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Paramedic Review (kp) > EMT223 > Flashcards

EMT223 Flashcards

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1
Q

in the US, patients who are in shock due to severe hemorrhage should be given:

a. whole blood
b. packed RBCs
c. normal saline
d. paltelets

A

b. packed RBCs

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2
Q

40 mL of blood returning to the hear is 40 mL of:

a. preload
b. afterload
c. MAP
d. stroke volume

A

a. preload

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3
Q

you should suspect cardiogenic shock if you observe:

a. a markedly high blood pressure
b. JVD
c. unequal breath sounds
d. abdominal distension

A

b. JVD

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4
Q

restoring blood volume and improving perfusion in a patient with irreversible shock:

a. will generally restore all basic functions
b. must be done while the patient is cold
c. may be futile interventions
d. is dangerous if done too fast

A

c. may be futile interventions

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5
Q

the body’s primary response to shock is:

a. venous dilation
b. capillary opening
c. WBC production
d. arterial constriction

A

d. arterial constriction

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6
Q

following a car crash, a patient has a punctured lung, which leads to a tension pneumothorax. what type of shock will this MOST likely cause?

a. anaphylactic
b. neurogenic
c. cardiogenic
d. obstructive

A

d. obstructive

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7
Q

which injury or condition would most likely require a vasopressor medication?

a. hypovolemia
b. pneumothorax
c. anaphylaxis
d. cyanide poisoning

A

c. anaphylaxis

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8
Q

signs of systemic inflammatory response include:

a. dilated pupils and elevated blood pressure
b. cyanotic skin
c. bradycardia
d. elevated heart rate and depressed temperature

A

d. elevated heart rate and depressed temperature

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9
Q

which of the following injuries or conditions would most likely cause obstructive shock?

a. ketoacidosis
b. dehydration
c. pneumothorax
d. sepsis

A

c. pneumothorax

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10
Q

which of the following statements regarding shock is correct?

a. shock cannot be defined by just one or two signs
b. shock is defined by the amount of blood loss
c. shock is defined as a drop in blood pressure by 20 mm Hg
d. most cases of shock involve a severe head injury

A

a. shock cannot be defined by just one or two signs

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11
Q

a small child fell 10 feet from a balcony and landed on the sidewalk. you should expect to encounter:

a. fractured ankles
b. a pneumothorax
c. a head injury
d. chest injuries

A

c. a head injury

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12
Q

why should you lay down your motorcycle if you are about to crash into a building?

a. to protect the motorcycle
b. to stop before the building
c. to minimize bystander casualties
d. to reduce your own injuries

A

d. to reduce your own injuries

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13
Q

which of the following is the most common cause of traumatic death?

a. drowning
b. poisoning
c. motor vehicle crash
d. fire

A

c. motor vehicle crash

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14
Q

a level I trauma center must be open ____ hours per day.

a. 8
b. 24
c. 6
d. 12

A

b. 24

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15
Q

injury to the ____ would be the most significant following a motor vehicle rapid deceleration mechanism?

a. kidney
b. diaphragm
c. spleen
d. liver

A

d. liver

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16
Q

paramedics treating victims of a rational-impact car crash can expect to encounter injuries that are similar to those observed in a:

a. head-on crash
b. rear-end crash
c. side-impact crash
d. side-impact or head-on crash

A

d. side-impact or head-on crash

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17
Q

a victim of a fall who suffers blunt trauma to the head will experience tissue damage secondary to:

a. liquification
b. shearing
c. compression
d. laceration

A

c. compression

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18
Q

as a paramedic, you should wear at least what type of soft body armor?

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

A

c. III

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19
Q

the increased frequency of blast injuries observed recently is due to:

a. terrorist attacks
b. battery explosions
c. industrial accidents
d. clandestine drug labs

A

a. terrorist attacks

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20
Q

a pregnant woman’s seat belt should be:

a. left unused
b. placed as high on the hips as possible
c. left loose
d. placed over the abdomen

A

b. placed as high on the hips as possible

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21
Q

which of the following is a sign of infection that you should tell your patient to be alert for?

a. ecchymosis
b. redness
c. itching
d. loss of sensation

A

b. redness

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22
Q

after dressing and bandaging a wound on a patient’s forearm, the patient loses feeling in two of his fingers. which of the following is the MOST likely explanation?

a. infection of the muscle
b. excessively tight dressing
c. compartment syndrome
d. partial formation of a clot

A

b. excessively tight dressing

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23
Q

a patient was stabbed in the groin, just above the junction of the femoral artery. after applying direct pressure, you should:

a. place the patient in a sitting position
b. apply a tourniquet around the waist
c. pack the wound with hemostatic gauze
d. irrigate the wound to locate the injured vessel

A

c. pack the wound with hemostatic gauze

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24
Q

a blood clot contains all of the following elements, except:

a. dermal cells
b. fibrinogen
c. platelets
d. red blood cells

A

a. dermal cells

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25
Q

what kind of force results in a crush injury?

a. compression
b. gas pressure
c. shear
d. vacuum

A

a. compression

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26
Q

as a sharp object slices through the skin, what layer is cut first?

a. stratum germinativum
b. stratum corneum
c. stratum lucidum
d. stratum spinosum

A

b. stratum corneum

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27
Q

rupture of a large vein beneath the surface of the skin would most likely cause a(n):

a. laceration
b. hematoma
c. avulsion
d. abrasion

A

b. hematoma

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28
Q

a patient with a laceration across the back of the hand has what kind of hemorrhage?

a. external
b. internal
c. occult
d. fatal

A

a. external

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29
Q

when improvising a tourniquet, fishing line or other thin materials should not be used to avoid:

a. amputation of the extremity
b. damage to underlying tissue
c. too localized of a formed clot
d. an increased risk for infection

A

b. damage to underlying tissue

30
Q

a patient experienced the following injuries from a gas explosion. which one should be treated first?

a. heavy bleeding from foot
b. contusions to head
c. shallow lacerations
d. broken arm

A

a. heavy bleeding from foot

31
Q

the central area of a burn wound, which has sustained the most intense contact with the thermal source, is called the:

a. zone of necrosis
b. zone of stasis
c. zone of hyperemia
d. zone of coagulation

A

d. zone of coagulation

32
Q

which of the following is accurate concerning types of current?

a. defibrillators use alternating current
b. household current in the U.S. is 110 volts
c. 60-cycle current has 120 reversals per second
d. direct current is a more common cause of electrical injury

A

b. household current in the U.S. is 110 volts

33
Q

which of the following presentations has the greatest probability of upper airway obstruction?

a. redness to the face with singed nasal hairs
b. tachycardia and restlessness
c. intraoral burns and inspiratory stridor
d. intraoral pallor without inspiratory stridor

A

c. intraoral burns and inspiratory stridor

34
Q

what percentage of admissions to burn centers are form incidents in the home?

a. 43%
b. 97%
c. 59%
d. 73%

A

d. 73%

35
Q

how long does it take for normal capillary permeability to be restored after burn shock?

a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 24 hours

A

d. 24 hours

36
Q

Where/when was the disastrous incident at Chernobyl Nuclear Power Station?

A

Soviet Union, 1986

37
Q

signs and symptoms of inhalation injury above the glottis include:

a. signs of hypoxemia
b. carbonaceous sputum
c. productive cough
d. wheezes

A

b. carbonaceous sputum

38
Q

which of the following statements regarding radiation decontamination procedure is correct?

a. the patient’s effects should be disposed of after decontamination
b. a patient who has had contamination of less than 3% of the body is considered clean
c. the patient should be isolated prior to decontamination
d. all patients who have been contaminated should be transported prior to decontamination

A

c. the patient should be isolated prior to decontamination

39
Q

the surface of a patient’s hand is equal to approximately what percentage of the total body surface area (TBSA)?

a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. this measurement varies widely

A

a. 1%

40
Q

what chemical can produce systemic effects?

a. petroleum
b. ammonia
c. phenol
d. chlorine

A

a. petroleum

41
Q

intracranial bleeding into the cerebrospinal fluid is known as a(n):

a. subarachnoid hemorrhage
b. cerebral hematoma
c. epidural hematoma
d. subdural hematoma

A

a. subarachnoid hemorrhage

42
Q

which of the following statements regarding esophageal injury is correct?

a. esophageal injuries are usually very easy to diagnose
b. the paramedic should place the patient with suspected esophageal tear in a semi-fowler position
c. death from esophageal perforation occurs due to suffocation
d. the paramedic should place the patient with suspected esophageal tear in a ventral decubitus position

A

b. the paramedic should place the patient with suspected esophageal tear in a semi-fowler position

43
Q

with evidence of cerebral herniation, children should be hyperventilated at which of the following rates?

a. 25 breaths/min
b. 20 breaths/min
c. 35 breaths/min
d. 30 breaths/min

A

a. 25 breaths/min

44
Q

the facial bone most frequently fractures is the:

a. zygoma
b. mandible
c. nasal bone
d. orbit

A

c. nasal bone

45
Q

cerebral perfusion pressure is calculated as:

a. mean arterial pressure plus intracranial pressure
b. intracranial pressure minus mean arterial pressure
c. intracranial pressure divided by mean arterial pressure
d. mean arterial pressure minus intracranial pressure

A

d. mean arterial pressure minus intracranial pressure

CPP = MAP - ICP

46
Q

a fracture that results from a small object striking the head at high speed is called a(n):

a. depressed skull fracture
b. basilar skull fracture
c. open vault fracture
d. linear skull fracture

A

a. depressed skull fracture

47
Q

which type of ear trauma is particular prevalent in victims of domestic violence?

a. barotitis
b. chemical injuries
c. lacerations
d. thermal injuries

A

c. lacerations

48
Q

which of the following is the best example of a mild diffuse axonal injury?

a. epidural hematoma
b. cerebral contusion
c. subdural hematoma
d. cerebral concussion

A

d. cerebral concussion

49
Q

zone II of the neck begins at:

a. the condyle of the mandible
b. the clavicles
c. the sternal notch
d. the angle of the mandible

A

c. the clavicles

50
Q

how long does it generally take for corneal abrasions to heal?

a. 7 to 10 days
b. 2 to 4 weeks
c. 4 to 7 days
d. 24 to 48 hours

A

d. 24 to 48 hours

51
Q

which of the following statements regarding rigid cervical collars is correct?

a. an effective rigid collar floats above the clavicle
b. they should be used instead of manual in-line stabilization
c. the collar must be correctly sized for the patient
d. they are designed to protect the cervical spine from rotation

A

c. the collar must be correctly sized for the patient

52
Q

the nerve roots exit the spinal canal through the:

a. vertebral canal
b. intervertebral discs
c. intervertebral foramina
d. cauda equina

A

c. intervertebral foramina

53
Q

which of the following statements regarding manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine is correct?

a. if the neck muscles spasm, manual stabilization should be stopped and reattempted after 60 seconds
b. it should be done from the patient’s side with the patient sitting and the paramedic standing
c. the paramedic should apply slight traction on the neck while manually stabilizing the head
d. it is continued uninterrupted until the head and spine are secured to an appropriate device

A

d. it is continued uninterrupted until the head and spine are secured to an appropriate device

54
Q

which of the following statements regarding long backboards is correct?

a. paramedics should avoid transporting patients on a long backboard if possible
b. when properly positioned, the patient will move less than a half inch in any direction
c. for patients with non-life-threatening injuries, they can be used as a treatment
d. immobilization of the head should be performed before immobilization of the torso

A

a. paramedics should avoid transporting patients on a long backboard if possible

55
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

the firm fit of a helmet may help support the patient’s head when considering airway management and spinal immobilization

A

TRUE

56
Q

a sprain is an injury to:

a. cartilage
b. a muscle
c. a ligament
d. a tendon

A

c. a ligament

57
Q

which spinal cord level is responsible for elbow extension?

a. C8
b. T1
c. C6
d. C7

A

d. C7

58
Q

MVCs account for approximately ____ of spinal cord injuries?

a. 38%
b. 47%
c. 30%
d. 81%

A

a. 38%

59
Q

a functional hemitransection of the spinal cord is known as:

a. anterior cord syndrome
b. central cord syndrome
c. posterior cord syndrome
d. Brown-Sequard syndrome

A

d. Brown-Sequard syndrome

60
Q

a functional hemitransection of the spinal cord is known as:

a. anterior cord syndrome
b. central cord syndrome
c. posterior cord syndrome
d. Brown-Sequard syndrome

A

d. Brown-Sequard syndrome

61
Q

traumatic injuries to the aorta are most commonly the result of:

a. motorcycle crashes
b. shearing forces
c. rear-end collisions
d. penetrating trauma

A

b. shearing forces

62
Q

the condition in which accumulated blood causes increased pressure that makes it difficult for the heart to expand is called:

a. myocardial rupture
b. endocardial avulsion
c. pericardial tamponade
d. pericardial contusion

A

c. pericardial tamponade

63
Q

a flail chest is characterized by:

a. free-floating segment of fractured ribs
b. bulging of fractured ribs during inspiration
c. drawing in of fractured ribs during expiration
d. excessive negative intrathoracic pressure

A

a. free-floating segment of fractured ribs

64
Q

due to intrapulmonary hemorrhage, patients with a pulmonary contusion may present with:

a. hemoptysis
b. hypocarbia
c. hematochezia
d. hematemesis

A

a. hemoptysis

65
Q

as air accumulated in the pleural space, the FIRST thing to occur is:

a. compression of the great vessels
b. contralateral tracheal deviation
c. decreased pulmonary function
d. marked decrease in venous return

A

c. decreased pulmonary function

66
Q

Pneumothorax is MOST accurately defines as:

a. air or gas within the pleural cavity
b. perforation of a lung by a broken rib
c. partial or complete collapse of a lung
d. injury to the visceral or parietal pleura

A

a. air or gas within the pleural cavity

67
Q

which of the following clinical signs may not be present in a patient with a tension pneumothorax and associated internal bleeding?

a. tachycardia
b. contralateral tracheal deviation
c. jugular vein distention
d. mediastinal shift

A

c. jugular vein distention

68
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

management of a diaphragmatic injury focuses on maintaining adequate oxygenation and ventilation and rapid transport

A

TRUE

69
Q

which of the following should be part of the immediate treatment plan for a closed pneumothorax?

a. two-liter fluid bolus
b. supplemental oxygen
c. bag-mask ventilation
d. immediate intubation

A

b. supplemental oxygen

70
Q

common clinical findings associated with a traumatic asphyxia include all of the following, except:

a. tongue swelling
b. facial cyanosis
c. hyphema
d. exopthalmos

A

c. hyphema

Paramedic Review (kp) (9 decks)

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