Emma Holiday Review Flashcards

1
Q

Most important factors in Goldman’s index for perioperative risk

A

CHF status and ejection fraction

(<35 %, no surgery for you! <60% as a aortic regurgitator, also no surgery for you!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Metformin in periop period

A

We have patients stop it because there is a risk of lactic acidosis in the perioperative period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The conventional wisdom for warfarin is to discontinue 5 days preop, but what INR do we want to see by the time someone comes in for surgery to consider it safe?

A

1.5 or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Insulin prior to surgery

A

If a patient is on insulin, they should be instructed to take half their morning dose prior to surgery, since they will be NPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When does a patient on dialysis need to have a dialysis session prior to surgery?

A

24 hours prior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Four things you need to know about ventilators

A
  • Assist control lets patients determine the rate (down to a certain threshold), but then assists by delivering a tidal volume
  • Pressure support does not modulate rate at all, but will ensure a minimum pressure is reached – important weaning setting
  • CPAP – patient must have their own respiratory drive
  • PEEP… it’s peep.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which is better to adjust to modulate CO2 blowoff: Tidal volume or rate?

A

Tidal volume

This minimizes the effects of dead space ventilation, which would be a significant portion of the minute ventilation if you modulated rate instead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hyponatremia pathway

A
  1. Check Na
  2. Check Plasma Osm
  3. Volume status exam
  4. Urine studies (if necessary)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If a patient has SIADH without a good etiology. . .

A

. . . get a CXR, particularly if they are a smoker

Small cell lung cancer may present with SIADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Clear-cut criteria for 3% saline

A
  1. Severely symptomatic hyponatremia: Seizures, altered mental status
  2. Na < 120 mEq/L
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Clinical characteristics of central pontine myelinolysis

A
  • Flaccid quadriplegia
  • Motor abnormalities
  • Respiratory paralysis
  • Cranial nerve abnormalities
  • AMS change/lethargy/coma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If you correct hyponatremia at a rate greater than ___, you are at risk for ___.

If you correct hypernatremia at a rate greater than ___, you are at risk for ___.

A

If you correct hyponatremia at a rate greater than 6-8 mEq/L/day, you are at risk for central pontine myelinolysis.

If you correct hypernatremia at a rate greater than 12 mEq/L/day, you are at risk for cerebral edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why do we give topical abx rather than IV or oral abx for burn patients?

A

It breeds resistance very quickly in this population

So, instead we use: bacitracin, silver nitrate, silver sulfadiazine, sulfamylon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rule of 9’s (child vs adult)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Quick takeaways on the three main burn emollients

A
  • Silver sulfadiazine: Doesn’t penetrate eschar, don’t use if you suspect active infection, may cause leukopenia
  • Silver nitrate:Doesn’t penetrate escharthat well, ok for possibly infected wounds, side effectshyponatremiaandhypokalemia
  • Sulfamylon (aka Mafenide acetate): Does penetrate eschar, best for clearly infected wounds, painful, may cause metabolic acidosis due to inhibition of carbonic anhydrase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

First best step when someone comes in with electrical burn

A

EKG

You are worried about rhabdo for sure, but the arrhythmias are what is going to kill this person in the next 24 hours.

Put them on telemetry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Patient comes in with an electric burn. Their EKG looks good. They start producing red urine. Urine dipstick shows 3+ blood but no red cells on microscopy. What is the first test you want for this patient?

A

BMP for potassium

Remember, rhabdo puts at risk for renal failure, but the potassium is the most acutely dangerous aspect. It can cause fatal arrhythmias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In the setting of suspected tracheal injury with subcutaneous emphysema, you need to intubate, but how do you do it?

A

Carefully with a fiberoptic bronchoscope

Don’t go in blind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Indications to take someone with hemothorax to OR

A
  • > 1.5 L output from chest tube initially
  • > 200 cc/hr x 4 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pain control for flail chest

A

Nerve block

DO NOT give opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

After needle decompression in tension pneumothorax, . . .

A

. . . add a chest tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If you have clinical suspicion for tamponade OR tension peumothorax based on your exam. . .

A

. . . JUST TREAT

Don’t bother getting an echo or a CXR. These are high morality conditions. Just stick a needle in there.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

On a CT, acute blood is . . .

A

. . . bright

While chronic blood is dark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Target paCO2 for therapeutic hyperventilation in elevated ICP

A

28-32 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Patient is in the ER after epigastric trauma. They are stable but have persistent and significant epigastric pain. CT shows retroperitoneal fluid, but no other obvious signs of injury. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Duodenal rupture

Remember, CT is bad at picking up injuries to hollow viscus organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Extraperitoneal vs intraperitoneal bladder rupture treatment

A

Extraperitoneal: actually not a big deal. Conservative therapy, will heal on its own.

Intraperitoneal: big deal. Take to the OR. May cause peritonitis if it hasn’t already.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If a kid is skateboarding, falls, and lands on his outstretched hand, then comes in to the ER with severe pain in the anatomic snuffbox, what is broken?

A

The scaphoid

Note: X-ray is often negative, so even if X-ray is clear, have a high index of suspicion.

28
Q

Boxer’s fracture

A

Fracture that you get by punching something hard

Breaks a metacarpal, usually the 4th or 5th metacarpal

29
Q

POD#1 necrotizing fasciitis

A

If someone looks SAS on POD#1, this may be the case

Caused by GAS or C. perfringens that spreads along Scarpa’s fascia

Treat with OR and debridement with IV penicillin

30
Q

Genetic defect that causes malignant hyperthermia

A

Ryanodine receptor (RYR1) mutations account for more than 50% of case

This receptor is also the target of dantrolene, which is why it works for MH!

31
Q

“Salmon colored fluid leaking from painful incision”

A

Buzz phrase for dehiscence

32
Q

A wound infection with drainage often requires. . .

A

. . . wound exploration, debridement, and packing, but NOT NECESSARILY antibiotics

33
Q

Treatment for deep vein thrombophlebitis (like septic pelvic thrombophlebitis)

A

Antibiotics, but also heparin

The clot is providing physical shelter to the bacteria and making their environment poorly penetrable to the antibiotic, so you need the heparin to dissolve the clot in order for the antibiotics to act

34
Q

Where do you draw the line for whether or not to tap a small pleural effusion?

A

> 1 cm, it has to be tapped.

35
Q

“Transudative pleural effusion with a low glucose”

A

Buzz phrase for rheumatic effusion associated with RA

36
Q

Light’s Criteria

A
37
Q

When do we intervene in spontaneous primary pneumothorax?

A
  • Recurrence (same or opposite side)
  • Bilateral pneumothoraces
  • Presence of blebs
  • Lung cannot completely re-expand after treatment
  • Occupation where a pneumothorax may result in disaster (pilot, for example)
38
Q

1st line for lung abscess

A
  • Clindamycin or beta lactam
  • NOT drainage – one of the few abscesses where drainage is NOT first-line
39
Q

“popcorn calcification” in a lung nodule

A

Likely a hamartoma, which is benign

40
Q

Lung cancer with “haluronidase-high pleural effusion”

A

Adenocarcinoma

41
Q

PTHrP is produced by __ lung cancer

A

PTHrP is produced by squamous cell lung cancer

42
Q

What cancer most likes to cause Pancoast syndrome?

A

Squamous cell lung cancer

43
Q

Lambert-Eaton mysathenia is associated with. . .

A

. . . small cell lung cancer

44
Q

Criteria for a diagnosis of ARDS

A
  • Bilateral infiltrates on CXR
  • PaO2/FiO2 < 300
  • PCWP < 18 mmHg (rule out cardiac etiology)
45
Q

“Holosystolic murmur with late rumble”

A

VSD

46
Q

“Continuous, washing-machine-like murmur”

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

47
Q

“Heart murmur that increases with inspiraton”

A

Right-sided

48
Q

Dysphagia worse with hot and cold liquids

A

Diffuse esophageal spasm / Corkscrew esophagus

49
Q

Conservative therapy for DES and achalasia

A

CCBs or nitrates

50
Q

Krukenberg Tumor

A

Metastatic disease to the ovaries characterized by mucin-rich signet-ring adenocarcinoma that primarily arises from a gastrointestinal site (specifically the stomach)

51
Q

Blumer Shelf Tumor

A

Represents metastatic seeding of a primary gastrointestinal tumor (usually stomach) into the caudal portion of the peritoneal cavity, or the pouch of Douglas.

May be detected on digital rectal exam

Sx: lower abdominal pain, change in bowel habits, tenesmus

52
Q

Gastric lymphoma is associated with __, MALT lymphoma of the stomach is associated with __.

A

Gastric lymphoma is associated with AIDS, MALT lymphoma of the stomach is associated with H. pylori.

53
Q

Menetrier disease

A

Massive overgrowth of mucous cells in the mucosa of the stomach, resulting in large ruggae. Also results in a protein-losing gastropathy and hypoalbuminemia. Often presents as epigastric abdominal pain.

54
Q

Gastric vs duodenal ulcer

A

Gastric ulcers hurt more after eating,

duodenal ulcers hurt less after eating

55
Q

Best test for H. pylori

A

Endoscopy + biopsy

56
Q

___ suppresses gastrin production, except in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A

Secretin suppresses gastrin production, except in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

57
Q

Treatment of SMA syndrome

A
  1. Restore weight and nutrition (often resolves SMA syndrome without surgery)
  2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (if the above fails)
58
Q

Three most likely organisms in an intrabdominal abscess

A
  • E. coli
  • Bacteroides
  • Enterococcus
59
Q

Two abscesses that are NOT treated with drainage first

A
  1. Lung (try antibiotics)
  2. Non-echinococcal amoebic liver abscess (try metronidazole)
60
Q

Echonococcal cysts are treated by. . .

A

. . . surgical removal IN ONE PIECE + albendazole

61
Q

Two liver abscesses you need to know

A

Entamoeba histolytica – looks like a regular abscess, but person is extremely sick with fevers, chills, hypotension, eosinophilia. Treat w/ metronidazole.

Echinococcus – hydatid/daughter cysts, eosinophilia, anaphylaxis if ruptured. Treat w/ surgical removal and albendazole.

62
Q

1 site for GI carcinoid tumor

A

Appendiceal!!!

63
Q

People with carcinoid syndrome often become deficient in ____

A

People with carcinoid syndrome often become deficient in niacin

Serotonin and niacin are both derived from tryptophan. If all of the tryptophan is being funneled into making serotonin. . . there is none left to make niacin!

Niacin deficiency causes pellagra (the 3D’s of B3: diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia)

64
Q

When to do which surgery for appendiceal carcinoid tumor

A

< 2 cm, no lymph nodes positive: Appendectomy

> 2 cm and/or lymph nodes positive: R hemicolectomy

65
Q

Threshold for treating Ogilvie’s syndrome

A

10 cm dilation of the cecum

66
Q

Electrolyte disorder that may contribute to ileus

A

Hypokalemia