Q

74(GENERAL).
Normally (*NORMALLY), aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds _____ MSL.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 3.14.1

A

D. 10,000 MSL

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73
Q

75(LOW LEVEL).
Except MAJCOM-approved aerial demonstrations/events or during takeoff or landing, do not operate
aircraft over congested areas or groups of people if the altitude does not ensure at least _____ above the highest obstacle within a _____ radius of the aircraft.

Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 5.14

A

B. Congested = 1,000 ft above, 2,000 foot radius

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74
Q

76(AIRDROP).
When using wind circles for inflight CARP computation, label the DZ depiction or acetate overlay with the constants used to construct the wind circles;
i.e., __(3)__, or size of constant wind circles used.

Ref: AFI 11-231, 31 Aug 2005 Para: 4.5.1.6

A

D. All of the above

A. type parachute
B. load weight
C. TTF

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75
Q

77(AIRDROP).
When surface winds are unknown (e.g., blind drops to unmanned DZs), the jumpmaster and army airborne mission commander (if designated) will be advised when drop altitude winds exceed ____ knots for personnel drops.

Ref: AFI 11-231, 31 Aug 2005 Para: 9.3

A

C. 30 knots at drop altitdue

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76
Q

78(AIRDROP).
(T/F) Aircrews will not make airdrops using parachutes for which AFI 11-231 does not list ballistics unless the user provides approved ballistic data or “K” factor.

Ref: AFI 11-231, 31 Aug 2005 Para: 9.4

A

A. True

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77
Q

79(AIRDROP).
Safety zone distance for airdrops supporting unconventional warfare forces is ____.
Ref: AFI 11-231, 31 Aug 2005 Para: 3.2.33

A

A. not required

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78
Q

80(AIRDROP).
Minimum usable drop zone time for all airdrops is ____.

Ref: AFI 11-231, 31 Aug 2005 Para: 3.2.34 NOTE, 4.2.3

A

C. 3 seconds

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79
Q

81(TOLD).
(T/F) An overrun is normally not considered part of the usable runway when establishing airfield markings.
Do not include overrun distances to calculate the available LZ length required for operations.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 3.5.11

A

A. True

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80
Q

82(GENRAL).
(T/F) DZ/LZ surveys become obsolete 5 years after the date of MAJCOM approval and must be resurveyed prior to use.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 3.14, 2.23

A

A. True

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81
Q

83(AIRDROPS).
The minimum DZ when dropping a single static line parachutist at 1,000 AGL and below is _____ yards wide by ______ yards long.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: Table 2.1

A

B. 600 yards wide x 600 yards long

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82
Q

84(AIRDROP).
When computing the minimum DZ size for personnel airdrops at 1,000 feet AGL and below, add ______ yards to the ____ for each additional parachutist when airdropping ST/Pararescue personnel.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: Table 2.1

A

A. 75 yards to the PI

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83
Q

85(AIRDROP).
The minimum DZ size (length, width) when airdropping Military Free Fall (MFF) parachutists is:

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.5.1.

A

D. None of the above

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84
Q

86(AIRDROP).
For water DZs, water depth must be a minimum of _____ feet and the area must be free of underwater obstructions to that depth.
There should be no protruding boulders, stumps, pilings, or other hazards within ____ meters of the center of the DZ.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.5.9.1 and 2.5.9.2.

A

B. Min depth = 10 feet

No hazards within 400 meters

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85
Q

87(AIRDROP).
During USAF MFF operations, aircrews should ensure the Jumpmaster/Team leader is aware when aerial power lines are within ________ meters of the intended PI.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.7.5.

A

D. power lines within 1,000 meters of the PI

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86
Q

88(AIRDROP).
(T/F) The surface wind at the DZ is normally measured using an anemometer or other calibrated wind- measuring device.
Wind direction is reported in magnetic degrees and wind speed in knots.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.8.1.

A

A. True

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87
Q

89(AIRDROP).
The surface wind limit for AF training bundles (SATB) airdrops is ______ knots.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: Table 2.3

A

C. SATB = 25 knots

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88
Q

90(AIRDROP).
During personnel drops, the surface wind limit for AF MFF and static line personnel water airdrops is ______ knots.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.4

A

A. PERS WATER = 25 knots

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89
Q

91(AIRDROP).
During personnel drops the surface wind limit for AF static line airdrops (land) is _______ knots.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: Table 2.4

A

B. SL LAND = 13 knots

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90
Q

92(AIRDROP).
(T/F) Drop clearance to a marked DZ is normally inherent with mission clearance and is confirmed by the aircrew observing the pre-briefed visual DZ markings. Unless radio communications are specifically required, any coordinated markings, other than red smoke, red flares, or red lights indicate a clearance to drop.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.12.1.

A

A. True

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91
Q

93(AIRDROP).
(T/F) When an off DZ airdrop has been confirmed or suspected, the aircrew involved will not attempt another drop for the remainder of the mission.
In the case of an off DZ drop involving injury or death to personnel, the mission will be terminated and the aircraft will land as soon as possible.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.21.1.

A

A. True

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92
Q

94(AIRDROP).
USAF aircrews require a DZ survey for training airdrop missions involving ______ personnel and/or equipment.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.22.1.

A

B. U.S.

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93
Q

95(GENERAL).
DZ/LZ surveys become obsolete ____ years after the date of MAJCOM approval and must be resurveyed prior to use.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.23, NOTE

A

C. 5 years

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94
Q

96(LZ).
During peacetime operations, the minimum LZ length required for maximum effort takeoff and landing operation is _________ feet.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: Table 3.1

A

A. Peacetime min LZ for max efforts = 3,000 feet

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95
Q

97(LZ).
A ______ foot underrun and overrun are required for all LZ operations.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 3.6.4.

A

A. 300 foot under- and overrun

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96
Q

99(LZ).
The box length when using the Box-and-One configuration for an AMP-3 LZ is _____ feet.

Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 3.6.4.3.

A

B. 500 feet for Box-and-One

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97
Q

100(HAAR).
During HAAR, tankers and receivers will begin monitoring designated radio frequencies and will have electronic RV equipment operating no less than ____ minutes prior to ARCT.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 Table 4-3

A

B. 10 min prior to ARCT

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98
Q

101(HAAR).
During HAAR rendezvous using Emission Option 2 procedures, receivers and tankers will exchange the following: (4 items).

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 Table 2O-1

A

B. call sign, altitude, Mode 3, altimeter setting

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99
Q

102(HAAR).
For On-Call (Unplanned) HAAR, crews will have ____ and ____ prior to join-up on any on-call track.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-18, para 3.15A

A

C. MSA and recommended refueling altitude

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100
Q

103(HAAR/TAAR).
(T/F) Tanker aircrews are responsible for maintaining terrain clearance on track and will recompute track heading and refueling altitude as the terrain and threat dictate.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-18, para: 3.15B

A

A. True

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101
Q

104(HAAR).
(T/F) HAAR contacts will not be conducted when radio communication capability between the tanker and receiver(s) is lost except during emergency fuel situation or contingency operations.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-39, para: CAUTION

A

A. True

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102
Q

105(HAAR).
Radio Silent HAAR may be conducted for tactical training and operational missions provided:(5 items)

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-41, para: 3.44

A

D. All of the above

A. The HAAR pre-rendezvous briefing requirements will be covered in the pre-mission briefing.
B. Radio equipment on both aircraft must be operative and crews on both aircraft must monitor the same frequency and GUARD
C. The rendezvous equipment and altimeter setting are all briefed prior to the mission.

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103
Q

106(TAAR).
Minimum visibility for a visual rendezvous is ___ NM. Minimum visibility for electronic rendezvous is ___ NM.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4-9, para: 4.5B

A

B. Vis = 3NM

Electronic = 1 NM

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104
Q

107(HAAR/TAAR).
For RV Delta (Head-On Offset), the tanker approaches the receiver(s) on the reciprocal of the track at RV altitude with a _____ to _____ NM lateral offset.
The optimum lateral offset is ____ NM.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4D-1, para: 4.D.2

A

B. Delta = 2-5 NM offest

3 NM is optimal

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105
Q

108(HAAR).
During HAAR within 3 NM of receiver prior to assuming formation lead, if visual contact is not established but electronic contact is maintained, the tanker will maintain current altitude and continue join-up.

At 1 NM electronic contact, if visual contact is not established, the tanker will:

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: Attachment 1, para: 3.29

A

B. Turn 45 degrees right of track heading;
lower flaps to air refueling configuration (as required); slow to refueling airspeed;
call “NO VISUAL CONTACT”;
after 30 sec, turn left and resume track heading

106
Q

109(HAAR).
During HAAR, after the tanker assumes formation lead, if the receiver calls “LOST VISUAL CONTACT,” the tanker will respond with:

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: Attachment 1, para: 3.29B

A

B. “EXECUTE” followed by base heading and MSA.

107
Q

110(HAAR).
The speed range for the low speed helicopter drogue is ______ to ______ KIAS.
(acceleration to 130 KIAS is allowed after engagement).

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 23 December 2015 page: 3-14, para: 3B.4.4

A

C. 105-120 KIAS

108
Q

111(TAAR).
The refueling airspeed range for the high speed drogue is ____ to ____.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 pag: 4-2, para: 4.2C

A

B. 185-215 KIAS

109
Q

112(HAAR).
For HAAR, during all wet transfers, if the search radar is not required for ___ or ___, place the radar function switch to ____ /____ and direct radar energy ahead of the airplane.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4-3, WARNING

A

D. navigation or weather avoidance, sector/standby

110
Q

113(AAR). NOT UPDATED
Optimum altitude and airspeed for AAR with a KC-135 or KC-10 is ____ KCAS at ____ feet MSL.

Ref: ATP-56(B), 22 Jan 10 Para: page: ZE-1ZE, Appdx 1, Fig Chap: Annex ZE

A

C. 200KIAS @ 8,000 feet MSL

111
Q

114(AAR).
For KC-135 AAR, with two pumps running, fuel transfer to the MC-130J should be planned at ____ PPM.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 23 December 2015 page: 8-2, para: Appendix 8A Table

A

C. 3800 PPM

112
Q

115(AAR).
For KC-10 AAR, with two pumps running, fuel transfer to the MC-130J should be planned at ___ PPM.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 23 December 2015 page: 8-5, para: Appendix 8A Table

A

B. 3000 PPM

113
Q

117(HAAR).
(T/F) The overt anti-collision lights may cause excessive glare during HAAR NVG join-ups.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-27, para: 3.26C

A

A. True

114
Q

118(HAAR).
If both visual and electronic contact are lost after your aircraft is within 3 NM of the receiver:

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: Attachment 1, para: 3.29A

A

A. Immediately call “ CONTACT LOST”,
establish a minimum 500 ft vertical separation (if able),
turn 45 degrees right of track heading,
after 30 seconds maneuver for another RV or proceed as briefed.

115
Q

119(HAAR).
For a RV Delta (head-on offset), trail distance may be as little as ____ NM.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3D-1, para: 3.D.3

A

B. 2 NM trail distance

116
Q

120(TAAR).
The replacement tanker will rendezvous with the cell at least ____ minutes prior to abort time.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4-18, para: 4.14C

A

D. 30 min prior to abort time

117
Q

121(HAAR).
(T/F) Unless an emergency fuel condition exists, receiver crews will not attempt probe to drogue contact in a turn at night. Once in contact, turns are permitted.

Before initiating a turn at night, the tanker pilot must confirm that the receiver is established in either the observation or refueling position.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-11, para: WARNING

A

A. True

118
Q

124(HAAR).
For EMCON 2-4 HAAR, simultaneous refueling operations, receivers will flash their formation/position lights __ seconds prior to movement for disconnect.

Failure to do so may result in simultaneous disconnects and possible mid-air collisions.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-27, para: 3.26C-2

A

C. 5 seconds

119
Q

125(HAAR/TAAR).
After join-up, the _______ or __________ (if available) will carry the strobe for the formation.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4-24, para: 4.26B-3

A

C. trailing receiver or spare tanker if available

120
Q

126(HAAR/TAAR).
Two amber light signals from the tanker to the receiver means what?

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4l-5, para: Table 4-5

A

B. Unable to pass fuel, proceed to spare tanker

121
Q

127(HAAR).
(T/F) During simultaneous or multi-ship air refueling, each receiver must be cleared by the tanker with a green light prior to moving from the observation position to contact.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4l-6, para: Table 4-6

A

A. True

122
Q

128(HAAR/TAAR).
Two white lights signal from the tanker to the receiver means what?

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4l-5, para: Table 4-5

A

C. Tanker directed crossover

123
Q

129(HAAR).
During HAAR with two or more receivers, if the tanker is ready to begin refueling operations:

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4-16, para: Table 4.11B

A

A. the receiver on the left side may be cleared for contacts prior to the second element crossing over to the right observation position.

124
Q

130(HAAR).
Fuel transfer rates for HAAR are normally___ - ___ PPM, however, they are dependent on the tanker configuration.
The specific National Annex should be consulted to determine the actual fuel transfer rate.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4-2, para: 4.2A

A

B. 500-1000 PPM

125
Q

131(HAAR/TAAR).
(T/F) During formation HAAR/TAAR, one flash given to the spare tanker indicates that the tanker giving the signal is UNABLE TO REFUEL.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4l-5, para: Table 4-5

A

B. False

126
Q

132(HAAR).
During HAAR, at the ARCP, the receivers will be no more than____ minute early to on-time and tankers will be on-time to no more than____ minute late.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4-10, para: Table 4-6C

A

A. Receivers = 1 min early to on-time

Tankers = on-time to 1 min late

127
Q

133(HAAR).
Prior to the tanker assuming formation lead, if the tanker is within 1 NM of the receiver(s) and loses visual contact, it will immediately:

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4-28, para: Table 4-6C

A

A. Establish a min of 500 ft vertical seperation (if able), turn 45 degrees right of track heading,
after 30 sec maneuver for another RV or proceed as briefed

128
Q

134(HAAR/TAAR/AAR).
The planned geographic point over which the receiver(s) arrive in the observation/astern position with respect to the assigned tanker is defined as the:

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 1A-4, para: Annex 1A

A

B. AR Control Point (ARCP)

129
Q

135(AAR).
During AAR strategic tanker(s) and heavy receiver(s) should communicate as soon as possible (in no case later than ____ prior to RVCT to update ETAs)

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 23 December 2015 page: 8-14, para: 8E.1.3.2.7

A

B. AAR = 15 minutes prior to the RVCT.

130
Q

136(AAR).
During AAR, if an overrun is detected, the receiver:

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 2-4, para: 2.4

A

D. all of the above.

A. ensure positive vertical seperation of at least 1000 ft below the tanker(s).
B. decelerate, maintain AAR heading and assigned altitude.
C. call “Callsign, Execute Overrun.”

131
Q

137(AAR).
______ will be used as the standard rendezvous and air refueling (comm) procedures.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 23 December 2015 page: 7-11, para: 7.9

A

B. Emission Option 2

132
Q

138(AAR).
A receiver call to “Toboggan” is a request for the tanker to:

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 1A-16, para: Annex 1A

A

A. Start a slow descent maintaining air refueling airspeed. The rate of descent is between 300 and 500 ft per min and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise.

133
Q

139(HAAR/TAAR).
An operational ______________ is the minimum electronic equipment required to complete an electronic rendezvous.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-7, para: 3.5B

A

A. Equipment with the ability to determine receiver range (e.g. A/A TACAN).

134
Q

140(HAAR).
All other factors being compatible, normal HAAR airspeed will be ____ to ____ KIAS.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-1, para: 3.2

A

C. 110-115 KIAS

135
Q

141(HAAR).
Receivers will use the brevity code word “TEXACO” to request an on-call HAAR.
Tanker aircrews, after examining the terrain on track will compute and relay ____________, __________ and ____________ to receivers.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-18, para: 3.15A

A

A. Compute and relay: refueling altitude, MSA and time status

136
Q

142(HAAR).
(T/F) EMCON 3 (comm out) HAAR may NOT be conducted for tactical training.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-31, para: 3.44

A

B. False

137
Q

143(HAAR).
While performing simultaneous air refueling, receivers will flash formation/position lights __ seconds prior to movement for disconnect to preclude simultaneous disconnects and midair collisions.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3l-5, para: Table 3l-4

A

A. Five (5) seconds

138
Q

144(HAAR).
During HAAR, the tanker flashes the receiver one amber light. This is a signal for the receiver to (multiple colour):

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3l-4, para: Table 3l-4

A

B. Prepare to turn

139
Q

145(HAAR).
While conducting HAAR, the receiver flashes the tanker multiple white signals. This is a signal for the tanker to:

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3l-5, para: Table 3l-4

A

A. Pass the receiver additional fuel

140
Q

146(HAAR).
During HAAR, the light signal for “BREAKAWAY” is (multiple colour):

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3l-4, para: Table 3l-4

A

B. Tanker flashes multiple red lights and/or all pod status lights flashing

141
Q

147(HAAR).
(T/F) Once a receiver has crossed over, an additional green flash is required before contact on the new side.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3l-5, para: Table 3l-4

A

A. True

142
Q

148(HAAR). NOT UPDATED
If during HAAR the receiver calls “LOST VISUAL CONTACT”, the tanker will respond with “Execute” followed by ___________ and ___________.

Ref: ATP-56(B), 22 Jan 10 Para: part 3 Ch 4. 405 b (1) (a) (ii)

A

A. base heading, MSA

143
Q

149(HAAR/TAAR). NOT UPDATED
During LOST VISUAL CONTACT maneuvers, in mountainous terrain, the tanker aircraft will respond with “EXECUTE, BASE HEADING XXX, MSA XXXX’ “.
The tanker will _____ and ______.

Ref: ATP-56(B), 22 Jan 10 Para: part 3 Ch 4. 405 b (2) (a) (ii)

A

C. Accelerate to cruise airspeed and climb to MSA.

144
Q

150(HAAR). NOT UPDATED
If visual and electronic contact is lost within ___ NM of the receiver during rendezvous, the tanker will immediately call “CONTACT LOST”, establish a minimum 500 ft vertical separation (if able or conditions permit), and turn 45 degrees right of the track heading,
after _____ seconds, maneuver for another rendezvous or proceed as briefed.

Ref: ATP-56(B), 22 Jan 10 Para: part 3 Ch 4 405 a.

A

D. 3 NM, 30 seconds

145
Q

151(HAAR).
Before initiating a turn at night during HAAR, the tanker pilot must confirm the receiver is established in ________ or __________.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2November 2013 page: 3-11, para: WARNING

A

D. Either B or C

B. in observation position
C. in refueling position

146
Q

152(HAAR/TAAR).
Fuel will continue to flow as long as the receiver maintains the hose extension between ______ and _____ feet (assuming normal operations and the tanker system is set to start pumping fuel automatically).

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 23 December 2015 page: 7-2, para: 7.5.3

A

B. 20-80 ft

147
Q

153(HAAR/TAAR).
(T/F) The response reset switch must never be actuated with the receiver engaged, as this should cause loss of all response capability.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2November 2013 page: 3-13, para: WARNING

A

A. True

148
Q

154(HAAR/TAAR).
______ aircrews are responsible for maintaining terrain clearance on track and will recompute track heading and refuelling altitude as the terrain or threat dictate.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2November 2013 page: 3-18, para: 3.15B

A

A. Tanker aircrews

149
Q

155(HAAR).
Tankers should limit bank angle to 30 degrees in the air refueling configuration to prevent tanker stall.
However, if terrain or weather is not a factor, bank angle should be limited to ____ degrees.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 23 December 2015 page: 7-12, para: WARNING

A

C. 15 degrees of bank if terrain or weather is not a factor

150
Q

156(HAAR).
The drogue may become slightly less stable at refueling speeds below _____ knots; however,
satisfactory refueling operations can be conducted between MOS and 130 knots.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 23 December 2015 page: 7-6, para: NOTE

A

B. 105 knots

151
Q

157(HAAR).
(T/F) Due to distraction and the difficulty of maintaining lateral separation, two receivers will not disconnect or fly in the astern position simultaneously.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 3-15, para: WARNING

A

A. True

152
Q

158(HAAR/TAAR).
When calling a breakaway over the radio (interphone or refueling frequency), the proper terminology is:

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 3-37, para: 3.32

A

A. “Tanker Call sign and (hose assignment pertaining to the receiver required to breakaway), Breakaway, Breakaway, Breakaway”

153
Q

159(HAAR).
During a “Breakaway” call during HAAR, the tanker will turn on the lower anti-collision light (if refuelling un-aided).

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 3-37, para: 3.32

A

A. True

154
Q

160(HAAR/TAAR).
(T/F) A small amount of fuel spray from the nozzle and receptacle during fuel transfer REQUIRES immediate termination of air refueling operations due to the possibility of fire.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 3-37, para: 3.31C

A

B. False

155
Q

161(HAAR).
During reduced receiver flight performance (HAAR),
the tanker will: (3 things)

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 3-37, para: 3.33

A

D. All of the above

A. perform a receiver high RV.
B. Execute the join-up to place the receiver on the side of the tanker with the intended refueling hose.
C. establish refueling airspeed and set refueling hoses prior to reaching the receivers abeam position.

156
Q

162(HAAR).
During reduced receiver flight performance (HAAR), refueling airspeed will be:

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 3-38, para: 3.33C

A

D. the higher of A or B

A. the tanker minimum speed (MOS)
B. the receiver airspeed

157
Q

163(HAAR/TAAR).
Where receiver National Limitations permit, aircraft with a basic airborne intercept radar (i.e., target search available but lock capability not available) may climb to ______ ft below base AAR altitude, maintain this level and close to ______ NM.

NO REF

A

A. 500 below base and close to 1/2 NM

158
Q

164(AAR).
(T/F) For an RV Delta procedure, the receiver will be established at 1000 ft below the assigned base
AAR altitude when departing the RVCP.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 2D-5, para: ANNEX 2D

A

B. False

*RVIP

159
Q

165(HAAR).
Rendezvous Altitude is defined as:

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 3-9, para: 3.6

A

A. It is based on AAR altitude and should be 500 ft above or below AAR altitude depending on the type of join-up.

160
Q

166(AAR). NOT UPDATED
AAR rendezvous closure will not be continued inside _____ NM range or _____ feet altitude separation unless visual contact is established with the tanker.

Ref: ATP-56(B), 22 Jan 10

A

B. 1 NM range or 1,000 altitude separation unless visual

161
Q

168(AAR).
For a RV Golf procedure, the tankers and receiver(s) navigate independently to arrive at the RVIP at:

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 2G-1, para: 2.G.2A

A

B. a designated RVCT

162
Q

169(AAR).
Boom nozzle position during AAR procedures shall be monitored closely prior to contact and following disconnect as receptacle to propeller line distance is only ____ feet.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 8-43, para: CAUTION

A

B. 15.5 feet

163
Q

170(GENERAL).
(T/F) The subtle inaccuracies of unverified survey points and chart printing combined with position round off errors and physical over flight limitations can easily introduce navigation errors of 500 yards or more (in regards to manual position update).
Even an unkeyed GPS receiver used for position updates is generally more accurate than a crew-entered update.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4; Pg 9-97

A

A. True

164
Q

171(AIRDROP).
There can be up to ____ separate airdrops (CARPS) in each flight plan route, with each one having the capability to run multiple passes over the drop zone.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4; Pg 12-54

A

B. 10 CARPS

165
Q

172(SCA).
(T/F) When inputting IPRA parameters, runway alignment should be referenced to true north.
A runway alignment referenced to magnetic or grid north may prevent optimum DA/FD performance.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Pg 11-71

A

A. True

166
Q

173(AIRDROP).
When the airplane is between the TP and DZ ESC waypoints, the CNI-MS switches to a sensitive steering mode (approach gains) and reports the crosstrack error in ______ instead of miles.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Pg 12-61

A

C. Yards

167
Q

174(SCA).
When building an IPRA, the IAF should be located so that the course change from the IAF to the IF is less than _____ degrees (____ degrees or less is recommended).

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, pg 11-71

A

D. 120 degress max, 60 degrees or less is recommended

168
Q

175(OPS LIMITS).
Max recommended gross weight for max effort landings is:

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 1-2

A

B. 142,000 lbs

169
Q

176(OPS LIMITS).
(T/F) Maximum main tank limit, with AR pods, is 28,000lbs.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 1-3

A

A. True

170
Q

177(TAAR).
High-speed drogue extension/retraction/AR operation (speeds):

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 1-8

A

B. 185-250 KIAS

171
Q

178(GENERAL).
During RWR operation, an anomaly generates a false blanking signal if the LPCR is OFF.
When the false signal is generated, the RWR ignores emitter signals that it should indentify.
When threat conditions dictate limiting airplane emissions, ensure the LPCR is in____mode and not transmitting.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-77

A

C. Standby

172
Q

179(OPS LIMITS).
Do not fire the LTM at areas where people or animals are present within ____ ft

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2D-81

A

B. 1,000 feet

173
Q

180(GENERAL).
(T/F) To prevent blindness to personnel near the airplane, ensure that the LTM is not selected or armed.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2D-81

A

A. True

174
Q

181(GENERAL).
(T/F) During tactical operations, the Infiltration/Exfiltration checklist takes the place of the normal Approach, Before and After Landing, Before Takeoff, Lineup, and After Takeoff Checklists.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-80

A

A. True

175
Q

182(GENERAL).
If the mission is terminating, the Combat Exit, After Landing and Engine shutdown checklists ___ be accomplished sequentially after the full stop landing.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-84

A

C. will

176
Q

183(OPS LIMITS).
In the event of an overheat indication, all EO-IR circuitry will continue to operate until failure.
If the failure is caused by an overhead condition, shutting down the EO-IR for____ minutes or more may correct the condition.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2D-86

A

C. shutdown for 10 minutes to cool EO-IR

177
Q

185(GENERAL).
A cabin altitude check will be accomplished at a cabin altitude of ____ feet MSL and _____ feet MSL:

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Pg 2A-104

A

E. A and C

A. 10,000 feet MSL
C. 15,000 feet MSL

178
Q

186(AIRDROP).
From the “________” advisory call, parachutist will be mobile/standing in the cargo compartment.
Unless situation dictates otherwise (e.g., combat), avoid abrupt maneuvering of the airplane to reduce the injury potential to personnel in the cargo compartment.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-105

A

B. “6 minutes” advisory

179
Q

187(AIRDROP).
(T/F) Do not set the COMPUTER DROP switch out of the AUTO position until the CNI scratch pad is manually cleared of all messages and erroneous GREEN LIGHT indications are confirmed not to have occurred on the CNI, HUD, or HDDs.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 2A-107

A

B. False

180
Q

188(AIRDROP).
When notified of an airdrop malfunction, the PM will:

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Para: pg 2A-109

A

E. A and B

A. Computer drop switch to MAN
B. Activate the red light

181
Q

189(AIRDROP).
(T/F) If a parachutist is towed after exit from a paratroop door, avoid turning the airplane away from the towed parachutist as this often causes parachutist to SWING VIOLENTLY and increase the possibility of injury.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Para: pg 2A-109

A

B. False

182
Q

190(AIRDROP).
Although 100 percent flaps selection provides an improved airflow for a towed parachutist, under certain conditions the gear down, 100 percent flaps configuration may reduce airplane performance.
The AC should consider:

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 pg 2A-109

A

D. All of the above

A. Density altitude
B. Airplane Weight
C. Position in formation

183
Q

191(AIRDROP). NOT UPDATED
The CDS flap setting provides an approximate __ - __ degrees nose high attitude.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1

A

C. 6 to 8 degrees

184
Q

192(AIRDROP). NOT UPDATED
(T/F) If necessary, flaps setting may be adjusted to achieve correct attitude.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1

A

A. True

185
Q

193(AIRDROP).
(T/F) The PF will monitor and ensure that the ramp and door OPEN light on the ADS panel remains illuminated for the entire drop.
Failure of the light to illuminate or remain illuminated is considered a NO DROP condition.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-106

A

B. False

186
Q

194(AIRDROP).
(T/F) If all checklists are not completed by the CSO’s “10 seconds” call, the crew will call a “no drop” and follow the appropriate procedures.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-107

A

A. True

187
Q

195(AIRDROP).
(T/F) With multiple 28-foot extraction parachutes deployed outside the airplane, maximum thrust may be needed to stay aloft or to control the descent. The drag produced by the extraction parachutes should decrease if airspeed is allowed to bleed off. This reduction in drag could permit level flight or reduce the rate of descent should level flight not be possible. REDUCE power to achieve this airspeed change and do not slow below VS carat +20.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-109

A

B. False

188
Q

196(HAAR/TAAR/AAR). Do not transmit on ____ during Air Refueling operations due to the risk of static discharge. This restriction to the use of ____ shall be adhered to at any time a receiver is in contact or attempting to contact the drogue.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-115

A

C. HF, HF

189
Q

197(HAAR/TAAR).
During aerial refueling any fuel delivered to the AR pods at pressures greater than ____ PSI from the pod fuel pumps will flow back into the respective outboard fuel tank through the AR pod venture-pressure reducer vent line.
It is possible to exceed the maximum allowable fuel weights listed in Section 1.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-116

A

C. 50 PSI

190
Q

198(HAAR/TAAR).
Perform a reset each time the tanker airplane stabilized airspeed changes more than ____ KCAS.
This must be done prior to granting receiver clearance to engage the hose.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-116

A

B. 10 KCAS

191
Q

199(TAAR/HAAR).
Minimum airspeed for the reel response test should be ____ KCAS for the high-speed drogue and ____ KCAS for the low-speed drogue (maximum for the low-speed drogue).

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 2A-118

A

D. 200 KCAS (HSD), 120 KCAS (LSD)

192
Q

200(HAAR/TAAR).
(T/F) Do not allow the hose to rewind completely into the pod using the R/L-TEST LSK

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 2A-118

A

A. True

193
Q

201(HAAR/TAAR).
If a Drogue/Hose is damaged, failure to immediately place the CNI-MU POD CTRL page 1/2______ to OFF may result in AR pod/wing fire and/or damage to the refueling pod.
The remaining hose will rapidly rewind completely into the pod and not stop, since the drogue stops will not be actuated, causing the hose to whip around in the pod until power is removed from the drum/system.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 pg 2A-121

A

A. MASTER POWER LSK

194
Q

202(HAAR/TAAR).
(T/F) In the event of an AR Pod Fire, refer to Wing Fire emergency procedures.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-122

A

A. True

195
Q

203(HAAR/TAAR).
(T/F) Once the GUILLOTINE switch is placed to CUT, do not move switch back to normal/OFF until maintenance has been performed on the reel.
The pod remains ENABLED until the GUILLOTINE switch is placed back to normal/OFF.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-125

A

B. False

196
Q

204(HAAR/TAAR).
(T/F) Use of an AR pod or hose when a fuel leak is observed may result in a broken hose and/or an AR pod/wing fire.
Any time fuel is observed originating from an AR pod: (3)

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-127

A

D. All of the above

A. Discontinue use
B. Report discrepancy
C. Ensure that no further refueling from the affected pod occurs

197
Q

205(AAR).
(T/F) The location of the FLCVs in the outboard main tanks allow these tanks to be overfilled in flight if AR pods are installed.
To avoid overfilling tanks 1 and 4 in flight, use the preset fuel quantity function.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-133

A

A. True

198
Q

206(FUEL).
(T/F) In-flight, when transferring fuel into a main fuel tank with an inoperative boost pump and the fuel tank is near full capacity, movement of the airplane could result in fuel siphoning through the fuel vent system.
Should this occur, stop the fuel transfer and lower the level in that tank to where the fuel venting stops.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-135

A

A. True

199
Q

207(AAR).
(T/F) To eliminate the potential fire hazards, the radar will NOT be turned off during Air to Air Refueling.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-135

A

B. False

200
Q

208(AAR).
(T/F) Ensure the CMDS is de-armed prior to Air to Air Refueling operations.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 pg 2A-136, non 525 mod

A

A. True

201
Q

209(AAR).
Ensure the CNI-MU is de-armed prior to Air to Air Refueling operations.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 2C-93, non 525 mod

A

B. False

202
Q

210(AAR).
(T/F) The Underfloor heat switch may be turned back on during ANY phase of the Post Air Refueling checklist.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-138

A

B. False

203
Q

211(AAR).
During a controlled tension brute force disconnect,
the receiver pilot will maintain contact altitude and ____ reduce power to establish a positive separation rate.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1,pg 2A-144

A

C. Gradually

204
Q

212(AAR).
(T/F) The pilot will ensure that the copilot has closed the nacelle shutoff valves prior to placing the aircraft in a nose-up attitude and prior to clearing the loadmaster to open the cargo ramp.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 2A-145

A

A. True

205
Q

213(HAAR/TAAR).
Extend or retract the low-speed drogue at a maximum speed of ____KIAS, and the high-speed drogue at a maximum of ____KIAS.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 8-4

A

C. LSD max = 120 KIAS

HSD max = 250 KIAS

206
Q

214(HAAR/TAAR).
(T/F) The aerial refueling pod fuel flow rate is regulated to > 50 PSIG.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 8-5

A

B. False

*=

207
Q

215(HAAR/TAAR).
The red pod status light is energized whenever the hydraulic pressure switch detects a pressure of ____ PSI or less. Power for the light is only supplied when the pod MASTER POWER LSK is ___.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 8-6

A

C. Red Pod Status = 1,700 PSI / MASTER POWER - ON

208
Q

216(HAAR/TAAR).
(T/F) Duplicate controls between the CNI-MU REFUEL CONTROL page and the REFUEL CONTROL panels follow the last input override rule.
The last control initiated determines the state of the system.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 8-9

A

A. True

209
Q

217(HAAR).
(T/F) Pylon chaff dispenser (if installed) will be disabled when flaps are set greater than 15%.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 12-5

A

A. True

210
Q

218(GENERAL).
In BIU backup mode operations, assume defensive systems are ____ and review the mission profile.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18-18

A

B. Non-functional

211
Q

219(LOW LEVEL).
TAWS video display color Medium Density Yellow indicates a terrain separation of:

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18B-15

A

C. Between 500 feet (250 feet with gear down) below and 1,000 feet above current altitude

212
Q

220(RADAR).
The skin paint (SP) display is an offset radar presentation shown in monochrome.
SP is available in range scales up to ____ NM in all sector sizes up to+/- ___ degrees and expands on the FULL channel.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18B-15

A

B. SP: 20 NM, +/- 60 degrees

213
Q

221(GENERAL).
(T/F) When recording video with the MRPS, AUDIO selected at the Pilot station will be recorded.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18B-61

A

B. False

214
Q

222(DEF SYS).
The AN/ALE-47 countermeasures dispenser system requires a ______ second warm-up.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18C-2

A

B. 5 second warm-up

215
Q

223(DEF SYS). NOT UPDATED
(T/F) CMDS STBY may be overridden by utilizing the jettison function.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1

A

A. True

216
Q

224(DEF SYS).
____ mode ensures CMDS dispensing in the event of a major failure which disables the programmer.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18C-2

A

C. BYP mode

217
Q

225(DEF SYS).
(T/F) The defensive systems cannot be zeroized when the airplane is on battery power only.
To zeroize the defensive systems equipment, AC power must be available.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18C-3

A

A. True

218
Q

226(DEF SYS).
The RWR components are ___ __/__ band antennas,
one C/D band antenna, four DF receivers,
one C/D band receiver/power supply,
one analysis processor, one superheterodyne receiver, and one superheterodyne receiver controller

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18C-7

A

C. Four E/J band antennas

219
Q

227(DEF SYS).
When RWR and TCAS overlays are displayed simultaneously on a single NAV-radar display, the system gives ___ information higher priority.
This prioritization leads to delays of over ____ seconds in the update of TCAS symbol color and shape.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18C-8

A

A. RWR higher priority, 8 second TCAS delays

220
Q

228(DEF SYS).
During RWR operation, an anomaly generates a false blanking signal if the LPCR is OFF.
When threat conditions dictate limiting emissions, ensure the LPCR is in ____ mode and _____.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18C-8

A

C. Standby mode, not transmitting

221
Q

229(DEF SYS).
(T/F) The MASTER switch is a two position (OPR, STBY) lever-lock switch.
In the STBY position, all components of the defensive system are inhibited from radiating or ejecting.
This allows all defensive systems to be safetied by a single switch.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18C-9

A

A. True

222
Q

230(DEF SYS).
(T/F) For a correlated launch, a TRIANGLE shaped outline is displayed at the end of the azimuth line.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18D-24

A

B. False

223
Q

231(DEF SYS).
(T/F) For an uncorrelated launch, a barbed circle (a circle with four lines, one at each corner) shaped outline is displayed at the end of the azimuth line.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18D-24

A

A. True

224
Q

232(DEF SYS).
T/F) The UNcorrelated launch takes priority over the correlated launch.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18D-24

A

B. False

225
Q

233(DEF SYS).
The AN/AAR-47 cue is a ____ outline symbol displayed at the end of a short line (shorter than the line of the AN/ALR-56M cue) extending from the waterline symbol to represent the quadrant of the threat.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18D-24

A

C. Triangle

226
Q

234(FUEL).
A dump system is provided to dump all fuel overboard except approximately _______ pounds in each main tank, 0 pounds in each auxiliary tank, and 0 pounds in each external tank (if installed).

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 3-39

A

B. except 1520 pounds in each main tank

227
Q

235(FUEL).
(T/F) The crossfeed valves must be closed to prevent all of the fuel in the main tanks from being dumped overboard.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 3-39

A

A. True

228
Q

236(HAAR/TAAR).
The green light operates in parallel with the GRN pod status indicator on the CNI-MU POD CTRL pages.
The green light illuminates when fuel flow reaches ____ GPM.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 8-7

A

B. Green Pod Status = 50 GPM

229
Q

237(HAAR/TAAR).
To avoid possible loss or damage to receiver airplanes, do not select _____ while the receiver airplane is in contact with or close to a partially trailed hose.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 2A-116

A

C. Reset

230
Q

238(HAAR/TAAR).
During aerial refueling any fuel delivered to the AR pods at pressures greater than 50 PSI from the pod fuel pumps will flow back into the respective outboard fuel tank through the AR pod venturi-pressure reducer vent line.
It is possible to exceed the maximum allowable _______ listed in Section 1.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 2A-116

A

A. Fuel Weights

231
Q

239(FUEL).
Transferring fuel during taxi or in flight into a nearly full main tank when its ________ is not operating is prohibited because it can result in rapid and continuous venting of fuel.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 5-14

A

A. Boost Pump

232
Q

240(FUEL).
(T/F) The value displayed on the total quantity indicator does not include the fuel quantity for tanks that have a failed indicating system.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 8-17

A

A. True

233
Q

241(GENERAL).
On the AN/ARC-231, the default sound level on initial power up is 23, which can/will damage the ICS system if not lowered prior to transmitting/receiving.
The sound level preset should be changed to __/__ before transmitting so as not to damage ICS system.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 2D-40

A

C. 11/12

234
Q

242(TOLD).
When computing an acceleration time check,
______ percent of a tailwind component will be used.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1

A

A. 100% of tailwind for accel time check

235
Q

243(TOLD).
Brake energy limit speed is defined as the maximum speed at which maximum anti-skid braking can be applied without exceeding the energy absorption limit of the brake system.
It is calculated using _________.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 3-14

A

B. Two engines in reverse

236
Q

244(TOLD).
Adjusted maximum effort rotation speed is scheduled to ensure that liftoff speed is greater than the ____________ and the three engine minimum liftoff speed.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 3-16

A

A. air minimum control speed (Vmca)

*Vamaxrot > Vmlo3 > Vmca

237
Q

245(TOLD).
Minimum Field Length for Maximum Effort Take-Off is defined as that length of runway which is required to accelerate to decision (refusal) speed, experience an engine failure, and stop or

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 3-26

A

B. continue acceleration to maximum effort takeoff speed (1.05MU4, 4-engine minimum unstuck speed) in the remaining runway.

238
Q

246(TOLD).
(T/F) If an engine failure occurs after rotation speed, do not attempt a maximum effort liftoff.
Reduce pitch attitude and increase airspeed as much as possible, obtaining air minimum control speed if possible, before a liftoff is attempted.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 3-26

A

A. True

239
Q

247(TOLD).
(T/F) If an engine failure occurs immediately after rotation speed, immediate action is required to lower the nose to control airspeed.
If below Vmca, the opposite outboard power lever may have to be reduced below the ATCS scheduled HP.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 3-26

A

A. True

240
Q

248(TOLD).
If an engine failure occurs after rotation speed, do not attempt a maximum effort liftoff.
Reduce pitch attitude and increase airspeed as much as possible, obtaining __________ if possible, before a liftoff is attempted.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 3-26

A

C. air minimum control speed (Vmca)

241
Q

249(TOLD).
If an engine failure occurs after AMAX refusal speed, then accelerate to ______ speed and rotate toward the target pitch attitude.
Once airborne, adjust pitch attitude to accelerate to obstacle clearance speed while maintaining a climb.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1,

A

C. Rotation

242
Q

250(TOLD).
The 4-engine maximum effort climb-out flight path is based on 4-engine acceleration to lift off at the maximum effort takeoff speed and acceleration to the ______________ speed at or prior to the 50 foot obstacle height.
Landing gear retraction is initiated ____ seconds after lift off.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 3-29

A

A. maximum effort obstacle clearance, 3 seconds

243
Q

251(HAAR).
(T/F) An abrupt reduction of power at the 70 percent flap minimum operational speed (power off stall speed) may result in immediate stall with NO stall warning.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 7-4

A

A. True

244
Q

253(HAAR).
For HAAR, 70% flap setting was selected for (3 items):

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 7-4

A

D. All of the above

A. Permit optimum aircraft stability
B. Lowest engine power
C. Produce the lowest turbulence to the receiver

245
Q

254(HAAR).
The HAAR 70 percent flaps minimum operating speed is defined as?

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 7-4

A

A. that speed which is 5 knots above stall warning with power required for level flight

246
Q

255(HAAR).
The minimum recommend refueling airspeed for gross weights up to 148,000 pounds is:

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 7-4

A

A. 105 knots

247
Q

256(HAAR).
The HAAR minimum recommend air refueling speed is based on (3 items):

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 7-4

A

D. All of the above

A. Drogue Stability
B. Reel response characteristics
C. Receiver’s stability

248
Q

257(TOLD).
The maximum effort threshold speed is defined as:

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 9-2

A

C. 1.1 Vs + 5.5 KIAS

249
Q

258(TOLD).
50% Flap threshold speed is defined as:

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 9-2

A

B. 1.28 times power-off stall speed

250
Q

259(TOLD).
The maximum effort touchdown speed is defined as:

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 9-2

A

C. 1.1 x Vs

251
Q

260(TOLD).
The average flight test verified touchdown speed is approximately threshold speed _____ KIAS for 0%, 50%, and 100% flaps, normal technique.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 9-2

A

C. Touchdown speed: Threshold-6 KIAS

252
Q

261(TOLD).
(T/F) For maximum effort landing procedures only,
when the value for the touchdown speed falls within the caution area (of the Crosswind Chart), the touchdown speed shall be increased until the recommended area of the chart is reached, or until the airspeed has been increased by a maximum of 10 knots.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 9-3

A

A. True

253
Q

262(TOLD).
Basic assumptions for the landing distance charts include: (3 items)

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 9-4

A

D. All of the above

A. 1 second allowance for distance traveled during transition from touchdown to taxi attitude
B. Maximum anti-skid braking
C. power selection achieved upon reaching taxi attitude

254
Q

263(AAR).
During AAR, the astern position is approximately____ feet behind and slightly below the tanker boom nozzle where the receiver stabilizes before being cleared to the contact position.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 1A-4, para: ANNEX 1A

A

C. 50 feet

255
Q

264(AAR).
The AAR Tanker visual signal that indicates “Tanker Ready for Contact” is ____.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 2Q - 3, para: Table 2Q-3

A

D. boom extended in trail.

256
Q

265(HAAR).
For HAAR the primary A/R frequency will be monitored no less than _____ minutes prior to the ARCT.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 4l-3, para: Table 4-3

A

D. HAAR: 10 min prior to ARCT

257
Q

266(HAAR/TAAR).
For HAAR/TAAR, during a random rendezvous, the tanker will be established at refueling altitude at least ____ NM from the receivers.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 3H-1, para: 3.H.1

A

D. 5NM

258
Q

267(AAR).
The receiver will proceed down track from the RVIP/RV at ____ KIAS, and the tanker will overtake the receiver at ____ KIAS.

Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 8-14, para: 8E.1.3.2.11

A

C. Receiver: 215 KIAS, Tanker: 275 KIAS

259
Q

268(TOLD).
The zero flap threshold speed is ____ times the power-off stall speed.

Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 9-2

A

C. 1.28Vspo = 0% Flap Threshold Speed

260
Q

248(FORM).
In the ATC environment, during other than actual combat operations, all aircraft not in a standard
formation (standard formation is defined as ______, IAW FAA) will be fully lighted as required by AFI
11-202, Vol 3. And AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.19.15

A

C. less than 1 mile horizontal separation and less than 100 feet vertical

261
Q

249(HAAR).
The receiver join-up altitude will be at least ______ feet below the refueling altitude for all
receiver low procedures and at least ______ feet above the refueling altitude for all receiver high
procedures.
Ingress should be at AAR altitude.

Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.20.2

A

C. 300 feet below, 200 feet above (reduced performance)

MSN MQF (7 decks)

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