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EMT B Flashcards

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0
Q

Which of the following conditions would be most likely to create liability for an EMT-B who allows refusal of care and transport
A. The patient states he is fully aware of the consequences of not seeking medical care
B. The patient and EMT B do not share a common language
C. The patient willingly signs a release of liability form
D. None of the above would create liability; The EMT/B is protected by the good Samaritan law

A

The patient willingly signs a release of liability form

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1
Q

Which of the following is the EMT’s primary responsibility at a crime scene?
A. Identify any potential suspects encountered at the scene
B. His or her own safety
C. Preservation of evidence
D. Taking notes that may be needed later doing court testimony

A

His or her own safety

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2
Q

Which of the following situations best illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT?
A. The EMT resuscitates a patient Who has a DNR order signed by his physician
B. An EMT who is off duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help
C. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department and has the patient wait in the waiting room, but does not tell anyone the patient is there
D. An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic

A

An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department and has the patient wait in the waiting room but does not tell anyone the patient is there

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3
Q 
The blood vessels surrounding the alveoli are
A. Veins
B. Arteries
C. Arterioles
D. Capillaries
A

Capillaries

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4
Q 
The two most easily injured portion of the spine are the
A. Lumbar and sacral
B. Cervical and Thoracic
C. Cervical and lumbar
D. Sacral and coccygeal
A

Cervical and lumbar

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5
Q

A patient had a seizure that lasted about 3 minutes. At the time of your initial assessment she is unresponsive to all stimuli, is breathing deeply at about 20 times per minute and has gurgling noises on respiration due to an accumulation of secretions in the mouth and the pharynx.
A. Immediately apply a non-rebreather mask with 12 L per minute of oxygen, take a set of vital signs, suction in the secretion from the mouth and pharynx
B. Suction the mouth and pharynx, apply a non-breather mask with 12 L per minute of oxygen, continue your assessment
C. Suction the mouth and Pharynx, assist ventilation with a bag valve mask using supplemental oxygen, continue assessing the patient
D. Assist ventilations with a bag valve mask using supplemental oxygen, suction the mouth and pharynx, obtain information about the patient’s medical history

A

Suction in the mouth and the pharynx, apply a non-breather mask with 12 L per minute of oxygen, continue your assessment

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6
Q

A 45-year-old man who is suffering from chest pain. On your arrival the patient is pale and sweaty and seems short breath. The patient is angry with the daughter for calling 911. He says he has some spicy sausage for breakfast and had indigestion. Which of the following is not an appropriate means of getting the patient the care he needs?
A. Tell the patient that his chest pain may be related to a heart problem, and there is a risk that he could die if he does not go to the hospital for diagnosis and treatment
B. Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital
C. Informed the patient that if he does not agree to treatment you will have to take him against his will because he has a potentially life-threatening problem
D. Call the patient’s wife to see if she can persuade the patient to seek medical attention

A

Tell the patient that he has chest pain maybe related to a heart problem and there is a risk that he could die if he does not go to the hospital for diagnosis and treatment

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7
Q 
The two major portions of the skull are the
A. Frontal bone and ilium
B. Atlas and axis
C. Manubrium and mandible
D. Cranium and face
A

Cranium and face

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8
Q

Concerning the use of humidified oxygen, which of the following is true
A. It should only be used when assisting ventilation with a bag valve mask device
B. It is not of great benefit during short transports
C. The water reservoir should be changed on a weekly basis
D. The water in the reservoir should be treated with chlorine tablets to prevent the growth of bacteria

A

It is not a great benefit doing a short transports

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9
Q

In which of the following situations is not legal to share information about treatment you provided to a patient
A. You are ordered to testify in a court of law
B. The patient signs a release of information form
C. The triage nurse at the emergency department ask about the care you provided to the patient
D. The patient’s lawyer request the information over the phone

A

The patients lawyer requests information over the phone

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10
Q

Which of the following is not required to prove a claim of negligence against an EMT
A. The EMT fails to act according to the standard of care
B. The patient suffers harm as a result of what the EMT did or did not do
C. The patient suffers harm as a result of what the EMT did or did not do
D.The EMT had a duty to act

A

C. The patient suffers harm as a result of what the EMT did or did not do

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11
Q 
The bone on the thumb side of the forearm is the
A. Fibula
B. Radius
C. Acromion
D. Ulna
A

Radius

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12
Q 
Which of the following is necessary to deliver Oxygen to patients at a safe pressure
A. Flowmeter
B. Float ball
C. Regulator
D. Filter
A

Regulator

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13
Q

You are ventilating an adult patient with a bag-valve mask when you notice that his abdomen is getting

bigger. You should:
a. apply cricoid pressure.
b. decrease the flow of oxygen.
c. apply pressure to the abdomen.
d. suction the airway.

A

a. apply cricoid pressure.

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following colors identifies an oxygen cylinder?
    a. Orange
    b. Black
    c. Blue
    d. Green
A

D. Green

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15
Q 
19. Which of the following oxygen cylinders would be the closest to last no longer than 50 minutes flowing 
at 10 liters per minute?
a. M tank
b. D tank
c. G tank
d. E tank
A

D. E tank

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16
Q
  1. A nonrebreather mask at 12-15 liters per minute can deliver to the patient what percent of oxygen?
    a. 80- 90
    b. 16-21
    c. 24- 44
    d. 90- 100
A

A. 80–90

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following describes why fast respiration may decrease minute volume?
    a. The lungs may not have the time to fill and exchange gas.
    b. The rate causes turbulence in the trachea that increases the friction and decreases the amount of air
    movement.
    c. It is due to the delay in the movement of the intercostal muscles and the pleural space.
    d. The rate does not decrease minute volume; it actually increases.
A

a. The lungs may not have the time to fill and exchange gas.

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18
Q
  1. The oxygen flow rate for a nasal cannula should not exceed ________ liters per minute.
    a. 8
    b. 4
    c. 6
    d. 2
A

C. 6

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19
Q
  1. You are transporting a 44-year-old female with chest pain and sudden respiratory distress. She is
    agitated, anxious, and refuses to have a nonrebreather mask applied. Which of the following is the best
    option?
    a. Use a nasal cannula instead.
    b. Have her breathe into a paper bag to control her hyperventilation.
    c. Do not make further attempts to administer oxygen as it will only agitate the patient further.
    d. Consult with medical control about restraining the patient.
A

a. Use a nasal cannula instead.

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following patients does NOT require the administration of supplemental oxygen?
    a. A 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who can speak
    two or three words at a time without a breath
    b. A 6-year-old male with a history of asthma whose breath sounds are silent and who is drowsy
    c. A 31-year-old male who is unresponsive due to an overdose of narcotics
    d. A 24-year-old woman who is breathing 28 times per minute after being in an argument with her husband
A

d. A 24-year-old woman who is breathing 28 times per minute after being in an argument with her husband

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21
Q
  1. Why is inhalation described as an active process?
    a. It requires the diaphragm to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure.
    b. It requires chest muscles to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure.
    c. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure.
    d. It uses oxygen to assist chest muscles to contract, creating a negative pressure.
A

c. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure.

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22
Q 
10. For life to be maintained, a balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide is needed. The condition when oxygen 
levels are low is called:
a. hypotension.
b. hypercarbia.
c. hyperventilation.
d. hypoxia.
A

d. hypoxia

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is acceptable for maintaining a seal between an oxygen cylinder and regulator?
    a. A pop-off valve
    b. A flexible gasket
    c. A light coating of lubricant
    d. Medical grade adhesive tape
A

b. A flexible gasket

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24
Q
  1. Concerning the use of humidified oxygen, which of the following is true?
    a. It should only be used when assisting ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.
    b. The water in the reservoir should be treated with chlorine tablets to prevent the growth of bacteria.
    c. It is not of great benefit during short transports but can make the patient more comfortable.
    d. The water reservoir should be changed on a weekly basis.
A

c. It is not of great benefit during short transports but can make the patient more comfortable.

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25
Q
  1. What signs and symptoms would indicate inadequate breathing in a patient?
    a. Increased effort to breathe, increased depth of respiration, pink dry skin, normal mental status
    b. Rapid breathing, pale skin, and a normal mental status
    c. Decreased depth of respiration, decreased rate of breathing, hot clammy skin, normal mental status
    d. Increased effort to breathe, cyanosis, cool clammy skin, altered mental status
A

d. Increased effort to breathe, cyanosis, cool clammy skin, altered mental status

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26
Q
  1. The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and circulating blood is called:
    a. internal respiration.
    b. osmosis.
    c. cellular respiration.
    d. external respiration.
A

d. external respiration.

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27
Q
  1. Your patient is a 55-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home
    today because of an increase in his level of respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minute of
    oxygen by nasal cannula at home. Your assessment reveals difficulty speaking due to shortness of
    breath, leaning forward to breathe, a productive cough, and a respiratory rate of 32 per minute. Which
    of the following is true concerning the best course of action for this patient?
    a. Because increased blood levels of carbon dioxide are the primary stimulus to breathe, you should
    encourage the patient to rebreathe his exhaled air from a paper bag.
    b. You should increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues.
    If his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve-mask device.
    c. You should increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate until his respiratory rate decreases and then resume
    oxygen administration at 2 liters per minute.
    d. You should not increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate because of his likely dependence on a hypoxic
    drive to stimulate breathing. 5. b. You should increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If
    his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve-mask device.
A

b. You should increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues.
If his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve-mask device.

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28
Q
  1. The safe residual for an oxygen cylinder is ________ psi.
    a. 200
    b. 300
    c. 500
    d. 1,000
A

a. 200

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29
Q 
3. What is the percentage of oxygen provided by connecting a high flow of oxygen to the oxygen inlet 
found on a pocket mask?
a. 50 percent
b. 21 percent
c. 100 percent
d. 16 percent
A

a. 50 percent

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30
Q
  1. To calculate the minute volume, you need to multiply what two measurements?
    a. Tidal volume and respiratory rate
    b. Alveolar ventilation and respiratory rate
    c. Alveolar ventilation and respiratory rate
    d. Tidal volume and dead space air
A

a. Tidal volume and respiratory rate

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31
Q
  1. Your patient is a 65-year-old male with a history of COPD. He is sitting up and complaining of a severe
    shortness of breath. You should:
    a. suction the airway with a rigid suction catheter.
    b. administer 4 lpm of oxygen via nasal cannula.
    c. insert a nasal airway and ventilate.
    d. apply a nonrebreather mask giving 15 lpm of oxygen.
A

d. apply a nonrebreather mask giving 15 lpm of oxygen.

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32
Q

When examining a conscious trauma patient, you should do all of the following except:
A. Gain the patients trust and confidence
B. Let the patient know if a procedure is going to be painful
C. Explain what you are doing
D. Explain why the patient’s injury may be fatal

A

D. Explain why the patient’s injury may be fatal

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33
Q

Mr. Hughes is a 49-year old man complaining of chest pain. To find out about the quality of his chest pain, which of the following questions is most appropriate?
A. Are you having pain anywhere besides your chest?
B. On a scale of 1 to 10, which can be the worst, how would you rate your level of pain
C. Does anything make the pain worse
D. Can you describe how the pain in your chest feels

A

B. On a scale of 1 to 10, which can be the worst, how would you rate your level of pain

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34
Q 
A patient who has shallow, slow, irregular gasping breath is said to have \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ respirations
A. Cheyne-Stokes
B. Central neurologic
C. Agonal 
D. Kussmaul's
A

C. Agonal

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35
Q 
Which of the following is the name of the condition in which fatty deposits form in the inner lining of the arteries
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Arteriosclerosis
C. Aneurysm
D. Coronary Artery Disease
A

D. Coronary Artery Disease

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36
Q

Which of the following is NOT relevant in determining whether or not delivery is imminent for a woman in labor?
A. Determining if the patient feels as if she needs to move her bowels
B. Phoning the patient’s obstetrician for advice
C. Finding out how many pregnancies the patient has had
D. Asking how long ago the contraction began

A

B. Phoning the patient’s obstetrician for advice

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37
Q

Which of the following is true concerning prehospital delivery of twins?
a There are always two placentas.
b The umbilical cord of the first infant must not be cut until the second infant is born.
c This is a true emergency and cannot be managed outside the hospital setting without additional help.
d The infants will probably be smaller than a single infant and need attention in keeping them warm.

A

d The infants will probably be smaller than a single infant and need attention in keeping them warm.

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38
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the events that occur during the first stage of labor?
a Rupture of the amniotic sac
b Expulsion of the fetus through the birth canal
c Expulsion of the placenta
d Thinning and dilation of the cervix

A

d Thinning and dilation of the cervix

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39
Q 
The muscular organ in which a baby develops during pregnancy is called the:
a fetal membrane.
b placenta.
c uterus.
d amniotic sac.
A

c uterus

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40
Q 
The condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall is known as which of the following?
a Abruptio placentae
b Placenta previa
c Ectopic pregnancy
d Preeclampsia
A

a Abruptio placentae

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41
Q

Which of the following is a cause of gynecological emergencies?
a Soft-tissue trauma to the external genitalia
b Sexual assault
c Disorders of the female reproductive organs
d All of the above

A

d All of the above

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42
Q

Which of the following is true concerning a stillborn baby?
a Infants born in cardiopulmonary arrest should not be resuscitated.
b The parents should never be allowed to see the baby, especially if it has begun to deteriorate.
c The death may occur weeks before delivery.
d Resuscitation must always be attempted.

A

c The death may occur weeks before delivery.

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43
Q 
By definition, a premature infant is one who is born before how many weeks of the pregnancy?
40
37
34
28
A

37

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44
Q

Which of the following BEST describes placenta previa?
a The placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.
b The pregnancy is lost before the 20th week of gestation.
c The umbilical cord is the presenting part.
d The placenta is implanted over the opening of the cervix.

A

d The placenta is implanted over the opening of the cervix.

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45
Q 
What is the temporary organ of pregnancy, which functions to supply the developing fetus with oxygen and nutrients?
a Cervix
b Uterus
c Amnion
d Placenta
A

d Placenta

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46
Q 
When clamping the umbilical cord, the clamp closest to the baby should be approximately \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ inch(es) from the infant's body.
a 3
b 12
c 1
d 7
A

D 7

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47
Q

Which of the following is the correct technique to check for crowning in the assessment of a woman in labor?
a Ask the woman to “push” or “bear down” as you inspect the vaginal opening.
b Place your hand on the woman’s abdomen, just above the umbilicus, and check for the firmness of the uterus during contractions.
c Cover her with a sheet, have her remove her underwear, wait for a contraction, and then visualize the vaginal opening.
d None of the above

A

c Cover her with a sheet, have her remove her underwear, wait for a contraction, and then visualize the vaginal opening.

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48
Q

Which of the following is true concerning trauma in the pregnant woman?
a The mother’s body will preferentially protect the life of the fetus over that of the mother.
b She may lose up to 35 percent of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.
c The increase in blood volume during pregnancy makes shock an unlikely cause of death.
d All of the above

A

b She may lose up to 35 percent of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.

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49
Q

Which of the following is true of premature infants?
a They are at risk for respiratory difficulty.
b They are more susceptible to infection.
c They can easily develop hypothermia.
d All of the above

A

d All of the above

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50
Q 
Which of the following describes the normal appearance of amniotic fluid?
a A fluid containing blood and mucus
b Thin fluid, greenish-yellow in color
c Clear and colorless fluid
d Thick fluid, greenish-black in color
A

c Clear and colorless fluid

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51
Q

Which of the following may result from a woman in her third trimester of pregnancy lying in a supine position?
a Fetal compromise
b Maternal hypotension
c The mother’s body attempting to compensate for shock
d All of the above

A

d All of the above

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52
Q

Which of the following is the correct way to time the frequency of contractions in the pregnant woman?
a From the beginning of a contraction to the end of the same contraction
b From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next
c From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next
d After counting the number of contractions in a 15-minute period, multiply by 4

A

c From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next

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53
Q

You have assisted in the delivery of a full-term infant by suctioning the mouth and nose as the head was delivered and again following complete delivery. The infant is not yet breathing. Which of the following is the correct sequence of interventions?
a Perform a series of back blows and chest thrusts interposed with mouth-to-mouth ventilation.
b Transport without further intervention.
c Rub the infant’s back, tap the bottom of his foot, begin bag-valve-mask ventilations, and check the pulse.
d Begin bag-valve-mask ventilations, suction the airway with a rigid tonsil tip, and begin CPR.

A

c Rub the infant’s back, tap the bottom of his foot, begin bag-valve-mask ventilations, and check the pulse.

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54
Q 
Normal maternal blood loss during delivery of an infant usually does not exceed how much?
a 100 cc
b 250 cc
c 1,000 cc
d 500 cc
A

d 500 cc

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55
Q

When delivering a baby, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:
a have someone stay at the mother’s head if possible.
b suction the mouth first, then the nose.
c place your fingers in the armpit to assist with delivery of the shoulders.
d position your gloved hands at the vaginal opening

A

c place your fingers in the armpit to assist with delivery of the shoulders.

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56
Q

While treating a patient of sexual assault, your treatment should follow which of the following sequences?
a Treat immediate life threats, treat psychological needs, and protect criminal evidence.
b Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, and treat only the secondary injuries that may become life threats to protect criminal evidence.
c Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, treat medical and psychological needs, and protect criminal evidence.
d Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, allow the patient to shower if the patient is capable to help treat psychological needs, and transport.

A

c Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, treat medical and psychological needs, and protect criminal evidence.

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57
Q

When assisting with a delivery in the field, which of the following should be done as the head begins to emerge from the vagina?
a Check for crowning.
b Advise the mother not to push or strain.
c Apply gentle pressure to the head with your gloved hand.
d All of the above

A

c Apply gentle pressure to the head with your gloved hand.

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58
Q

If the baby’s umbilical cord is noted to be wrapped around his neck after the head is delivered, which of the following should be done?
a Clamp the cord in two places but do not cut it until the baby is delivered.
b Try to slip the cord over the baby’s head and shoulder.
c Transport emergently without further intervention.
d Immediately cut the cord before delivering the baby.

A

b Try to slip the cord over the baby’s head and shoulder.

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59
Q 
An infant's birth weight is considered low if it is less than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ pounds.
a 4.5
b 2.5
c 5.5
d 3.5
A

c 5.5

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60
Q

Seizures due to complications of pregnancy generally occur during which of the following time periods?
a In the first trimester
b In the second trimester
c Before the mother even knows she is pregnant
d Late in pregnancy

A

d Late in pregnancy

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61
Q 
You are assessing a newborn patient 1 minute after delivery. You notice the patient has blue extremities with a pink trunk, a pulse of 120, and strong crying with good movement of all extremities. What is the newborn's APGAR score?
a 7
b 10
c 9
d 8
A

c 9

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62
Q 
Which of the following conditions should be present before the umbilical cord is cut?
a The infant is breathing on her own.
b The cord is no longer pulsating.
c The cord is clamped in two places.
d All of the above
A

d All of the above

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63
Q

Which of the following is indicated in the prehospital management of a prolapsed umbilical cord?
a Immediately clamp the cord in two places and cut it between the clamps.
b Encourage the mother to push forcefully in order to speed delivery.
c Use your gloved hand to push the umbilical cord back up through the cervix.
d Place the mother in a head-down position with pillows under her hips.

A

d Place the mother in a head-down position with pillows under her hips.

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64
Q

In which of the following situations should the mother be transported immediately?
a The mother experiences a severe, tearing sensation in her abdomen during labor and the outline of the fetus can be felt through the abdominal wall.
b The infant’s arm is the presenting part.
c Delivery is not imminent and there is about 500 cc of painless, bright red bleeding.
d All of the above

A

d All of the above

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65
Q 
By which of the following means does the fetus's blood pick up nourishment from the mother?
a Direct circulation
b Indirect circulation
c Diffusion
d Osmosis
A

c Diffusion

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66
Q

You are assessing a 27-year-old female who is 9 months pregnant with her first child. She has been having contractions for the past 6 hours. As you are about to assist her to your cot, she asks you to wait because she feels the need to use the bathroom first. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
a Tell the patient she needs to be transported immediately and using the bathroom will have to wait until she arrives at the hospital.
b Advise the patient that this could be a sign of a serious complication, have her lie on her left side, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport immediately.
c Allow the patient to use the bathroom as it will make transport, and also delivery, more comfortable.
d Advise the patient that this could be an indication that the baby is ready to be born and you need to check to see if the baby’s head is visible.

A

d Advise the patient that this could be an indication that the baby is ready to be born and you need to check to see if the baby’s head is visible.

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67
Q 
You are assessing a patient in labor. Her contractions are 2 minutes apart lasting 30 seconds with increasing pain. The patient states that she feels the urge to push. These signs indicate which stage of delivery?
a Third stage
b Second stage
c Fourth stage
d First and second stage
A

d First and second stage

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68
Q 
Traditionally an APGAR score is taken at what time intervals after birth?
a 5 and 10 minutes
b 2 and 7 minutes
c 1 and 5 minutes
d 1 and 6 minutes
A

c 1 and 5 minutes

69
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate question to ask while evaluating a woman in labor?
a Do you know who the father is and what is his medical history?
b When was the last time you were sexually active?
c Is this your first pregnancy?
d None of these questions is appropriate.

A

c Is this your first pregnancy?

70
Q

Which of the following is the highest priority to the EMT in delivery of an infant with meconium-stained amniotic fluid?
a Checking for fever
b Vigorously rubbing the infant’s back immediately upon delivery to stimulate breathing
c Being prepared to suction the infant immediately before he takes a breath
d None of the above

A

c Being prepared to suction the infant immediately before he takes a breath

71
Q

If the baby’s head is delivered with the amniotic sac still intact, which of the following should be done first?
a Use your fingers to tear the sac away from the baby’s face.
b Leave the sac intact until the entire body is delivered.
c Use the scissors in the obstetrics kit to cut the sac away from the baby’s head.
d Call medical control before taking action

A

a Use your fingers to tear the sac away from the baby’s face.

72
Q 
All of the following are signs of adequate breathing and circulation in the newborn EXCEPT:
a heart rate greater than 100.
b relaxation of the extremities.
c cyanosis of only the hands and feet.
d vigorous crying.
A

b relaxation of the extremities.

73
Q 
The greatest danger to the pregnant woman and her fetus involved in trauma is which of the following?
a Neurogenic shock
b Distributive shock
c Hemorrhagic shock
d Supine hypotensive shock
A

c Hemorrhagic shock

74
Q 
Which of the following is NOT part of a basic obstetrics kit?
a Umbilical cord clamps
b Surgical scissors
c A baby blanket
d A packet of suture material
A

d A packet of suture material

75
Q

Which of the following is NOT advisable following complete birth of the infant?
a Dry the infant and wrap him in a blanket.
b Keep the infant at the level of the mother’s vagina until the cord is clamped and cut.
c Place the infant on his side with his head slightly lower than his body.
d Hold the infant by the ankles to allow the airway to drain

A

d Hold the infant by the ankles to allow the airway to drain

76
Q

Which of the following is a common sign of a pre-delivery emergency?
a Contractions become more intense and closer together.
b The amniotic sac ruptures.
c The placenta fails to deliver within 20 minutes of the infant’s birth.
d There is profuse vaginal bleeding.

A

d There is profuse vaginal bleeding.

77
Q 
During which stage of labor is the baby born?
a Ninth
b First
c Second
d Third
A

c Second

78
Q

When caring for a premature baby, which of the following is appropriate?
a Wrapping the infant in a blanket, covering his head, and keeping the temperature in the ambulance between 90°F and 100°F
b Deeply suctioning the airway with a rigid tonsil-tip
c Applying high-concentration oxygen with a neonatal nonrebreather mask
d Encouraging family members to hold the infant

A

a Wrapping the infant in a blanket, covering his head, and keeping the temperature in the ambulance between 90°F and 100°F

79
Q

Which of the following describes a breech presentation?
a The infant presents buttocks first.
b The infant presents with both feet first.
c The infant presents face first.
d Both A and B

A

d Both A and B

80
Q 
If assisting in a prehospital delivery while off-duty, which of the following would be the BEST choice for tying or clamping the umbilical cord?
a A section of wire coat hanger
b A pair of shoelaces
c White cotton thread
d A clothespin
A

b A pair of shoelaces

81
Q

Your patient is an infant who has just been delivered 3 weeks before her due date. She is breathing adequately, has a heart rate of 140 beats per minute, and has cyanosis of her face and chest. Which of the following interventions should be done first?
a Perform ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen.
b Place oxygen tubing near the infant’s face at a flow rate of 10 to 12 liters per minute.
c Begin CPR with a compression rate of 120/minute.
d Place a neonatal nonrebreather mask on the infant’s face.

A

b Place oxygen tubing near the infant’s face at a flow rate of 10 to 12 liters per minute.

82
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the term crowning?
a Complete dilation of the cervix
b The presenting part of the baby being visible at the vaginal opening
c The delivery of the head during a breech birth, completing delivery
d A discharge of bloody mucus

A

b The presenting part of the baby being visible at the vaginal opening

83
Q

Which of the following should be done when the infant’s head has been delivered?
a Check to see if the umbilical cord is around the neck.
b Suction the mouth.
c Suction the nose.
d All of the above

A

d All of the above

84
Q

Which of the following is of greatest concern for the EMT in the prehospital care of a woman with vaginal bleeding?
a Finding out if the patient is currently sexually active
b Monitoring for hypovolemic shock
c Obtaining a thorough gynecological history
d Preventing infection

A

b Monitoring for hypovolemic shock

85
Q

Which of the following should the EMT do to control maternal bleeding after delivery of the baby?
a Apply direct pressure with a sanitary napkin over any perineal lacerations.
b Allow the infant to nurse, if possible.
c Massage the uterus until it is firm and grapefruit-sized.
d All of the above

A

d All of the above

86
Q

While treating a pregnant trauma patient, which of the following is the BEST way to keep the fetus alive?
a Transport the patient to the closest pediatric center.
b Treat the patient as any other trauma patient.
c Do not put the patient on a spine board to prevent supine hypotensive syndrome.
d None of the above

A

b Treat the patient as any other trauma patient.

87
Q

Supine hypotensive syndrome is easily prevented by transporting the pregnant female in which of the following positions?
a Supine, with the head lower than the hips
b Lying on her left side
c On her hands and knees with her hips elevated
d Tilted slightly onto the right side

A

b Lying on her left side

88
Q 
The term for a baby developing inside the mother's womb after week 8 is:
a infant.
b chorion.
c fetus.
d neonate.
A

c fetus

89
Q

Your patient is a 38 year old male with no prior medical history, but he has had a seizure at work. He is now slow to respond to questions and is complaining of a headache. Which of the following information would be most useful in determining how to treat this patient?
A. Applying the AED
B. Determining if he is allergic to any medications
C. Performing a detailed physical exam
D. Checking the patient’s vital signs

A

D. Checking the patient’s vital signs

90
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence for controlling external bleeding?
A. Direct pressure, elevation, pressure point compression, tourniquet
B. Rinse with alcohol, direct pressure, pressure point compression, tourniquet
C. Direct pressure, ice, pressure point compression, elevation
D. Direct pressure, elevation, pressure point compression, pressure dressing and bandage

A

A. Direct pressure, elevation, pressure point compression, tourniquet

91
Q 
Your patient is a 40 year old man who was burned when he spilled gasoline on his pants as he was standing near a pilot light of his hot water heater. He has partial thickness burns from his feet to just above his knees, circumferentially around both legs. Using the Rule of Nines, which of the following most accurately represents the extent of body surface area burned?
A. 9%
B.4.5%
C.36%
D.18%
A

D.18%

92
Q 
Which of the following is a complication of bone fracture?
A. Swelling 
B. Nerve damage
C. Hemorrhage 
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

93
Q

Which of the following injuries is considered an indirect brain injury?
A. Cerebral laceration
B. Gunshot wound to the head
C. Depressed skull fracture with cerebral penetration by bone fragments
D. Concussion

A

D. Concussion

94
Q
  1. What is another name for the zygomatic bone?
    a. Malar
    b. Maxillae
    c. Temporal
    d. Mandible
A

a. Malar

95
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of the autonomic nervous system?
    a. Speaking
    b. Running or walking
    c. Constriction of blood vessels
    d. Solving complex math problems
A

c. Constriction of blood vessels

96
Q
  1. Your patient is a 27-year-old male who has been involved in a motorcycle collision in which he was not
    wearing a helmet. He does not respond when you speak to him, but he makes incomprehensible sounds
    when you press your knuckles on his sternum. Which of the following BEST describes his level of
    consciousness?
    a. Alert
    b. Verbal
    c. Painful
    d. Unresponsive
A

c. Painful

97
Q 
16. Which of the following systems includes the pairs of nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord between 
each pair of vertebrae?
a. Peripheral nervous system
b. Central nervous system
c. Autonomic nervous system
d. All of the above
A

a. Peripheral nervous system

98
Q
  1. In which of the following circumstances should a helmet be removed?
    a. If you suspect a skull fracture and need to palpate the head
    b. If you want to place a nasal cannula on the patient but cannot because his ears are covered by the helmet
    c. If the helmet interferes with airway management
    d. If the helmet fits so snugly that you cannot inspect the ears for the presence of blood or fluid
A

c. If the helmet interferes with airway management

99
Q
  1. Your patient is a 30-year-old construction worker who fell from a scaffolding and has been impaled
    through the right orbit by a 36-inch piece of concrete reinforcement bar. The patient responds to verbal
    stimuli and appears to have multiple other injuries. Which of the following is the BEST course of
    action?
    a. Remove the reinforcement bar and pack the orbit with sterile moist dressings to keep the scene time
    under 10 minutes.
    b. Transport with the reinforcement bar in place to prevent delay at the scene.
    c. Test the reinforcement bar for stability and remove it only if it is loose enough to be easily pulled from
    the wound.
    d. Firmly stabilize the reinforcement bar in place so that the rescue crew can cut it short.
A

d. Firmly stabilize the reinforcement bar in place so that the rescue crew can cut it short.

100
Q
  1. A 44-year-old male involved in a collision at 50 mph struck the windshield of his vehicle with his face.
    Which of the following injuries should you prepare to treat?
    a. Cervical spine trauma
    b. Brain injury
    c. Airway obstruction
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

101
Q
  1. Your patient is pregnant at 20 weeks’ gestation and has been thrown from a horse. She is complaining
    of back pain. Which of the following is the correct procedure for immobilizing her spine?
    a. Use a short immobilization device and transport the patient in a sitting position.
    b. Place the patient supine on the backboard.
    c. Place the patient on her left side on the backboard.
    d. Place the patient supine on the backboard, then put a pillow under the right side of the backboard.
A

d. Place the patient supine on the backboard, then put a pillow under the right side of the backboard.

102
Q

Because infants are small children rely more heavily on the diaphragm for breathing, Respiratory distress can be detected by observing which one of the following signs that is not prominent in adults?

a. Bulging of the intercostal spaces
b. Use of the sternocleidomastoid muscles of the neck
c. Movement of the abdomen with respiratory effort
d. None of the above

A

c. Movement of the abdomen with respiratory effort

103
Q
  1. The anterior fontanelle should be closed between the ages of ________ and ________.
    a. 3 months; 6 months
    b. 24 months; 36 months
    c. 6 months; 10 months
    d. 12 months; 18 months
A

d. 12 months; 18 months

104
Q
  1. Capillary refill should be assessed in which of the following age groups?
    a. Younger than 6 years
    b. Younger than 1 year
    c. 2 years old and younger
    d. Younger than 12 years
A

a. Younger than 6 years

105
Q
  1. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of death in children?
    a. Environmental emergencies
    b. Poisonings
    c. Trauma
    d. Infectious disease
A

c. Trauma

106
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of shock in infants and children?
    a. Heart failure
    b. Blood loss
    c. Infection
    d. Dehydration
A

a. Heart failure

107
Q
  1. Which of the following should be considered by the EMT as a result of the proportionally larger size of
    a small child’s head?
    a. Adaptations in positioning for cervical spine immobilization
    b. Different injury patterns than in adults
    c. Differences in positioning to maintain an open airway
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

108
Q
  1. Which of the following should increase your suspicion of child abuse?
    a. Indications of alcohol and/or drug abuse in the home
    b. Improperly healed fractures, resulting in deformity of extremities
    c. Bruises on the back and/or buttocks in various stages of healing
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

109
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle?
    a. Appearance
    b. Breathing
    c. Circulation
    d. Abdomen
A

d. Abdomen

110
Q
  1. Which of the following is a consideration in airway management in the pediatric patient?
    a. Keeping the nose clear of secretions
    b. The need to hyperextend the head to achieve an open airway
    c. Using blind finger sweeps to clear a foreign body from the airway
    d. All of the above
A

a. Keeping the nose clear of secretions

111
Q
  1. A 4-year-old child is generally categorized as a(n):
    a. preschooler.
    b. toddler.
    c. school-age child.
    d. adolescent.
A

a. preschooler.

112
Q
  1. For the EMT who has cared for a pediatric patient in tragic circumstances, which of the following
    would be an appropriate way of dealing with stress accompanying the experience?
    a. Get together with others who participated in the care of the child and unwind with some alcoholic
    beverages.
    b. Talk to a compassionate coworker who has had similar experiences in the past.
    c. Vent your rage in a letter to the person responsible for the child’s circumstances.
    d. Put the incident out of your mind and don’t talk about it.
A

b. Talk to a compassionate coworker who has had similar experiences in the past.

113
Q
  1. Your patient is a 2-year-old female who has suffered a seizure but does not have a previous history of
    seizures. The patient’s father states that the child has been pulling at her ear and has had a fever. They
    were getting ready to leave for a doctor’s appointment when the child had a brief seizure. The patient is
    drowsy and has hot, flushed skin. Which of the following is recommended in the prehospital
    management of this patient?
    a. Sponge the child’s back and arms with rubbing alcohol.
    b. Place ice packs in the armpits, groin, and around the head.
    c. Remove the child’s clothing down to her underpants or diaper.
    d. Cover the child with a towel soaked in ice water.
A

c. Remove the child’s clothing down to her underpants or diaper.

114
Q
  1. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of seizures in infants and children?
    a. Hypoglycemia
    b. Hypoxia
    c. Fever
    d. Poisoning
A

c. Fever

115
Q
  1. Because infants and small children rely more heavily on the diaphragm for breathing, respiratory
    distress can be detected by observing which one of the following signs that is not prominent in adults?
    a. Bulging of the intercostal spaces
    b. Use of the sternocleidomastoid muscles of the neck
    c. Movement of the abdomen with respiratory effort
    d. None of the above
A

c. Movement of the abdomen with respiratory effort

116
Q
  1. Which of the following is an early sign of respiratory distress in an 18-month-old patient?
    a. Wheezing
    b. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
    c. Drowsiness
    d. Respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute
A

a. Wheezing

117
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a cause of altered mental status in the pediatric patient?
    a. Traumatic brain injury
    b. Diabetes
    c. Dementia
    d. Infection
A

c. Dementia

118
Q
  1. Which of the following is an indication of shock in an infant or small child?
    a. Capillary refill greater than 2 seconds
    b. Absence of tears when crying
    c. Not producing wet diapers
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

119
Q
  1. You are called for a child that has had a fever for a couple of days. The parents tell you that two of the
    other children have been home with a stomach virus and fever. As you attempt to assess the child, he
    pulls away from you and grabs onto his mother. Which of the following behaviors would be considered
    “normal” for a 4-year-old?
    a. He doesn’t make eye contact as you approach.
    b. He begins to cry when you try to touch his booboo.
    c. He runs up to you when you enter the room.
    d. He flares his nostrils when he breathes.
A

b. He begins to cry when you try to touch his booboo

120
Q
  1. Which of the following is LEAST common in a child struck by a vehicle?
    a. Spinal injuries
    b. Abdominal injuries
    c. Upper-extremity injuries
    d. Head injuries
A

c. Upper-extremity injuries

121
Q
  1. Your protocols call for you to use the Pediatric Assessment Triangle when assessing young children.
    You know that the second leg of the triangle assesses the “work of breathing” and the bottom leg of the
    triangle assesses “circulation to the skin.” What does the first leg of the triangle stand for?
    a. Appearance
    b. Airway
    c. Alteration of mental status
    D. assessment
A

a. Appearance

122
Q
  1. You are standing in line waiting to get a prescription filled for your mother. A woman walks in with a
    young boy in her arms. As she places him in a nearby chair, he begins to seize. Which of the following is
    true regarding childhood seizures?
    a. They usually accompany a high fever.
    b. Most are due to head injuries.
    c. They usually last from 1 to 2 minutes.
    d. They are due to a rapid rise in temperature.
A

d. They are due to a rapid rise in temperature.

123
Q

A 4-year-old child is generally categorized as a(n):
a. preschooler.
b. toddler.
c. school-age child.
d. adolescent.

A

a. preschooler.

124
Q

Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials emergencies?

OSHA and EPA
DOT and FCC
NAEMT and NHTSA
NHTSA and NRC

A

OSHA and EPA

125
Q

To respond to a hazardous materials incident, the EMT should be trained at which of the four levels?

Operations
Specialist
Technician
Awareness

A

Awareness

126
Q

In which of the following settings should the EMT be alert to the possibility of hazardous materials emergencies?

Manufacturing industries
Farm service agencies
Shipping ports
All of the above

A

All of the above

127
Q

You are called to a garden center where four shoppers have collapsed after a section of shelving fell and dumped hazardous products on the floor. When you arrive on the scene, you should:

think hazmat, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response.
think hazmat, dress in a Tyvek suit, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response.
secure the scene quickly, triage each patient, and move to fresh air.
think hazmat, dress in a Tyvek suit, access the scene to identify the spilled product, secure the MSDS sheets, and remove victims to fresh air.

A

think hazmat, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response.

128
Q

Which of the following are desirable characteristics of the “safe or cold zone” in a hazardous materials incident?

Upwind, uphill from the spill
Upwind, on the same level as the spill
Downwind, uphill from the spill
Downwind, downhill from the spill

A

Upwind, on the same level as the spill

129
Q

Which of the following is NOT the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible hazardous materials emergency?

Requesting special resources to respond
Recognizing a hazardous materials emergency
Establishing a safe zone
Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill

A

Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill

130
Q 
Which of the following assessment findings would most likely indicate cardiac compromise?
A. Tachypnea
B. Tachycardia 
C. Irregular pulse
D. Sudden fainting
A

C. Irregular pulse

131
Q 
A 50-year-old man presented with "crushing" chest pain sudden onset. He is diaphoretic and nauseated. You should?
A. Obtain baseline vital signs 
B. Apply supplemental oxygen 
C. ask him if he takes nitroglycerin 
D. perform a focused physical exam
A

B. Apply supplemental oxygen

132
Q 
As you are assessing an elderly man who is complaining of chest pain, the patient suddenly loses consciousness. Your first step should be to: 
A. Attach the AED
B. open the airway 
C. Assess for a pulse 
D. Assesses for breathing
A

B. open the airway

133
Q 
Freshly Oxygenated blood returns to the heart via which of the following blood vessels ?
A. Aorta
B. Vena cava
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Pulmonary artery
A

C. Pulmonary vein

134
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the automated external defibrillator is true?
A. It should be applied to patients at risk for cardiac arrest
B. It will analyze a patient’s rhythm while CPR is in progress
C. It should not be used in patients with and implanted pacemaker
D. It can safely be used in children between one and eight years of age

A

D. It can safely be used in children between one and eight years of age

135
Q

Nitroglycerin possesses which of the following effects when administered to patients with suspected cardiac chest pain?
A. Vasodilation and increased myocardial oxygen supply
B. Vasodilation and decrease myocardial oxygen supply
C. Vasoconstriction and increased cardiac workload
D. Vasoconstriction and increased cardiac oxygen demand

A

A. Vasodilation and increased myocardial oxygen supply

136
Q 
You arrive at the scene of a 56-year-old man who is not breathing. Your initial assessment reveals that the patient is pulseless and apneic. The patient's wife tells you her husband Suddenly grabs his chest and then passes out. As your partner confirms cardiac arrest and began one rescuer CPR you should
A. Notify medical control
B. Insert and airway adjunct 
C. Prepare the AED for use
D. Obtain a sample history
A

C. Prepare the AED for use

137
Q

You arrive at the scene of a 56-year-old man who is not breathing. Your initial assessment reveals that the patient is pulseless and apneic. The patient’s wife tells you that her husband suddenly grabbed his chest then passed out when performing two CPR rescuer on this patient, you should
A. Slowly compress DHS to a depth of about 1 inch to 1 1/2 inch
B. Not attempt to synchronize compressions with ventilations
C. Have your partner pause at the 30 compressions as you give to breaths
D.continue ventilations as the AED analyzes the patient’s cardiac rhythm

A

C. Have your partner pause at the 30 compressions as you give to breaths

138
Q

A 45-year-old woman calls EMS because of her severe chest pain. When you arrive she advise you that she has taken two of her husband’s nitroglycerin tablets without relief. What is your most appropriate course of action?
A. Attach the AED administer 100% oxygen and contact medical control for advice.
B. Apply supplemental oxygen and transport the patient to the hospital without delay.
C. Call medical control and request permission to assist the patient with one more nitroglycerin tablet.
D. Obtain the patient’s blood pressure and administer one more nitroglycerin tablet if her blood pressure is greater than 100 mm HG Systolic.

A

B. Apply supplemental oxygen and transport the patient to the hospital without delay.

139
Q 
Cardiac arrest in the adult population most often is the result of 
A. Myocardial infraction 
B. Respiratory failure
C. A cardiac arrhythmia
D. Accidental electrocution
A

C. A cardiac arrhythmia

140
Q 
The chest pain associated with cardiac compromise often is described as
A. Sharp
B. Stabbing
C. Pressure
D. Cramping
A

C. Pressure

141
Q 
As you are attempting to resuscitate an adult male with cardiac arrest, you receive a "O shock advised" message from the AED. What should you do next?
A. Continue CPR
B. Check for a pulse
C. Assess for breathing
D. Reanalyze The rhythm
A

B. Check for a pulse

142
Q 
The myocardium receives its blood supply from the Coronary arteries that branch directly from the
A. Aorta
B. Vena cava
C. left atrium
D. Right ventricle
A

A. Aorta

143
Q

The EMT-B should consider performing two minutes of CPR prior to attaching the AED to adult victims of cardiac arrest when
A. The arrest is caused by a traumatic injury
B. The patient’s cardiac arrest was witnessed
C. The call to arrival Time is more than five minutes
D. The patient has known coronary artery disease

A

C. The call to arrival Time is more than five minutes

144
Q 
Which of the following or side effects of nitroglycerin?
A. Nausea
B. Anxiety
C. Headache
D. Hypertension
A

C. Headache

145
Q

Which of the following patients would be the best candidate for the administration of nitroglycerin?
A. A woman who has taken three doses of prescribed nitroglycerin without relief of chest pain
B. A woman with chest pain, prescribed nitroglycerin, and a blood pressure of 102/76 MM HG
C. A man with chest pain, a bottle of expired nitroglycerin, and a blood pressure of 110/80 MMHG
D. And elderly man with crushing chest pain and a blood pressure of 90/60 MM HG

A

B. A woman with chest pain, prescribed nitroglycerin, and a blood pressure of 102/76 MM HG

146
Q 
Which of the following chambers of the heart has the tickets walls?
A. Left atrium
B. Right atrium
C. Left ventricle
D. Right ventricle
A

C. Left ventricle

147
Q

In addition to oxygen therapy; The most effective way to minimize The detrimental effects associated with cardiac compromise is to
A. Give the patient up to four doses of nitroglycerin
B. Reassure the patient and provide prompt transport
C. Transport the patient rapidly, using lights and sirens
D. Request ALS support for all patients who have chest pain.

A

B. Reassure the patient and provide prompt transport

148
Q

Which of the following questions would be most appropriate to ask when assessing a patient with chest pain?
A. What does the pain feel like?
B. Does the pain radiates to your arm?
C. Would you prescribe the pain as sharp
D. is the pain worse when you take a deep breath

A

A. What does the pain feel like?

149
Q

Which of the following statements regarding one rescuer CPR is correct?
A. You should assesses the patient for a post after three cycles of CPR
B. A compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2
C. ventilation should be delivered over a period of 1 to 2 seconds
D. The chest should be allowed to fully recoil after each compression

A

D. The chest should be allowed to fully recoil after each compression

150
Q 
You are caring for a 66-year-old woman with severe pressure in her chest. As you initiate oxygen therapy, your partner should
A. Notify medical control
B. Obtain a sample history
C. Measure the blood pressure
D. Gather the patient's medications
A

C. Measure the blood pressure

151
Q

When managing a patient with chest pain you should first
A. Administer high concentration oxygen
B. place the patient in a position of comfort
C. Request and ALS ambulance to respond to the scene.
D. Measure the blood pressure and administer nitroglycerin

A

B. place the patient in a position of comfort

152
Q 
What is the most detrimental effect that tachycardia can have on a patient experiencing cardiac compromise? 
A. Increased blood pressure
B. Increase oxygen demand
C. Increased stress and anxiety
D. Decreased cardiac functioning
A

B. Increase oxygen demand

153
Q

After applying the AED to a 56-year-old female in cardiac arrest, you analyze her cardiac rhythm and receive a “shock advised” message. First responders who arrived at the scene before you tell you that the patient was without CPR for a bout 10 minutes. You should
A. Perform two minutes of CPR and then defibrillate
B. detach the AED and prepare for immediate transport
C. Deliver the shock as indicated followed immediately by CPR
D. Notify medical control and request permission to cease resuscitation

A

C. Deliver the shock as indicated followed immediately by CPR

154
Q 
The safest ambulance driver is one who
A. Is physically fit
B. Has a positive attitude
C. Drives with due regard
D. drives with lights and sirens
A

C. Drives with due regard

155
Q 
You are called to treat a 25-year old man who is alert and having difficulty breathing. After making contact with your patient, he extends his arm out to allow you to take his blood pressure. This is an example of
A. Actual consent 
B. Informed consent
C. Implied consent
D. Formal consent
A

A. Actual consent

156
Q

You are provide care to a male patient at the scene of a shooting. The police is at the scene collecting evidence you actions should include
A. Limiting your care to the initial assessment.
B. Beginning care when the police authorize you to
C. beginning immediate care as you would with any other patient
D. Providing care to the patient while manipulating the scene minimally

A

D. Providing care to the patient while manipulating the scene minimally

157
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the use of an escort vehicle when en route to an emergency call is true?
A. An escort vehicle will allow you to arrive at the scene quicker
B. To avoid getting separated from the escort vehicle, you should closely follow it.
C. An escort vehicle should be used only if you are unfamiliar with the patient’s location
D. With an escort vehicle, the risk of an accident at an intersection is reduced significantly

A

C. An escort vehicle should be used only if you are unfamiliar with the patient’s location

158
Q

You arrive at the scene of a fall where you encounter a male patient who fell approximately 30 feet and landed on his head. He is unconscious with an open head injury and expose brain matter. Upon identify this patient as an organ donor , you should
A. Request authorization from medical control not to initiate care
B. Manage the patient aggressively and provide a rapid transport
C. Recognize that the patient’s injuries disqualify him as an organ donor
D. Provide supportive care only because the patient likely will not survive

A

B. Manage the patient aggressively and provide a rapid transport

159
Q

You are giving a presentation to a group of laypeople on the importance of calling EMS immediately for cardiac arrest patients. What point should you emphasize the most?
A. Laypeople are incapable of providing adequate CPR
B. Rapid transport significantly reduce patient mortality
C. CPR and defibrillation are key factors in patients survival
D. Cardiac drug therapy is the most important EMS treatment

A

C. CPR and defibrillation are key factors in patients survival

160
Q

As an EMT basic, your primary responsibility is to
A. Provide competent patient care
B. Ensure the safety of your partner
C. Keep yourself as safe as possible
D. Transport all patients to the hospital

A

C. Keep yourself as safe as possible

161
Q 
Your arrival at the scene of a traffic accident in which multiple vehicles are involved. You see at least two patients who appeared to be unconscious. Your first action should be to
A. Began triaging the patients
B. Begin a mediate patient care
C. Notify medical control for advice
D. Request an additional ambulance
A

D. Request an additional ambulance

162
Q

When providing care to multiple patients at the scene of a mass casualty incident, your goal should remain focus on
A. Transporting patients to the hospital
B. Immobilizing all patients at the scene
C. Initiating CPR for those in cardiac arrest
D. Keeping all bystanders at a safe distance

A

A. Transporting patients to the hospital

163
Q 
Immediately upon leaving the scene with a patient, you should
A. Contact medical control
B. Notify the receiving facility
C. Advise dispatch of your status
D. Can't read the answer
A

C. Advise dispatch of your status

164
Q

When you arrive at a mass casualty incident at which other ambulance already have arrived, you should first
A. Repeat the triage process
B. Report to the incident commander
C. Initiate care for the most critically injured patients
D. Obtain information from the fire service commander

A

B. Report to the incident commander

165
Q

During the triage process, which of the following injuries or conditions would classify a patient as a high priority?
A. Pulselessness and apnea
B. Unilateral femur
C. partial thickness burns with no respiratory difficulty
D. A large avulsion to the arm and an altered mental status

A

D. A large avulsion to the arm and an altered mental status

166
Q

The role of a triage officer at a mass casualty incident should be assumed by the
A. Most knowledgeable EMS provider
B. EMS provider with the most years of experience
C. First EMS provider who is willing to perform the task
D. EMS medical director via telephone communication

A

A. Most knowledgeable EMS provider

167
Q

Information that would be of least pertinence when educating the public on injury prevention is
A. How to provide rescue breathing
B. The proper usage of child safety seats
C. Building a child proof fence around a pool
D. Teaching children to wear bicycle helmets

A

A. How to provide rescue breathing

168
Q

You are called to a resident for a woman in cardiac arrest. As you are initiating CPR, the patient’s husband present you with an unsigned document that states “do not resuscitate”. Your most appropriate action in this case should be to
A. Stop all resuscitative efforts in accordance with the document
B. Stop CPR until the document can be validated by a physician
C. Continue CPR until you have contacted medical control for guidance
D. Contact medical control prior to beginning any resuscitation measures

A

C. Continue CPR until you have contacted medical control for guidance

169
Q

According to the United States department of transportation EMT basic national standard curriculum, minimum staffing for a basic life support ambulance includes
A. An EMT basic who functions as the driver
B. At least one EMT basic in the patient compartment
C. At least two EMT basic in the patient compartment
D. A minimum of two EMT basic in the ambulance

A

B. At least one EMT basic in the patient compartment

170
Q

The ultimate goal of any EMS quality improvement program should be to
A. Deliver a consistently high standard of care to all patient who are encountered
B. make sure that all personnel receive an adequate number of continuing education credits
C. Provide EMS protocol to all EMS and hold them accountable when protocols are not adhered to
D. Provide recognition to all EMTs who have demonstrated consistently in providing competent patient care

A

A. Deliver a consistently high standard of care to all patient who are encountered

171
Q

You are caring for a six-year-old child with a swollen, painful deformity to the left forearm. As you communicate with the parents of this child, you should
A. Ask them repeatedly how the child was injured
B. Use appropriate medical terminology at all times
C. Make sure that they remain aware of what you are doing
D. Tell them that the child will be transported to the hospital

A

C. Make sure that they remain aware of what you are doing

EMT (12 decks)

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