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Paramedic Review (kp) > EMT222 Review > Flashcards

EMT222 Review Flashcards

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1
Q

EMS radio systems are designed to allow the use of one channel by multiple users at the same time through the inclusion of:

a. the FCC standards
b. the continuous tone-controlled squelch system
c. the land mobile radio system
d. Project 25

A

b. the continuous tone-controlled squelch system

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2
Q

if all the dispatchers at a particular location are taking emergency calls, a well-designed EMS dispatch center’s phones will:

a. place all other calls on temporary hold
b. route the call directly to the fire department
c. automatically dispatch the fire department
d. forward the call to an alternate dispatch center

A

d. forward the call to an alternate dispatch center

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3
Q

a communications system allows an EMS agency to exchange:

a. staff and other personnel
b. needed information
c. ideas for care improvement
d. drugs that are short supply

A

b. needed information

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4
Q

what kind of time scale can be obtained for data in most EMS systems today?

a. records taken after leaving the scene
b. records about 10 minutes behind care
c. near real time
d. instantaneous

A

c. near real time

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5
Q

in a city of 1,000,000 residents, EMS calls would be handled by public safety answering points while fire calls would be handled by:

a. the EMS dispatcher also working medical cases
b. a second public safety answering point
c. the fire department itself
d. city hall

A

b. a second public safety answering point

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6
Q

a cell is:

a. an area covered by one communications antenna
b. the area of EMS headquarters used to hold communications equipment
c. the area for holding violent patients
d. the electronic center of a communications device

A

b. the area of EMS headquarters used to hold communications equipment

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7
Q

dispatcher training should meet the standards set by:

a. FCC
b. DHS
c. OSHA
d. NHTSA

A

d. NHTSA

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8
Q

when speaking with a patient:

a. report the patient’s name over the cell phone
b. use plenty of medical terms to establish credibility
c. do everything possible to maintain confidentiality
d. provide diagrams of affected organ systems

A

c. do everything possible to maintain confidentiality

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9
Q

if you are designing an EMS communications systems for a very hilly county in your state, what radio band would be best?

a. UHF
b. 800 Hz
c. VHF low-band
d. VHF high-band

A

d. VHF high-band

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10
Q

EMS in the NATO alphabet is:

a. Echo Mean Sierra
b. Echo Mike Sierra
c. Even Mike Sierra
d. Even Maybe Sense

A

b. Echo Mike Sierra

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11
Q

when assessing a 40 y/o women c/o abdominal pain, you should inquire about:

a. her dietary habits
b. her LMP (last menstrual period)
c. recent heat exposure
d. her level of sexuality

A

b. her LMP (last menstrual period)

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12
Q

giving positive feedback to encourage the patient during history taking is called:

a. clarification
b. facilitation
c. reflection
d. empathy

A

b. facilitation

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13
Q

surgery may be delayed if a patient reports an intake of food less than ____ hours before ED admission.

a. 2
b. 12
c. 8
d. 24

A

a. 2

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14
Q

orthopnea indicates that the chief concern is related to the:

a. immune system
b. cardiovascular system
c. nervous system
d. endocrine system

A

b. cardiovascular system

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15
Q

if you have to “read between the lines” while working on a patient history, what technique are you using?

a. confrontation
b. interpretation
c. reflection
d. clarification

A

b. interpretation

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16
Q

in triage, which patient would receive care first?

a. urgent
b. critical
c. nonemergent
d. emergency

A

b. critical

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17
Q

which of the following is personal habit rather than an environmental condition?

a. toxins in the workplace
b. diet
c. region of military service
d. exposure to cold

A

b. diet

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18
Q

to obtain more information about possible sexual abuse, the paramedic should be:

a. confrontational
b. nonjudgmental
c. fast-moving
d. deceptive

A

b. nonjudgmental

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19
Q

the paramedic should carefully asses the chest when a patient complains of:

a. a headache
b. hemoptysis
c. irregular menstruation
d. a rash or hives

A

b. hemoptysis

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20
Q

a 70 y/o woman with history of angina needs emergency help. which of the following will provide the most information to paramedics about her heart condition?

a. blood work
b. patient history
c. advance directive
d. CT scan

A

b. patient history

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21
Q

which of the following may be inferred from an unresponsive patient who lacks a palpable femoral pulse?

a. abdominal aortic aneurysm
b. cardiopulmonary arrest
c. lumbar spinal cord injury
d. lower extremity rush injury

A

b. cardiopulmonary arrest

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22
Q

which of the following statements accurately describes scene size-up?

a. it includes personal safety of emergency response personnel
b. it does not begin until you physically arrive at the scene
c. it ends once appropriate actions are determined
d. its goals include quickly gathering evidence for law enforcement

A

a. it includes personal safety of emergency response personnel

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23
Q

in what age group is the capillary refill test most reliable?

a. 18-35 years
b. 65 years and older
c. 5 years and under
d. under 12 years

A

d. under 12 years

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24
Q

if a scene is not safe, what should the EMS crew do?

a. ask bystanders for help securing the scene
b. leave the scene and return to quarters
c. identify a safe area within the scene to begin operations
d. remain in a safe staging area and request additional resources

A

d. remain in a safe staging area and request additional resources

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25
Q

in the Spanish study of the relationship between nasal flaring and acidosis in patients with severe dyspnea, what percentage of participants showed nasal flaring?

a. 27%
b. 14%
c. 47%
d. 65%

A

c. 47%

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26
Q

if a patient is armed and there is a possible safety issues, what should the paramedic do?

a. ask the patient to relinquish the weapon
b. disarm the patient
c. continue helping the patient and call for law enforcement at the first opportunity
d. retreat until law enforcement secures the weapon

A

d. retreat until law enforcement secures the weapon

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27
Q

an example of an environmental hazard that may affect scene safety is:

a. road operations dangers
b. icy conditions
c. violent bystanders
d. chemical substances

A

b. icy conditions

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28
Q

in the Spanish study of the relationship between nasal flaring and acidosis in patient with severe dyspnea, how much more likely was nasal flaring associated with acidosis compared to any other signs of respiratory distress?

a. five times
b. ten times
c. twice
d. three times

A

b. ten times

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29
Q

in a condition poses a threat to bystanders, what should be done?

a. the bystanders should minimize the threat
b. paramedics should minimize the threat
c. the bystanders should be moved to a safer area
d. dispatch should be informed

A

c. the bystanders should be moved to a safer area

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30
Q

what is the most important question to be answered when evaluating the emergency scene?

a. has dispatch relayed the situation properly?
b. what are the ages of the patients?
c. is the scene safe for personnel to enter?
d. how many patient are there?

A

c. is the scene safe for personnel to enter?

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31
Q

how is a child’s general impression best assessed?

a. from a distance
b. while the child is engaged in vigorous activity
c. in a hospital or clinical setting
d. while the child is asleep

A

b. while the child is engaged in vigorous activity

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32
Q

a chest wall deformity characterized by an indentation of the lower sternum above the xiphoid process is known as:

a. pigeon chest
b. Jeune syndrome
c. thoracic hyphosis
d. funnel chest

A

d. funnel chest

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33
Q

for adults older than 59 years, blood pressure typically exceeds ____ mm Hg before treatment is started.

a. 130/80
b. 140/80
c. 160/90
d. 150/90

A

d. 150/90

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34
Q

turgor refers to:

a. thinness of the skin
b. the elasticity of the skin
c. the texture of the skin
d. the color of the skin

A

b. the elasticity of the skin

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35
Q

during auscultation of the heart, the “dub” sound is caused by:

a. closure of the tricuspid valve
b. closure of the mitral valve
c. closure of the pulmonic valve
d. opening of the aortic valve

A

c. closure of the pulmonic valve

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36
Q

which of the following physical examination findings can be evaluated through palpation?

a. intracranial bleeding
b. crepitus
c. fluid in the lungs
d. resonance

A

b. crepitus

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37
Q

which of the following conditions may cause priapism?

a. leukemia
b. hypertension
c. kidney disease
d. diabetes

A

a. leukemia

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38
Q

the 12 cranial nerves can be categorized as sensory, somatomotor, proprioceptive, and:

a. pontomedullary
b. sympathetic
c. parasympathetic
d. reflexive

A

c. parasympathetic

39
Q

dysarthria can be described as:

a. poorly articulated speech
b. abnormal speaking voice
c. loss of the ability to understand or express speech
d. speech and language that changes with mood

A

a. poorly articulated speech

40
Q

which type of skin lesion is seen in rosacea?

a. pustule
b. cyst
c. telangiectasia
d. bulla

A

c. telangiectasia

41
Q

if a patient becomes alarmed when a paramedic moved close to the patient to apply a bandage, there may be an issue with:

a. lack of sympathy
b. appearance
c. culturally defined personal space
d. eye contact

A

c. culturally defined personal space

42
Q

when a patient deflects the question asked by a paramedic, the paramedic should:

a. use the deflection to gently redirect to the cause
b. turn to an authority figure for assistance
c. authoritatively bring the discussion back to the topic
d. enlist the help of the medical director

A

a. use the deflection to gently redirect to the cause

43
Q

when working in a neighborhood high in LGBTQ individuals, you may deal with more cases of:

a. GSWs
b. influenza
c. attempted suicide
d. measles

A

c. attempted suicide

44
Q

who is most immediately helped by feedback in therapeutic communication?

a. sender
b. source
c. receiver
d. decoder

A

a. sender

45
Q

African American patients who are homosexuals are more likely to have:

a. heart disease
b. the common cold
c. STDs
d. type 1 DM

A

c. STDs

46
Q

what has occurred when a paramedic describes a technique in Spanish to a non-English-speaking patient?

a. feedback
b. decoding
c. encoding
d. receiving

A

c. encoding

47
Q

which of the following behaviors falls outside of defense mechanisms?

a. confrontation
b. regression
c. denial
d. feigned ignorance

A

a. confrontation

48
Q

if you are working with an uncooperative patient, you may have to accept:

a. that substandard care will be provided
b. family input for care
c. that not all information may be able to be obtained
d. help from law enforcement authorities

A

c. that not all information may be able to be obtained

49
Q

to help in interacting with patients, a paramedic should wear:

a. a suit and tie to emulate a physician
b. casual clothes to establish a relaxed atmosphere
c. a stained shirt to show hard work
d. a clean, professional uniform to gain respect

A

d. a clean, professional uniform to gain respect

50
Q

what can encourage patients to end a refusal to talk?

a. approval of cooperation
b. use of medication
c. leading questions
d. confrontation

A

a. approval of cooperation

51
Q

which is the following is a limitation of protocols, standing orders, and patient care algorithms?

a. there is rarely agreement within the profession on what the standards should be
b. they do not address multiple disease etiologies or multiple treatment modalities
c. they are generally not up to date with the most current knowledge
d. they cause many patients to feel they are not receiving high-quality care

A

b. they do not address multiple disease etiologies or multiple treatment modalities

52
Q

during which stage of crew resource management must team leaders acknowledge the emotions that come with a challenge to their orders?

a. avocacy
b. inquiry
c. decision
d. conflict resolution

A

c. decision

53
Q

which of the following may increase patient compliance?

a. having him or her sign a consent form
b. acting and appearing professional and competent
c. using subtle bribery or coercion
d. informing the patient that the paramedic is not obligated to provide care

A

b. acting and appearing professional and competent

54
Q

which of the following is an example of a distracting injury?

a. respiratory distress
b. internal bleeding
c. head trauma
d. dislocated shoulder

A

d. dislocated shoulder

55
Q

which of the following is an element that should be included in the challenger portion of the PACE procedure?

a. an appeal to the group
b. an inquiry to each team member regarding his or her interpretation of the threat
c. a reenactment of the perceiving threat
d. a statement of the occurrence that is believed to be a threat

A

d. a statement of the occurrence that is believed to be a threat

56
Q

which of the following actions is included in the evaluation component of critical thinking?

a. revision of field impression
b. patient handoff
c. tunnel vision
d. establishing a leader

A

a. revision of field impression

57
Q

the ability to quickly focus thinking to get the desired results depending on the situation is known as:

a. analytical thinking
b. critical thinking
c. thinking on one’s feet
d. creative thinking

A

b. critical thinking

58
Q

which of the following describes pattern recognition in EMS assessment?

a. a situation in which the history and physical examination match a recognized pattern of illness
b. a part of the prehospital physical examination
c. a component of critical thinking in which the examiner assesses the patient’s response to care
d. a narrow outlook that involves focusing on a problem without regard for consequences

A

a. a situation in which the history and physical examination match a recognized pattern of illness

59
Q

the quality of data interpretation relies on:

a. group consensus
b. the patient’s willingness to cooperate
c. patient history
d. the paramedic’s intuition

A

d. the paramedic’s intuition

60
Q

which of the following statements about effective assessment is accurate?

a. the paramedic should perform a comprehensive examination on all patients
b. the paramedic should not rely on his or her limited knowledge of disease in developing a suspicion about possible illness
c. the patient’s history is irrelevant to effective assessment
d. some field situations may limit the thoroughness of the examination

A

d. some field situations may limit the thoroughness of the examination

61
Q

who should make revisions or corrections to a PCR?

A

only the person who wrote the original report

62
Q

the budget of a typical EMS system is primarily dependent on:

a. reimbursement
b. ambulance fuel
c. dispatch costs
d. number of calls

A

a. reimbursement

63
Q

which of the following is subjective data?

a. obvious respiratory distress
b. pale, cool, clammy skin
c. BP of 110/60 mm Hg
d. a complaint of chest pressure

A

d. a complaint of chest pressure

64
Q

which of the following statements contains both objective and subjective information?

a. “the patient’s pulse was rapid and weak, and he was diaphoretic.”
b. “the patient appeared confused and stated that he had a headache”
c. “the patient’s behavior with consistent with alcohol intoxication.”
d. “the patient’s wife stated that he began feeling ill a few hours ago.”

A

b. “the patient appeared confused and stated that he had a headache”

65
Q

the time of the patient’s last ____ helps determine the appropriateness of surgery.

a. menstrual period
b. bowel movement
c. oral intake
d. tetanus shot

A

c. oral intake

66
Q

what is the purpose of a scene size up?

a. identify and treat life threats
b. determine the LOC of patients
c. determine what resources are needed
d. identify the most serious patient

A

c. determine what resources are needed

67
Q

what is the paramedic’s first priority?

a. personal safety
b. airway management
c. crew safety
d. bleeding control

A

a. personal safety

68
Q

the secondary assessment consists of physical examination techniques, measurement of vital signs, an assessment of body systems, and what other element?

a. skillful use of examination equipment
b. assessment of the airway and breathing
c. need to rapid transportation
d. level of consciousness

A

a. skillful use of examination equipment

69
Q

what is the first action to take place during scene size up?

a. body substance isolation
b. scene safety
c. determine MOI
d. find number of patients

A

b. scene safety

70
Q

what is the primary survey’s main objective?

a. assess for scene hazards
b. summon additional ALS unit(s)
c. decide the nature of illness
d. determine life threats

A

d. determine life threats

71
Q

what exam technique is considered a form of invasion and should be initiated with respect?

a. inspection
b. palpation
c. percussion
d. auscultation

A

b. palpation

72
Q

what should a paramedic do if a patient displays aggressive behavior?

a. retreat from scene
b. stay and call police
c. call for a supervisor
d. request more units

A

a. retreat from scene

73
Q

the paramedic determines that a patient in respiratory failure requires intubation. during which phase should this determination take place?

a. scene size up
b. ongoing assessment
c. transport
d. primary survery

A

d. primary survey

74
Q

during which aspect of patient care should vital signs be obtained?

a. general survey
b. initial assessment
c. scene size up
d. after the secondary survery

A

a. general survey

75
Q

which of the following questions is the most open ended?

a. “are you having pain”
b. “what is the pain like?”
c. “is it a sharp pain?”
d. “can you point to where it hurt?”

A

b. “what is the pain like?”

76
Q

how should paramedics deal with downed power lines?

a. move around slowly and safely
b. wait until trained professionals arrive
c. call for fire to shut off power
d. consider all down lines as safe

A

b. wait until trained professionals arrive

77
Q

paramedics approach a patient lying supine on the pavement after being ejected during a MVC and note cyanosis. what is the next step in the primary survey?

a. determine airway status
b. establish circulatory condition
c. verify level of consciousness
d. assess neurological standing

A

c. verify level of consciousness

78
Q

“Tenting” of the skin is indicative of ____ .

a. fluid retention
b. dehydration
c. burns
d. sepsis

A

b. dehydration

79
Q

the paramedic should be on scene of a critical trauma patient for no than ____ minutes.

a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25

A

a. 10

80
Q

objective information

A

information based on observable facts, such as clinical signs

81
Q

subjective information

A

information based on opinions expressed by patients or other or information based on subjective feelings of the patient, such as clinical symptoms

82
Q

decoding

A

the process by which the intended meaning of information is interpreted

83
Q

encoding

A

the process by which information is organized through a medium or channel

84
Q

Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

A

the federal agency that regulates interstate and international communications by satellite, radio, TV, wire, satellite, and cable

85
Q

half-duplex mode

A

a communications mode in two frequencies that allows data to flow in one direction or the other, but not both at the same time

86
Q

multiplex mode

A

a communications mode that allows multiple data streams to be aggregated onto a single carrier signal, which may then be transmitted via a single transmission medium, such as radio or telephone

87
Q

simplex mode

A

a communications mode in which information can be transmitted or received in only one direction at a time on a single frequency. Simultaneous transmission cannot occur.

88
Q

trunked radio system

A

a sophisticated computer-controlled radio system that uses multiple frequencies and repeaters

89
Q

closed-ended questions

A

questions asked in a narrative form that can be answered with a “yes” or “no”

(e.g. “do you have chest pain?”)

90
Q

empathy

A

the ability to see a situation from the viewpoint of the person experiencing it

91
Q

sympathy

A

the expression of one’s feelings about another person’s problem

92
Q

open-ended questions

A

questions asked in a narrative form that cannot be answer with “yes” or “no”

(e.g. “what does the pain feel like?”)

93
Q

leading questions

A

questions that persuade the patient to respond in a particular way, usually in a way that confirms the paramedic’s assumptions

(e.g. “you don’t want to go to the hospital, do you?”)

94
Q

aphasia

A

loss of the ability to understand or express speech

Paramedic Review (kp) (9 decks)

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