Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Paramedic Review (kp) > EMT205 Review > Flashcards

EMT205 Review Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NREMT® Paramedic flashcards NREMT® EMT flashcards
1
Q

which of the following medications is commonly administered via nebulizer?

a. penicillin
b. albuterol
c. digoxin
d. lidocaine

A

b. albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a patient experiences profound sedation when an opioid, such as fentanyl, is given together with a benzodiazepine, such as midazolam. This is an example of:

a. summation
b. synergism
c. antagonism
d. potentiation

A

b. synergism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the action of the body in response to a medication is called:

a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacodynamics
c. biotransformation
d. pharmacology

A

a. pharmacokinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the generic name of medication:

a. is the official name approved by the FDA
b. does not require approval from the FDA
c. contains a string of letters and numbers
d. is proprietary and cannot be reproduced

A

a. is the official name approved by the FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which of the following medications is derived from a plant source?

a. atropine
b. insulin
c. heparin
d. lithium

A

a. atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

a medication undergoes first-pass metabolism in the:

a. stomach
b. spleen
c. liver
d. bone marrow

A

c. liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which of the following statements regarding the sublingual administration of nitroglycerin is correct?

a. sublingual nitroglycerin administration involved placing a tablet between the patient’s cheek and gum
b. large doses of intravenous nitroglycerin are required to achieve the same effect as a single sublingual nitroglycerine dose
c. sublingual nitroglycerine has a delayed onset of action, but nearly a 100% bioavailability
d. nitroglycerin given by the sublingual route has a rapid onset of action

A

d. nitroglycerin given by the sublingual route has a rapid onset of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which of the following medications would be considered an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor?

a. Captopril
b. Zantac
c. Diazepam
d. Synthroid

A

a. Captopril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

an undesirable clinical change caused by a medication that causes some degree of harm or discomfort to the patient is called a(n):

a. side effect
b. placebo effect
c. adverse effect
d. idiosyncrasy

A

c. adverse effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a drug possesses the same desired clinical effect in several smaller doses as it does in a larger single dose has demonstrated:

a. an idiosyncratic reaction
b. the placebo effect
c. cross-tolerance
d. a cumulative action

A

d. a cumulative action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

if yo had 18 tablespoons of couch syrup, you would have about:

a. 0.5 L
b. 0.25 L
c. 0.1 L
d. 0.33 L

A

b. 0.25 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which question would cause an unnecessary delay if used during the safety cross-check procedure?

a. volume?
b. ready?
c. expiration date?
d. contraindications?

A

c. expiration date?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

to administer a nasal drug to a patient who is slumped over a chair, you should first:

a. use a decongestant to clear the nose
b. wipe the nasal area with an antiseptic wipe
c. warm the medication
d. move the patient to lie on his or her back

A

d. move the patient to lie on his or her back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the drop factor in running an intravenous line is:

a. the distance below the intravenous pump to place the patient
b. the amount blood pressure will change with each milliliter administered
c. the size of the drop delivered by an apparatus
d. the number of drops per second

A

c. the size of the drop delivered by an apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which injectable medication is not typically carried on an ambulance?

a. dry powder to weigh
b. multidose vial
c. single-dose ampule
d. prefilled syringe

A

a. dry powder to weigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a patient has a fever at:

a. 30 Celsius
b. 35 Celsius
c. 20 Celsius
d. 40 Celsius

A

d. 40 Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which of the following interventions requires an approach that is different form venous cannulation?

a. removing fluid buildup
b. providing drugs
c. supplying fluids
d. obtaining samples

A

a. removing fluid buildup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which of the following is part of “clean technique”?

a. cleaning agents
b. working without barrier for a good view
c. working as quickly as possible
d. cleaning used disposable needles

A

a. cleaning agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which of the following medications could be found both on the NEMSIS list and on any ePCR?

a. enalapril
b. calcium gluconate
c. diazepam
d. prednisone

A

c. diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

about how many sharps-related injuries occur each year among US health care workers?

a. 400,000
b. 300,000
c. 600,000
d. 200,000

A

a. 400,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

drugs are derived from these five major sources:

a. water, air, minerals, microorganisms, and animals
b. minerals, air, synthetics, chemicals, and water
c. plants, animals, minerals, synthetics, and microorganisms
d. food products, air, minerals, water, and synthetics

A

c. plants, animals, minerals, synthetics, and microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which of the following is the drug name for Demerol, as approved by the FDA?

a. Demerol
b. Meperidine hydrochloride
c. Meperidine hydrochloride, USP
d. Ethyl 1-methyl-4-phenylisoni-pectotate

A

b. Meperidine hydrochloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which name is “Nitrostat (R)”?

a. trade name
b. chemical name
c. official name
d. generic name

A

a. trade name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which name is “nitroglycerine?

a. trade name
b. chemical name
c. official name
d. generic name

A

d. generic name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which name is “Nitroglycerine Sublingual Tablets, USP”?

a. trade name
b. chemical name
c. official name
d. generic name

A

d. official name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which name is “1,2,3-trinitroxypropane”?

a. trade name
b. chemical name
c. official name
d. generic name

A

b. chemical name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

compared to trade name drugs, generic drugs:

a. have 75% to 90% of the strength of trade name drugs
b. have the same therapeutic efficacy as the trade name version
c. are produced by the government; trade name drugs are produced by private industry
d. are typically repackaged versions of the trade name drugs that have exceeded their shelf life

A

b. have the same therapeutic efficacy as the trade name version

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

which of the following would provide the most up-to-date information on a drug?

a. the Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)
b. American Medical Association Drug Evaluation
c. the American Hospital Formulary Service
d. Internet Web sites such as MedLine Plus

A

d. Internet Web sites such as MedLine Plus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which 1906 act by the US Congress was enacted to protect the public from mislabeled or adulterated drugs?

a. The National Formulary Act
b. The Pure Food and Drug Act
c. The Controlled Substance Act
d. The United States Pharmacopeia Act

A

b. The Pure Food and Drug Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

which of the following is “the science of dispensing drugs”?

a. pharmaceutics
b. pharmacokinetics
c. pharmacodynamics
d. pharmocodistribution

A

a. pharmaceutics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

which of the following is “the study of how the body handles a drug over a period of time, including the processes of absorption, distribution, biotransformation, and excretion”?

a. pharmaceutics
b. pharmacokinetics
c. pharmacodynamics
d. pharmocodistribution

A

b. pharmacokinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which of the following is “the study of how a drug acts on a living organism”?

a. pharmaceutics
b. pharmacokinetics
c. pharmacodynamics
d. pharmocodistribution

A

c. pharmacodynamics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is an “orphan drug”?

a. a medication used to treat a rare condition
b. a medication used for patients with no insurance
c. a medication whose use is prohibited for orphaned children
d. a medication derived from an unknown source

A

a. a medication used to treat a rare condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

which is the following is an enteral route of administration?

a. rectal
b. intramuscular
c. sublingual
d. intravenous

A

a. rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

most absorption of drugs administered by the enteral route occurs in the:

a. mucosal lining of the mouth
b. stomach
c. large intestine
d. small intestine

A

c. small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

parenteral drugs are administered:

a. within the GI tract
b. by mouth
c. by injection
d. through the skin

A

c. by injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

the two general types of drug reservoirs are:

a. fat binding and muscle binding
b. plasma protein binding and tissue binding
c. erythrocyte binding and leukocyte binding
d. preganglionic binding and postganglionic binding

A

b. plasma protein binding and tissue binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

lipid-soluble drugs tend to be stored in:

a. tendons
b. muscles
c. bones
d. fat

A

d. fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

the primary organ(s) of drug excretion is (are) the:

a. liver
b. lungs
c. spleen
d. kidneys

A

d. kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

reactive sites within cells or an cellular surfaces where a drug may bind are called:

a. locks
b. binders
c. keys
d. receptors

A

d. receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

removal or destruction of disease-causing organisms or infected material is known as:

a. medical asepsis
b. medical cleansing
c. debridement
d. sterilization

A

a. medical asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

which of the following does NOT affect the drug absorption?

a. blood flow to the site of administration
b. the solubility of the drug
c. temperature of the medication at time of administration
d. the drug concentration

A

c. temperature of the medication at time of administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

which organ is NOT used for excretion?

a. liver
b. kidney
c. lungs
d. intestine

A

a. liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

children are highly sensitive to drugs, this is a result of:

a. natural decline of hepatic and renal systems
b. immature hepatic and renal systems
c. overactions hepatic and renal systems
d. they are not highly sensitive to drugs

A

b. immature hepatic and renal systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

when sodium bicarbonate is mixed with ___, the mixture crystallizes (or precipitates)?

a. sodium chloride
b. adenosine
c. amiodarone
d. calcium chloride

A

d. calcium chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is inadvertently produced by mixing sodium bicarbonate and calcium chloride?

a. calcium carbonate (chalk)
b. dextrose
c. insulin
d. air molecule(s)

A

a. calcium carbonate (chalk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

the acronym “NAVEL” represents which drugs?

a. nitroglycerine, atropine, valium, epinephrine, and lasix
b. naloxone, adenosine, verapamil, epinephrine, and lidocaine
c. naloxone, atropine, vasopressin, epinephrine, and lidocaine
d. a. nitroglycerine, adenosine, valium, epinephrine, and lasix

A

c. naloxone, atropine, vasopressin, epinephrine, and lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

a wide TI range indicates:

a. a drug that is fairly safe
b. a drug’s effective levels and lethal levels are small
c. a drug that has high risks
d. a drug that is illegal

A

a. a drug that is fairly safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

which of the following medications CANNOT be administered via endotracheal tube?

a. naloxone
b. epinephrine
c. atropine
d. glucose
e. no drug can be delivered via ETT

A

d. glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

which of the following medications can be administered via endotracheal tube?

a. heparin
b. thiamine
c. atropine
d. glucose
e. any drug can be delivered via ETT

A

c. atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

fibers that release acetylcholine are known as:

a. adrenergic
b. muscarinic
c. cholinergic
d. anticholinergic

A

c. cholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

epinephrine is an adrenergic substance that is a(n):

a. enzyme produced by the kidneys
b. enzyme produced in the cerebral cortex
c. hormone produced by the adrenal medulla
d. hormone produced by the medulla oblongata

A

c. hormone produced by the adrenal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

drugs that mimic the actions of the parasympathetic nervous system are called:

a. parasympatholytic
b. parasympathomimetic
c. sympatholytic
d. sympathomimetic

A

b. parasympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

examples of synthetic catecholamines include:

a. epinephrine
b. norepinephrine
c. lovephed
d. dopamine

A

c. levophed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

where are alpha-1 receptors located?

a. in the brain only
b. at the presynaptic nerve endings
c. in the brain and heart only
d. in a postsynaptic position, on the effector organ

A

d. in a postsynaptic position, on the effector organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

where are alpha-2 receptors located?

a. in the heart only
b. at the presynaptic nerve endings
c. in a postsynaptic position, on the effector organ
d. at the presynaptic and postsynaptic nerve endings

A

d. at the presynaptic and postsynaptic nerve endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

the drug ketorolac (Toradol) is a(n):

a. opioid
b. opiate
c. NSAID
d. narcotic analgesic

A

c. NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

drugs such as Pavulon and Norcuron may produce transient but total paralysis by binding to the:

a. alpha-1 receptor site in the peripheral smooth musculature
b. alpha-2 receptor site in the peripheral skeletal musculature
c. nicotinic receptor for acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
d. muscarinic receptor for cholinesterase at the neuromuscular junction

A

c. nicotinic receptor for acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction

59
Q

which hormone, released from the adrenal medulla, stimulates beta-2 receptors in the lungs to promote bronchodilation?

a. albuterol
b. epinephrine
c. acetylcholine
d. methylprednisolone

A

b. epinephrine

60
Q

the somatic nervous system controls:

a. actions under conscious voluntary control
b. automatic functions such as respiration
c. smooth-muscle dilation and constriction
d. the tone of sphincters in the GI tract

A

a. actions under conscious voluntary control

61
Q

your partner draws up a medication and hands you the syringe to administer to the patient. you know you must:

a. give the medication immediately
b. never administer an unlabeled medication prepared by another person
c. talk to medical direction before you can give the partner-prepared medication
d. make sure your partner tells you what medication is in the syringe

A

b. never administer an unlabeled medication prepared by another person

62
Q

medication administration by intramuscular, intravenous, or intraosseous route is called:

a. parenteral
b. enteral
c. integumetnary
d. periosteal

A

a. parenteral

63
Q

a glass containers that hold one dose of medication and has a glass top that must be snapped off is a(n):

a. vial
b. ampule
c. prefilled syringe
d. tubex

A

b. ampule

64
Q

a glass or plastic container with a rubber stopper that holds multiple medication doses for injection is a(n):

a. vial
b. ampule
c. prefilled syringe
d. tubex

A

a. vial

65
Q

when withdrawing medication from a glass ampule:

a. clean the entire ampule with alcohol
b. wrap the neck of the glass ampule with an alcohol swab or gauze
c. tap the top of the ampule against a hard surface to break off the cap
d. squeeze the bottom of the ampule for it to crack

A

b. wrap the neck of the glass ampule with an alcohol swab or guaze

66
Q

a filter needle should be used when withdrawing medication from a(n):

a. multidose vial
b. reconstituted powder vial
c. ampule
d. prefilled syringe

A

c. ampule

67
Q

the quickest method for getting fluids and medications into the bloodstream is by:

a. IM
b. SQ
c. IV
d. PO

A

c. IV

68
Q

trace the electrical impulse from the brain to the effector organ/muscle in the PARASYMPATHETIC nervous system

A

brain -> spinal cord -> preganglion neuron -> cholinergic fibers -> acetylcholine -> synapse -> nicotinic cholinergic receptors -> postganglion neuron -> cholinergic fibers -> acetylcholine -> neuroeffector junction -> muscarinic cholinergic receptors -> effector organ/muscle

69
Q

trace the electrical impulse from the brain to the effector organ/muscle in the SYMPATHETIC nervous system

A

brain -> spinal cord -> preganglion neuron -> cholinergic fibers -> acetylcholine -> synapse -> nicotinic cholinergic receptors -> postganglion neuron -> adrenergic fibers -> norepinephrine -> neuroeffector junction -> adrenergic receptors -> effector organ/muscle

70
Q

trace the electrical impulse from the brain to the effector organ/muscle in the SOMATIC nervous system

A

brain -> spinal cord -> neuron -> cholinergic fibers -> acetylcholine -> neuroeffector junction -> nicotinic cholinergic receptors -> effector organ/muscle

71
Q

the pH of the small intestine is greater than the pH of the stomach. based on this fact you can assume that:

a. acidic drugs will not be absorbed in the stomach
b. alkaloid drugs will be absorbed quickly in the stomach
c. alkaloid drugs will be absorbed more quickly in the small intestine than in the stomach
d. alkaloid drugs will be absorbed more quickly in the stomach than in the small intestine

A

c. alkaloid drugs will be absorbed more quickly in the small intestine than in the stomach

72
Q

what effect will diarrhea have on a medication absorbed primarily in the small intestine?

a. none of the medication will be absorbed
b. the medication will be absorbed much more quickly in this liquid environment
c. there will be no change in absorption because diarrhea affects only the large intestine
d. the medication will have decreased exposure and therefore decreased absorption

A

d. the medication will have decreased exposure and therefore decreased absorption

73
Q

fibers that release acetylcholine are known as:

a. adrenergic
b. muscarinic
c. cholinergic
d. anticholinergic

A

c. cholinergic

74
Q

epinephrine is an adrenergic substance is a(n):

a. enzyme produce by the kidneys
b. enzyme produced by the cerebral cortex
c. hormone produced by the adrenal medulla
d. hormone produced by the medulla oblongata

A

c. hormone produced by the adrenal medulla

75
Q

which of the following is true of the endocrine system?

a. the mode of transmission of messages is chiefly mechanical
b. the information is generally transmitted along nerves
c. hormones secreted are targeted for specific action by specific organs
d. generally, only a few cells are affected by endocrine transmission of chemicals

A

c. hormones secreted are targeted for specific action by specific organs

76
Q

examples of synthetic catecholamines include:

a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Levophed
d. Dopamine

A

c. Levophed

77
Q

you are caring for a trauma patient. which of the following medications would prevent coagulation?

a. dilantin
b. warfarin
c. furosemide
d. sodium nitroprusside

A

b. warfarin

78
Q

which of the following medications is commonly used during hemodialysis to prevent the formation of blood clots?

a. paxil
b. heparin
c. mevacor
d. diabinese

A

b. heparin

79
Q

Primatene Mist is one example of a nonselective adrenergic respiratory medication. an undesirable effect of nonselective adrenergic drugs is:

a. bronchodilation
b. muscle tremors
c. increased risk of hemorrhage
d. increased risk of CVA

A

b. muscle tremors

80
Q

you have been dispatched to a local high school for a 15 y/o male c/o SOB. he informs you that he has taken “6 hits” of his Ventolin inhaler. which of the following side effects would be common to this scenario?

a. laryngospams
b. muscle tremors
c. transient deafness
d. swelling in the feet

A

b. muscle tremors

81
Q

Theophylline is one example of the group of respiratory medication known as xanthines. unlike other respiratory medications, this group of medications:

a. promotes diuresis
b. relaxed the cardiac muscle
c. stimulated bronchial smooth muscle
d. decreases diaphragmatic contractility

A

a. promotes diuresis

82
Q

Benadryl has some anticholinergic properties that may produce:

a. shortness of breath, tachycardia, and nausea
b. bradycardia, diarrhea, and drowsiness
c. salivation, lacrimation, and urination
d. tachycardia, constipation, and inhibition of secretions

A

d. tachycardia, constipation, and inhibition of secretions

83
Q

which hormone released from the adrenal medulla stimulated beta-2 receptors in the lungs to promote bronchodilation?

a. albuterol
b. epinephrine
c. acetylcholine
d. methylprednisolone

A

b. epinephrine

84
Q

Zantac, Tagamet, and Pepcid all work because of their antagonistic action at which receptor site?

a. G-1
b. H-2
c. Alpha-2
d. Gastro-2

A

b. G-2

85
Q

abuse of laxatives may result in:

a. hemorrhoids
b. eating disorders
c. diabetes
d. electrolyte imbalance

A

d. electrolyte imbalance

86
Q

which of the following is the primary hormone that regulated glucose metabolism?

a. insulin
b. glycogen
c. thyroxine
d. levothyroxine

A

a. insulin

87
Q

you are caring for an unconscious 56 y/o male and find a bottle of Retrovir in the bathroom. what assumption might you make based on the presence of this medication?

a. the patient may have HIV
b. the patient may have tuberculosis
c. the patient may have recent history of CABG
d. the patient may have an electrolyte imbalance secondary to hemodialysis

A

a. the patient may have HIV

88
Q

which body hormone, which is also in a synthetic drug preparation, stimulates the liver to break down glycogen so that glucose is released into the blood?

a. insulin
b. bilirubin
c. glucagon
d. levothyroxine

A

c. glucagon

89
Q

the effect of parasympathetic stimulation on the heart is:

a. slowed rate
b. increased rate
c. increased force of contraction
d. constriction of coronary arteries

A

a. slowed rate

90
Q

Beta-1 receptors are located primarily in the:

a. heart
b. brain
c. lungs
d. peripheral vascular system

A

a. heart

91
Q

Beta-2 receptors are located predominantly in the:

a. heart
b. lungs
c. peripheral vascular system
d. renal and mesenteric vascular systems

A

b. lungs

92
Q

because of their potential for abuse, benzodiazepines are listed as a:

a. schedule I controlled substance
b. schedule II controlled substance
c. schedule III controlled substance
d. schedule IV controlled substance

A

d. schedule IV controlled substance

93
Q

these drugs have less abuse potential than “schedule II controlled substances” and includes Ketamine:

a. schedule I controlled substance
b. schedule II controlled substance
c. schedule III controlled substance
d. schedule IV controlled substance

A

c. schedule III controlled substance

94
Q

These drugs have high abuse potential but an accepted medical use. Prescription is required. Examples include: opium, morphine, cocaine, fentanyl.

a. schedule I controlled substance
b. schedule II controlled substance
c. schedule III controlled substance
d. schedule IV controlled substance

A

b. schedule II controlled substance

95
Q

these drugs have the highest abuse potential and no accepted medical use. Examples include: MDMA, LSD, heroin.

a. schedule I controlled substance
b. schedule II controlled substance
c. schedule III controlled substance
d. schedule IV controlled substance

A

a. schedule I controlled substance

96
Q

lithium is used to treat:

a. manic disorders
b. depression
c. schizophrenia
d. multiple personality disorder

A

a. manic disorders

97
Q

you administered 2.5 mg of albuterol. which of the following responses would you anticipate due to this drug’s beta effects?

a. increased heart rate and bronchial dilation
b. decreased heart rate and bronchial dilation
c. increased heart rate and bronchial constriction
d. decreased heart rate and bronchial constriction

A

a. increased heart rate and bronchial dilation

98
Q

what is the mechanism of action of emetics?

a. induces vomiting to rid the body of a drug
b. binds to the ingested drug or poison to prevent absorption
c. bind to RBCs to prevent transport of a drug throughout the body
d. promotes rapid and forceful diarrhea to speed the elimination of the ingested drug or poison

A

a. induces vomiting to rid the body of a drug

99
Q

immunosuppressant drugs work by:

a. suppressing the activity of lumphocytes
b. activating the immune defenses
c. vaccinating against disease
d. causing the body to form antibodies

A

a. suppressing the activity of lymphocytes

100
Q

when administering an intramuscular injection, inset the needle at a 90-degree angle while the skin is:

a. pinched
b. indented
c. held taunt
d. pulled up

A

c. held taut

101
Q

a filter needle should be used when withdrawing medications from a(n):

a. multidose vial
b. reconstituted powder vial
c. ampule
d. prefilled syrings

A

c. ampule

102
Q

the site most commonly used in the prehospital setting to start a peripheral IV is the:

a. lower extremity
b. subclavian vein
c. external jugular vein
d. upper extremity

A

d. upper extremity

103
Q

proper application of a tourniquet for use in establishing an IV should results in tamponade of:

a. the venous vessel without occlusion of the arterial vessel
b. the arterial vessel without occlusion of the venous vessel
c. both the venous and arterial vessels
d. neither the venous nor the arterial vessel

A

a. the venous vessel without occlusion of the arterial vessel

104
Q

the unit of measurement most commonly used in the medical community is the:

a. apothecary system
b. common household system
c. statistical system
d. metric system

A

d. metric system

105
Q

the metric unit for volume is the:

a. liter
b. meter
c. gram
d. yard

A

a. liter

106
Q

1 gram is equal to ____ micrograms

a. 10
b. 100
c. 1,000
d. 1,000,000

A

d. 1,000,000

107
Q

a patient weighing 220 pound weighs:

a. 100 kg
b. 110 kg
c. 440 kg
d. 484 kg

A

a. 100 kg

108
Q

to convert temperature from Fahrenheit to Celsius, subtract 32 and then:

a. multiply by 5/9
b. multiply by 9/5
c. subtract 5/9
d. add 9/6

A

a. multiply by 5/9

109
Q

you have placed 1 g of lidocaine into a 500 cc bag of NS. what is the concentration?

a. 4 mg / 1 cc
b. 3 mg / 1 cc
c. 2 mg / 1 cc
d. 1 mg / 1 cc

A

c. 2 mg / 1 cc

110
Q

you have been ordered to infuse NS at 100 cc/hour. you would set the 60 gtts IV set at:

a. 30 gtts/min
b. 80 gtts/min
c. 100 gtts/min
d. 120 gtts/min

A

c. 100 gtts/min

111
Q

you have been ordered to administer 50 mg of Benadryl. the container has 100 mg / 1 ml. how much fluid would you administer for the correct dose?

a. 0.25 mL
b. 0.5 mL
c. 1.0 mL
d. 1.5 mL

A

b. 0.5 mL

112
Q

you have been ordered to administer 40 mg of Lasix. you have 100 mg / 10 mL. how much fluid would you administer for the correct dose?

a. 2 mL
b. 4 mL
c. 6 mL
d. 10 mL

A

b. 4 mL

113
Q

you are caring for a trauma patient who requires pain management due to a fractured humerus after falling from a ladder. the standing order says to administer 50 mcg of fentanyl. your multidose vial contains 100 mcg / 2 mL. how much fluid would you administer for the correct dose?

a. 0.5 mL
b. 1 mL
c. 1.5 mL
d. 2 mL

A

b. 1 mL

114
Q

you are treating a patient with a fractured leg. you have been ordered to administer 6 mg of morphine sulfate for pain control. the vial contains 10 mg / 1 mL. how much fluid would you administer for the correct dose?

a. 0.06 mL
b. 0.3 mL
c. 0.5 mL
d. 0.6 mL

A

d. 0.6 mL

115
Q

insulin syringes are marked in:

a. 1 unit increments
b. 1 mL increments
c. 1,000 unit increments
d. 1,000 mL increments

A

a. 1 unit increments

116
Q

large lumen needles have:

a. small numbers (i.e. “12 gauge”)
b. large numbers (i.e. “24 gauge”)
c. letters (i.e. “A gauge”)
d. double letters (i.e. “AA gauge”)

A

a. small numbers (i.e. “12 gauge”)

117
Q

which of the following is a site used for central venous cannulation?

a. antecubital (AC) fossa
b. subclavian vein
c. external jugular (EJ) vein
d. saphenous vein

A

b. subclavian vein

118
Q

if the normal intravenous dose of a medication is 5 mg, how much would you administer if you chose to give the medication via the endotracheal tube?

a. 1 mg
b. 5 mg
c. 10 mg
d. 25 mg

A

c. 10 mg

119
Q

as the levels of an unbound drug decrease:

a. more drug is released from plasma protein binding
b. more drug is bound to tissues to preserve the circulating level
c. less drug is released into the bloodstream to allow for elimination
d. less drug is released from plasma protein binding

A

a. more drug is released from plasma protein binding

120
Q

when administering a water-soluble drug to a newborn, you can anticipate that:

a. lesser amounts of the drug may be necessary
b. the majority of the drug will be excreted before it can have a therapeutic effect
c. congestive heart failure will results if the total volume of infusion is greater than 10 mL/kg
d. greater amounts of the drug may be necessary because of the proportionally higher volume of total body water

A

d. greater amounts of the drug may be necessary because of the proportionally higher volume of total body water

121
Q

the nervous system is divided into two anatomical systems. these are:

a. the brain and spinal cord
b. the cranial nerves and peripheral nerves
c. the central and peripheral nervous systems
d. the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

A

c. the central and peripheral nervous systems

122
Q

the neurotransmitter at the junction of the sympathetic postganglionic fiber and the effect cell is:

a. adrenalin
b. muscarine
c. acetylcholine
d. norepinephrine

A

d. norepinephrine

123
Q

the two divisions of the nervous system that function continuously, stimulate many of the same organs, and oppose each other in an attempt to maintain balance are the:

a. effector and reactor nervous systems
b. central and peripheral nervous systems
c. somatic and autonomic nervous systems
d. parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems

A

d. parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems

124
Q

in parasympathetic nervous action, the binding of acetylcholine at nicotinic receptors produces:

a. a blocking of the effector organ
b. a relaxation of the effector organ
c. an inhibition of the effector organ
d. an excitatory response in the effector organ

A

d. an excitatory response in the effector organ

125
Q

although norepinephrine will bind to both postganglionic adrenergic receptor sites, it has an affinity for:

a. beta receptors
b. alpha receptors
c. nicotinic receptors
d. muscarinic receptors

A

b. alpha receptors

126
Q

the effect of parasympathetic stimulation on the heart is:

a. slowed rate
b. increased rate
c. increased force of contraction
d. constriction of coronary arteries

A

a. slowed rate

127
Q

common patient responses to atropine include:

a. increased heart rate and dilated pupils
b. decreased heart rate and unequal pupils
c. increased heart rate and constricted pupils
d. decreased heart rate and constricted pupils

A

a. increased heart rate and dilated pupils

128
Q

actions of benzodiazepines include:

a. euphoria, anesthesia, relaxation, and anxiety reduction
b. anxiety reduction, mild hallucinogen, and mild hypnotic
c. hypnosis, euphoria, anxiety reduction, and mild hallucinogen
d. muscle relaxation, anxiety reduction, sedative, and anticonvulsant

A

d. muscle relaxation, anxiety reduction, sedative, and anticonvulsant

129
Q

barbiturates, once commonly prescribed for sedation, are divided into four categories based on their:

a. addictiveness
b. therapeutic index
c. duration of action
d. route of administration

A

c. duration of action

130
Q

the popular antidepressant Elavil is classified as a:

a. MAO inhibitor
b. sympathetic blocker
c. tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)
d. parasympathetic blocker

A

c. tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)

131
Q

which of the following drugs are classified as MAO inhibitors?

a. lithium, desyrel, and zoloft
b. marplan, nardil, and parnate
c. prozac, wellbutrin, and zoloft
d. bupriopion, fluexetine, and trazodone

A

b. marplan, nardil, and parnate

132
Q

neuromuscular blocking agents:

a. cause complete paralysis
b. inhibit pain receptors
c. inhibit pain transmitters
d. suppress seizure activity

A

a. cause complete paralysis

133
Q

the electrolyte deficiency commonly associated with Lasix administration is:

a. zinc
b. calcium
c. potassium
d. magnesium

A

c. potassium

134
Q

to form secondary units form the basic unit of the metric system. one can divide or multiply by:

a. 5, 10, or 20 parts
b. 5, 15, or 30 parts
c. 10, 100, or 1000 parts
d. 5, 10, or 100 parts

A

c. 10, 100, or 1000 parts

135
Q

the unit of measure most commonly used to measure body organs is the:

a. kilometer
b. centimeter
c. micrometer
d. meter

A

b. centimeter

136
Q

the primary unit of mass in the apothecary system is the:

a. minim
b. milligram
c. grain
d. ounce

A

c. grain

137
Q

a microdrip administration set delivers:

a. 10 drops/mL
b. 15 drops/mL
c. 20 drops/mL
d. 60 drops/mL

A

d. 60 drops/mL

138
Q

you are instructed to administer 40 mg of Lasix. you have a prefilled syringe containing 80 mg in 10 mL. you should administer:

a. 4 mL
b. 5 mL
c. 8 mL
d. 10 mL

A

b. 5 mL

139
Q

you are ordered to administer 4 mg per minute of lidocaine to a patient with a ventricular dysrhythmia. the lidocaine is mixed in 4 mg/mL and you are using a 60 drops/mL set. the flow rate will be:

a. 15 drops/minute
b. 30 drops/minute
c. 45 drops/minute
d. 60 drops/minute

A

d. 60 drops/minute

140
Q

class I antidysrhythmics are:

a. beta blocking agents
b. sodium channel blockers
c. potassium channel blockers
d. calcium channel blockers

A

b. sodium channel blockers

141
Q

class III antidysrhythmics (e.g. amiodarone) do not suppress automaticity and do not affect velocity. these drugs produce:

a. increased contractility
b. decreased contractility
c. increased automaticity
d. decreased automaticity

A

a. increased contractility

142
Q

diuretics are commonly used with other antihypertensive medications to control blood pressure effectively, resulting in a(n):

a. loss of excess sugar and water from the body via urination
b. loss of excess salt and water from the body via renal excretion
c. increase in salt and a decrease in water in the body by renal excretion
d. increase in sugar and a decrease in water in the body by hemodialysis

A

b. loss of excess salt and water from the body via renal excretion

143
Q

which of the following is classified as an anticoagulant?

a. digoxin (Lanoxin)
b. lorazepam (Ativan)
c. dobutamine (Dobutrex)
d. heparin (Liquaemin)

A

d. heparin (Liquaemin)

144
Q

which classification of medication is designed to dissolve clots after their formation?

a. antiplatelets
b. fibrinolytics
c. plasma blockers
d. plasma enhancer

A

b. fibrinolytics

Paramedic Review (kp) (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions