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MS3 - Hospitalized Adult Care > Emma Ramahi Internal Medicine Review > Flashcards

Emma Ramahi Internal Medicine Review Flashcards

1
Q

Which leads indicate left circumflex occlusion?

A

I
aVL
V4-V6

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2
Q

Symptoms of a right-sided MI include _______________.

A
  • JVD
  • Hypotension
  • Tachycardia
  • No pulsus paradoxus
  • Lungs clear

Treat with fluids –NO nitro.

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3
Q

Contraindications to thrombolytic therapy in MI include _______________.

A

bleed, recent surgery, and CHI

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4
Q

The most sensitive marker of a repeat MI within two days is _________________.

A

myoglobin (normalizes within 24 hours –faster than CKMB at 72 hours)

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5
Q

List three indications for CABG.

A
  • Left-main disease
  • ≥3 vessel disease
  • ≥ 2 vessel disease in a diabetic
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6
Q

What medicines must you discontinue before a stress test?

A
  • Beta-blockers
  • CCBs
  • Digoxin
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7
Q

Describe some features that make a stress test undoable.

A
  • LBBB

* Baseline ST elevation

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8
Q

Positive stress test is given by _______________.

A

hypotension, ST elevation, or pain

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9
Q

The most common cause of death post-MI is ____________.

A

arrhythmia

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10
Q

Persistent ST elevation 1 month after an MI is ____________.

A

ventricular aneurysm

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11
Q

“Cannon A waves” (prominent JVD pulsations) after an MI could indicate ____________.

A

3rd-degree heart block

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12
Q

Prinzmetal angina is usually worse _____________.

A

at night

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13
Q

The diagnostic test for Prinzmetal angina is ____________.

A

ergonovine

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14
Q

The delta wave passes through the bundle of ____________.

A

Kent

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15
Q

What drugs are contraindicated in WPW?

A

Anything that slows conduction through the AV node. Doing this causes a greater dissociation between the bundle of Kent and the AV node, thus increasing the likelihood of arrhythmia.

  • Beta-blockers
  • CCB
  • Digoxin
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16
Q

Low amplitude QRS waves could indicate?

A

Tamponade

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17
Q

Late systolic murmur that increases with valsalva?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

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18
Q

The trifecta of medicines for acute pulmonary edema is ____________.

A

Lasix, morphine, and nitrates

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19
Q

What are the two reversible causes of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Alcoholic anc hemochromatosis

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20
Q

What two bacteria can cause lung abscesses?

A
  • S. aureus

* Anaerobes

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21
Q

If a pleural effusion is transudative and has low glucose, then it is likely _____________.

A

RA

22
Q

The three criteria that define ARDS: ____________.

A
  • PaO2/FiO2 < 200
  • PCWP < 18
  • Bilateraly infiltrates on CXR
23
Q

The best prognostic indicator for COPD is _____________.

A

FEV1

24
Q

Upper lobe lesions with eggshell calcifications?

A

Silicosis

25
Q

In addition to pleural plaques, those with asbestosis also have ____________.

A

reticulonodular opacifications

26
Q

Lower lobe infiltrates with thermophilic actinomyces?

A

Farmer’s lung (aka hypersensitvity pneumonitis)

27
Q

Popcorn calcifications in the lung are indicative of ___________.

A

hamaromas

28
Q

Concentric lung calcifications are indicative of ____________.

A

granulomas

29
Q

Ptosis that improves with upward gaze is suggestive of ______________.

A

LEMS

30
Q

Peripheral cavitations with early mets is characteristic of ______________.

A

large cell carcinoma

31
Q

What does an ALT>AST ratio suggest?

A

HAV

32
Q

Antimitochondrial antibody is positive in ___________.

A

PBC

33
Q

Meningitis in a person who’s recently had brain surgery is likely caused by ___________.

A

Staph

34
Q

The most common cause of pneumonia in young, healthy people is _____________.

A

Mycoplasma

35
Q

Old smokers with COPD are more likely to get pneumonia from ____________.

A

H. influenzae

36
Q

The best first step in evaluating PNA is ______________.

A

CXR

37
Q

List three indications for prophylactic antibiotics for endocarditis.

A
  • Mechanical valve
  • Prior endocarditis
  • VSD/ASD
38
Q

What are some of the more obscure presentations of HIV?

A
  • Thrombocytopenia and fatigue

* Bilateral Bell’s palsy

39
Q

What HAART drug causes macrocytic anemia and GI upset?

A

Zidovudine

40
Q

HAART drug most likely to cause pancreatitis?

A

Didanosine

41
Q

Psychotic symptoms from HAART?

A

Efavirenz

42
Q

Kidney stones and HAART?

A

Indinavir

43
Q

Pneumonia and elevated LDH?

A

PCP

44
Q

Add ________________ to PCP that is progressively getting worse.

A

steroids

45
Q

Which diarrhea is acid-fast positive?

A

Cryptosporidium

46
Q

AIDS and multiple ring-enhancing lesions?

A

Toxo

Lymphoma is usually singular.

47
Q

HSV encephalitis often causes what neuro symptom?

A

Deja vu

48
Q

Never do __________ on a patient with neutropenic fever.

A

DRE

49
Q

Tick bite with elevated ALT?

A

Ehrliciosis (give doxycycline)

50
Q

Describe the pathophysiology and treatment of RTA I.

A
  • Failure of the distal tubule to acidify the urine, resulting in buildup of acid in the blood.
  • Give bicarb.

MS3 - Hospitalized Adult Care (30 decks)

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