Emt Prep Flashcards
You have been called to the scene of an automobile accident. Your patient complains of pain in their upper right quadrant of the abdomen. What organs are you concerned about? Liver Appendix Sigmoid colon Spleen
Liver
The quadrants of the abdomen are defined by the umbilicus and the midline of the abdomen. Top right quadrant includes the organs of the liver, gallbladder and some of the colon. The top left quadrant encompasses the spleen and stomach. The lower right quadrant includes the ascending colon, cecum, appendix and small intestine. The descending colon, sigmoid colon and small intestinal organs are associated with the lower left quadrant. It is important to remember that the quadrants are defined by the patient’s left and right.
The spinal cord is composed of: Cerebrospinal fluid Muscle Vertebrae Neurons
Neurons
The spinal cord is made up of neurons. It is protected by the vertebral column which is composed of vertebrae.
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You determine that your 62-year-old male patient is hypoglycemic. His vital are: BP 110/63, P 92, R 20, CBG 41 mg/dL. He is lying supine in his bed, unconscious, but will moan when you touch him. You should do what next?
Administer 25 g oral glucose in the pt’s mouth between the cheeks and gums
Administer 25 g oral glucose and transport immediately
Transport immediately
Administer insulin
Transport immediately
A contraindication to oral glucose is unconsciousness and inability to swallow, making glucose inappropriate for this patient. EMT’s never give insulin.
The Krebs cycle is responsible for yielding a high amount of energy for the body to use. Which of the following answers requires oxygen and is most efficient? Citric acid cycle Shock Anaerobic metabolism Aerobic metabolism
Aerobic metabolism
Hypothermia could best be described as which of the following? Too hot Dehydrated Too cold Short of breath
Too cold
Hypothermia is a condition where the core temperature of the body is lowered. There are 5 stages in varying degrees of core temperature.
You are dispatched emergent to a baseball game to find your patient sitting on the bleachers after being struck in the head by a foul ball. His chief complaint is ringing in the ears, which is also known as? Tinnitus Rhinitis Pheumothorax Tympany
Tinnitus
When a person is involved in a frontal impact, the patient will travel in one of three pathways. Which is not one of the pathways a patient will travel? Up-and-over pathway Down-and-under pathway Ejection Lateral
Lateral
Mrs. Swenson is a 35-year-old female who has been impaled through the cheek by a large fishing lure. She is unconscious and has a small amount of bleeding coming from her cheek. The fishing lure is inside her mouth. When caring for this patient you should?
Stabilize the fishing lure and bandage around it
Hold the fishing lure in the patient’s mouth to prevent choking, but leave it impaled
Remove the fishing lure
Remove the fishing lure and place gauze on the inside of the cheek to stop bleeding
Remove the fishing lure
An impaled object should be removed in only two cases. First, when it is impaled through the chest and prevents CPR. Second, when it could cause an airway obstruction. In this case the fishing lure has potential to cause an airway obstruction in your unconscious patient and should be removed. Placing gauze on the inside of the cheek also poses a possible airway obstruction.
You are called to an airport where a 45-year-old female has just returned from the Caribbean. She reports abnormal irritability, chest pains, numbness in her legs, and deep pains in her muscles and joints. These symptoms most strongly suggest? Internal bleeding Intoxication or poisoning An air embolism Decompression sickness
Decompression sickness
These are the classic signs of decompression sickness. Deep pain in the muscle and joints are also known as “the bends”. It would be appropriate to question this patient about scuba diving on her vacation.
Which of the following substances is a nerve agent? Ricin Sulfur mustard Chlorine gas Sarin
Sarin
Sarin is a weaponized nerve agent. Some fertilizers, such as organophosphates, causes the same symptoms as a nerve agent exposure.
It is extremely important that EMTs know the limitation of their tools and equipment. The preferred mode of transporting a patient over a large amount of rough terrain, such as a hiking trail, to an ambulance is? A portable stretcher A basket stretcher A scoop (orthopedic) stretcher A rigid backboard
A basket stretcher
There is a multiple car accident on the freeway at 9:30 A.M. You arrive on the scene after the fire department and law enforcement has secured the scene. You notice multiple patients that are lying on the ground with massive wounds and blood pooling. A few patients are sitting on the barrier, talking and appear to have minimal injuries. Finally, there are a few patients still in their vehicles, and you notice firefighters working on extricating them. You are the only emergency medical staff available at this moment and are assigned to triage the scene. You decide to give the patients sitting on the barrier a triage priority number of? 1 2 3 4
3
There are 4 major priority rankings for triage: Priority 1, for patients that are in critical condition and need immediate care and transport. These patients typically are unstable and cannot walk. Priority 2 patients may not be able to walk, but are otherwise stable and can be delayed in care and transport. Priority 3 patients have minor injuries and are able to walk. You can usually sort these patients out by asking anyone who can walk to move to a separate location. Priority 4 (or 0 in some cases) patients are dead or in conditions that would not allow transport and recovery. In this situation, your patients that were able to move and sit on the barrier would be considered priority 3 patients.
The police departments asks for a medic unit to respond to a private residence for an assault victim. You find a 38-year-old male who is combative and confused with a large gash on his head. After multiple attempts to get the patient to allow you to help him, he still refuses to allow treatment. Your best course of action would be?
Restrain the patient and treat him
Continue asking him until he allows you to treat him
Have the police sign the AMA form for the patient
Contact Medical Control for advice
Restrain the patient and treat him
This patient is believed to have a head injury, which can cause the patient to be confused and combative. He needs to be transported and evaluated by a physician, and is unable to sign a refusal because he is not oriented appropriately. Our goal is never to restrain someone against their wishes, but implied consent dictates that if the patient were acting normally, he would want to be treated.
You are assessing a male adult patient you suspect was exposed to nerve gas. When assessing this patient, which pneumonic will help you determine if the symptoms match your suspicion of injury? AEIOU-TIPS OPQRST DUMBELS BURP
DUMBELS
DUMBELS: defecation, urination, miosis, bradycardia, emesis, lacrimation, salivation. These symptoms are all consistent with nerve agent poisoning, which inhibits acetylcholinesterase from the breakdown of acetycholine. This leads to over-stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system.
A radio's frequency refers to the number of times per \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a radio wave oscillates? Millisecond Second Minute Ampere
Second
You are on the scene of a 15-year-old female who is presenting with a panic attack. The patient appears very upset, is crying and breathing at a rate of 38/minute, and complaining of numbness and tingling in her extremities. The patient's boyfriend tells you the patient is scheduled to have an abortion at a clinic today. Which type of abortion is this pt having? Incomplete abortion Complete abortion Threatened abortion Therapeutic abortion
Therapeutic abortion
Complete abortion is the passage of all fetal tissue before 20 weeks of gestation. An incomplete abortion is failing to pass all fetal tissue. Threatened abortion refers to frank bleeding or discharge during the first half of pregnancy without dilation. Planned surgical removal of the fetus from the uterus is a therapeutic abortion.
After arriving to the residence of a woman in active labor, you determine that it is best for both the mother and the baby that delivery takes place immediately. As a health-care provider, what is your biggest concern for the mother? Eclampsia Heart failure Occlusive Stroke Blood Loss
Blood Loss
You have responded to a college campus for the report of a person who is unconscious and unresponsive. Your patient is a 19-year-old female student who is unconscious and unresponsive. The patient has snoring respirations with a respiratory rate of four breaths/minute and is becoming cyanotic around the lips. Her friends tell you that she just tried heroine for the first time. Your partner opens the patient's airway with a head tilt/chin lift and begins ventilating the patient with high-flow oxygen at a rate of 12 breaths/minute. Based on the information given to you by the patient's friend, you suspect a possible heroin overdose. You get a pen light out of your kit and assess the patient's pupils. Which cranial nerve is responsible for pupil size, shape, and reactivity? Olfactory (I) Optic (II) Oculomotor (III) Trochlear (IV)
Oculomotor (III)
Cranial nerves II, III, and IV are all associated with the eyes. The Optic nerve (II) is responsible for our ability to see. The Oculomotor nerve (III) is responsible for pupil size, shape, and reactivity. The Trochlear nerve is responsible for gaze.
The esophagus is what to the trachea? Posterior Medial Superficial Lateral
Posterior
The esophagus lies behind the trachea. The word posterior indicates that the esophagus lies closer to the back of the person than the trachea.
follows a specific pathway through the heart. After traveling through the right atrium, blood goes through WHICH valve into the right ventricle? Aortic Valve Pulmonary Valve Bicuspid Valve Tricuspid Valve
Tricuspid Valve
The pathway of blood through the heart is superior vena cava, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, lungs for oxygenation, pulmonary valve, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, aorta.
Delayed capillary refill times are a result of decreases in perfusion to the skin. Which of the following is not a cause of delayed capillary refill time?
Increase in contractility of the heart muscle
Decrease in body temperature to 94 degrees Fahrenheit
Decrease in fluid uptake, leading to dehydration
Moderate blood loss resulting in shock
Increase in contractility of the heart muscle
An increase in contractility of the heart muscle would increase stroke volume and cardiac output, which would cause increased tissue perfusion.
A 60-year-old female presents in respiratory distress. She is AOx4, breathing at 22 breaths per minute. You note adequate and bilateral chest expansion with clear breath sounds. What is the most appropriate method of airway management? Oxygen via NRB NPA with assisted ventilations NPA with supplemental oxygen A nasal cannula at 2-6 L per minute
A nasal cannula at 2-6 L per minute
A reduced tidal volume would most likely occur from? Nostril flaring Accessory muscle use Unequal chest expansion Increased minute volume
Unequal chest expansion
Your patient is a 21-year-old male involved in a skiing accident. Bystanders tell you he lost control while skiing and crashed into a ski lift pole. After a thorough physical examination, you determine he is breathing adequately. All of the following are signs of adequate breathing EXCEPT?
Normal rate and depth
A regular pattern of inspiration and expiration
Audible breath sounds on both sides of the chest
Asymmetrical rise and fall on both sides of the chest
Asymmetrical rise and fall on both sides of the chest
Asymmetrical means the rise and fall of the patient’s chest is uneven on both sides. An equal rise and fall on both sides of the chest is a sign of adequate breathing.
In an unresponsive patient who has not sustained trauma, how are respirations of 16 breaths per minute with good chest expansion most appropriately managed?
Suctioning and ventilations with a BVM
The jaw-thrust maneuver and frequent suctioning
An airway adjunct and oxygen via NRB
An airway adjunct and ventilations with a BVM
An airway adjunct and oxygen via NRB
Which breathing pattern is characterized as having an irregular pattern, rate, and depth with intermittent patterns of apnea? Biot Cheyne-Stokes Agonal Ataxic
Biot
Biot respirations may indicate severe brain injury or brain stem herniation.
Your partner says the patient is exhibiting paradoxical chest wall movement. This is best defined as?
The opposite of the chest wall during inspiration and expiration
Hives that are causing respiratory compromise
Parallel movement of the chest on inspiration
Perpendicular chest wall movement during expiration
The opposite of the chest wall during inspiration and expiration
Which strap should be applied second when placing a Sager traction splint? The distal strap The ischial strap The knee strap The waist strap
The distal strap
The distal strap (ankle strap) should always be applied after the ischial strap to check for proper positioning of the device. You’re going to see this time and time again, but make sure you check CMS before and after you apply the traction splint!
Blunt trauma injuries will most frequently involve the liver and which other abdominal organ? Spleen Stomach Small intestine Gall bladder
Spleen
This is due simply to the location and size of the spleen.
Your patient was involved in a MVC. Your patient's vitals are as follows: BP 196/124, Pulse 52, irregular respiratory pattern. Based on the vital signs, what do you suspect? Hypovolemic shock Head Injury Anxiety Cardiogenic Shock
Head Injury
These vital signs resemble Cushing’s triad which is indicative of a head injury. Cushing’s triad includes hypertension, bradycardia and irregular respirations. You would see a low BP and increased HR in a patient with hypovolemic shock.
How close can emergency vehicles be parked to the landing zone?
They must be at least 15 feet away from the landing zone
They must be at least 30 feet away from the landing zone
They must be at least 50 feet away from the landing zone
They can be used to clearly mark the boundaries of the landing zone
They must be at least 30 feet away from the landing zone
When possible, emergency vehicles should be parked at least 30 feet away from the landing zone.
Which of the following would not limit your exposure to radiation? Type of radiation Time Distance Shielding
Type of radiation
The type of radiation does not limit your exposure. Time, Distance and Shielding do.
Who is responsible for the oversight of all operations at an MCI? Safety Officer Incident Commander Triage Officer Company Officer
Incident Commander
It is the job of the Incident Commander to oversee all the operations at an MCI.
Which of the following changes would you most likely NOT see with a pregnant adult female? Hypotension Increased heart rate Odd cravings Decrease in heart rate
Decrease in heart rate
Depending on where the female is in her pregnancy you will at some point see all of the following changes except a decrease in heart rate. This question is referring to changes that are maintained, not acute short time frame changes.
Break down Cystitis
Cyst- is the prefix meaning
Itis- provides the suffix of
Cholecysto-
Cyst- is the prefix meaning bladder.
Itis- provides the suffix of inflammation.
Cholecysto- would be gall bladder.
Your patient is a 9-year-old female who is unusually quiet according to her mother. She looks distant and is responding to verbal commands. When you take her vitals, you notice a slowed pulse. You suspect she is experiencing? Hypotension Hypoglycemia Stroke Hypoxia
Hypoxia
In children, hypoxia often presents as altered mental status and bradycardia. Hypoxia occurs when there is a deprivation of oxygen to the body.
Status epilepticus occurs when which of the following is present?
The patient experiences seizure activity that lasts longer than five minutes
The patient experiences two or more seizures in a row without regaining consciousness in between seizures
The patient screams while in seizure due to pain
The patient remains in seizure despite administration of midazolam
The patient experiences two or more seizures in a row without regaining consciousness in between seizures
Status epileptics can be a life-threatening emergency since a seizing patient has impairment of the ability to control their airway.
A 25-year-old female appears to have urticaria and other histamine responses. She also appears to be having a hard time breathing, and has a decreasing blood pressure. Of the following options, which is she most likely experiencing? Neurogenic Shock Hypovolemic Shock Anaphylactic Shock Cardiogenic Shock
Anaphylactic Shock
All but one of these signs would point to an allergic reaction. However, since the BP has dropped you now have cardiac compromise which is the first sign the patient is in anaphylactic shock.
Which of the following statements about hydrofluoric acid is correct?
It is a very mild toxin with a low mortality rate
It leeches calcium from the body, causing life-threating alterations to cellular function
It only causes burns to the affected body surface
Irrigation of the affected area should be avoided
It leeches calcium from the body, causing life-threating alterations to cellular function
Hydrofluoric acid is an extremely strong toxin that is associated with high mortality rates. It leeches calcium from the body, causing life-threating alterations to cellular function. Hydrofluoric acid initially burns the skin but continues causing damage to the body as it begins to leech calcium. Hydrofluoric acid exposures should be irrigated with copious amounts of water and transported immediately.
In the human heart, the right ventricle pumps what?
Deoxygenated blood to systemic circulation
Oxygenated blood to systemic circulation
Deoxygenated blood to pulmonary circulation
Oxygenated blood to pulmonary circulation
Deoxygenated blood to pulmonary circulation
The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from systemic circulation. The deoxygenated blood then enters the right ventricle via the tricuspid valve. The right ventricle pumps the deoxygenated blood into pulmonary circulation where gas exchange occurs and the blood becomes re-oxygenated.
The left ventricle is responsible for which of the following actions?
Receiving blood from the veins of the body
Receiving blood from the lungs
Pumping blood to the body
Pumping blood to the lungs
Pumping blood to the body
You need to know the progression of blood through the body. Remember that blood coming from the left ventricle is oxygenated, but the blood coming from the right is not.
You are dispatched emergent to a call for difficulty breathing. Your patient is a 22-year-old female that has no medical history and no allergies. Her only medication is birth control. Breath sounds are normal and she is showing signs of JVD. Vitals are within normal limits, leading you to suspect? Pulmonary embolism Tension pneumothorax Pericardial Tamponade Ectopic pregnancy
Pulmonary embolism
Young women on birth control are susceptible to blood clots, which can lead to a pulmonary embolism.
Abnormal respiratory sounds often indicate that a patient is in respiratory distress. When these abnormal respiratory sounds are found with a certain physical finding, you should be able to develop an idea of what kind of respiratory problem your patient is having. What is this physical finding? Nasal flaring Retractions Flail chest Tripod positioning
Retractions
When retractions are present along with abnormal respiratory sounds, you should be able to differentiate between respiratory problems. Each abnormal respiratory sound (with retractions present) is indicative of a specific type of respiratory problem. For example, retractions present with stridor may imply that your patient is experiencing an upper airway obstruction.
After an adult cardiac arrest patient has been intubated by your paramedic partner, you are tasked with providing ventilations as another member of your crew performs chest compressions. When ventilating the patient, you should?
Deliver 2 breaths during a brief pause of chest compressions
Deliver each breath over roughly 1 second at a rate of 8 to 10 breaths per minute
Hyperventilate the patient to maximize CO2 elimination
Deliver each breath over 3 seconds at a rate of 12 to 15 breaths per minute
Deliver each breath over roughly 1 second at a rate of 8 to 10 breaths per minute
You are using a BVM to assist ventilations in an altered patient with a gag reflex. You begin to notice reduced bag compliance and a decreasing SpO2. What should you do first?
Use both hands to squeeze all the air out of the BVM for each breath
Insert an oropharyngeal airway
Insert a nasopharyngeal airway
Reposition the airway with a head tilt-chin lift
Reposition the airway with a head tilt-chin lift
Ventilation and oxygenation cannot be achieved without an open, patent airway. Repositioning of the airway is crucial and a quick and easy fix if it is the problem. After ensuring that the airway is open and patent, you may then elect to insert a NPA. An OPA is contraindicated in a patient with a gag reflex. Squeezing all of the air out of the BVM for each breath could cause barotrauma to the patient.
According to the American College of Surgeons, a class 3 hemorrhage is associated with a circulating blood loss of what percentage range? 10-20% 20-30% 25-35% 30-40%
30-40%
A 34-year-old patient states that she fell and broke her shoulder. She could be referring to which of the following bones? Clavicle, femur, tibia Humerus, clavicle, fibula Humerus, scapula, clavicle Clavicle, tibia
Humerus, scapula, clavicle
Remember your anatomy. Humerus = upper arm. Clavicle = collarbone. Scapula = shoulder blade.
