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Year 3 > Emergency Y3 sem 1 > Flashcards

Emergency Y3 sem 1 Flashcards

1
Q

middle meningeal artery

A

extradural haematoma

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2
Q

does not cross suture line

A

extradural haematoma

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3
Q

does not cross the midline

A

subdural haematoma

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4
Q

head injury - period of improved neuro symptoms/consciousness followed by rapid decline

A

extradural haematoma

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5
Q

ruptured bridging vein/ outermost layer of meningeal layer

A

subdural haematoma

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6
Q

head injury in elderly/alcoholics

A

subdural haematoma

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7
Q

hyperdense signal in the subarachniod space

A

subarachnoid haemorrhage

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8
Q

hyperdense biconVEX lens appearance

A

extradual haematoma

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9
Q

hyeprdense binconcave

A

subdural haeamtoma

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10
Q

ruptured berry aneurysm

A

SAH

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11
Q

UMN + LMN MND

A

ALS

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12
Q

LMN only MND

A

Progressive muscle atrophy

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13
Q

UMN only MND

A

primary lateral sclerosis

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14
Q

parkinsonism that doesnt respond to levodopa, affecting LL only

A

vascular parkinsonism

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15
Q

antipsychotic type causing metabolic syndrome

A

all atypicals

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16
Q

typical antipsychotic side effect - restlessness, restless legs

A

akithesia

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17
Q

involuntary spasms early after typical antipyschotic exposure

A

acute distonia

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18
Q

repetitive involuntary movements usually affecting face/ mouth

A

tardive dyskinesia

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19
Q

time span for tardive dyskinesia to set in

A

years after typical use

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20
Q

all of the following:
- unilateral weakness +/- sensory affecting FAL
- homogenous hemianopia
- cerebral dysfunction - dysphagia/neglect

A

TACS

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21
Q

2/3 of the following:
- unilateral weakness +/- sensory affecting FAL
- homogenous hemianopia
- cerebral dysfunction - dysphagia/neglect

A

PACS

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22
Q

one of the following:
- cranial nerve palsy + contralateral motor/sensory
- bilateral motor/sensory def
- eye movement disorder
- cerebellar dysfunction
- homonomous hemianopia

A

POCS

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23
Q

one of the following
- pure sensory stroke
- pure motor
- ataxic hemiparesis
- sensorymotor stroke

A

LACS

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24
Q

fried egg appearance on histology

A

oligodendrocytoma

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25
Q

brian tumour in frontal lobe causing seizure

A

oligodendrocytoma

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26
Q

most common primary brain tumour in kids

A

astrocytoma

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27
Q

immediate management of TIA

A

aspirin 300mg

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28
Q

temporal lobe herniates inferiorly - 3rd nerve palsy

A

uncal herniation

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29
Q

cerebellar herniaties inferiorly compression the medulla - resp depression

A

tonsillar herniation

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30
Q

Dx for LEMS

A

nerve conduction studies
anti-VGCC Abs

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31
Q

anti-vccc antibodies

A

LEMS

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32
Q

1st line for LEMS

A

3,4-diaminopyridine

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33
Q

1st line tx for Gillian barre

A

plasma exchange

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34
Q

drug to reduce SSRI side effects

A

mirtazipine

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35
Q

dry mouth + constipation

A

anticholinergics s/e

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36
Q

anticholinergic antidepressant

A

TCAs

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37
Q

1st line to assist detoxification

A

chlordiazepoxide

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38
Q

scan for parkinsonism

A

DaT scan

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39
Q

anorexia high risk

A

BMI<13
temp < 34
HR < 40
systolic < 80
prolonged QT
unable to rise from squat

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40
Q

right testicular vein drainage

A

IVC

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41
Q

left testicular vein drainage

A

left renal vein

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42
Q

high kidney is higher?

A

left
right is compressed by liver

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43
Q

adjacent layers to the kidney

A
  1. kidney
  2. renal capsule
  3. PERIrenal fat
  4. renal fascia
  5. PARArenal fat
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44
Q

testicular lymph drainage

A

para-aorta lymph nodes

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45
Q

spinal level of kidneys

A

T12-L3

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46
Q

IgGs directed against alpha-3 subunit of type IV collagen

A

anti-GBM disease

47
Q

EM - cellular crescents + focal necrosis
IF - linear IgG deposits

48
Q

LM - spike and dome (silver stain)
IF - granular deposits along glomerular BM

A

membraneous glomerulonephritis

49
Q

LM - mesangiel hypercellular
IF - IgA deposit in mesangium

A

IgA nephropathy

50
Q

LM - hypercellular glomeruli, tram track appearance

A

MPGN - membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

51
Q

MPO / pANCA

A

microscopic polyangitis
+ Eosinophilic GPA

52
Q

PR3/ cANCA

53
Q

EM - effacement of podocyte not processes

A

minimal change disease

54
Q

kimmelstiel wilson lesions

A

diabetic nephropathy

55
Q

liver cysts + cerebral aneurysms

A

polycystic kidneys

56
Q

scrotal lump associated with renal cell carcinoma

A

left sided varicocele

57
Q

“bag of worms”

A

varicocele

58
Q

parotid gland swelling + orchitis

59
Q

quinalone S/Es

A
  • tendonitis
  • lower seizure threshold
60
Q

causes of epididymo-orchitis?

A
  • enteric organism - E.coli
  • chlamydia
  • ghonorrhea
  • mumps
61
Q

Tx of epididymo-orchitis

A
  • olafoxacin
  • levo
    (quinolones)
62
Q

testicular torsion picture, longer onset + fever

A

epididymo-orchitis

63
Q

benign renal tumour

A

oncocytoma

64
Q

malignant renal tumour

A

chromophobe
clear cell
papillary
collecting duct

65
Q

mahogany brown + central stellate scar

A

oncocytoma

66
Q

raisonoid nuclei

A

chromophobe

67
Q

commonest renal cell tumours

A
  1. clear cell
  2. papillary renal
68
Q

tumour invading renal veins + up vena cava

A

clear cell renal cell carcinoma

69
Q

chromosome of ADPCKD

70
Q

chromosome in ARPCKD

71
Q

what raises PSA levels

A

ejaculation
prostate stim
BPH
spironolactone
prostatitis

72
Q

prostate cancer grading

A

GLEASON
3+3 - lowest
5+5 - highest grade

73
Q

crude touch + pressure

A

anterior spinothalamic

74
Q

pain + temperature

A

lateral spinothalamic

75
Q

DCML sensation

A

fine touch
proprioception
vibration

76
Q

pyramidal (vol control) tracts

A

corticospinal
corticobulbar

77
Q

tract for most voluntary movement of body

A

lateral corticospinal

78
Q

where do corticobulbar fibres synapse

A

onto motor nucei of cranial nerves

79
Q

DCML for T6+

A

lateral DCML
cuneatus

80
Q

DCML for below T6

A

medial
fasciculus grascilis

81
Q

where do anterolateral fibres decussate

A

basically as soon as they enter the spinal cord

82
Q

where do DCML fibres decussate

A

medulla oblongata

83
Q

party cystic tumour,
heterogenous, bright yellow

A

clear cell carcinoma

84
Q

raisonoid nuclei, perinuclear haloes

A

chromophobe

85
Q

gold standard for dialysis access

A

arterivenous fistula

86
Q

mainly removes solutes via diffusion

A

haemodialysis

87
Q

mainly removes solutes via convection

A

haemofiltration

88
Q

methods of solute removal in haemodialysis

A

diffusion > convection > adsorption

89
Q

MOA for peritoneal dialysis

A

solute removal by diffusion across peritoneal membrane

90
Q

when should acute HD be administered

A

resistant hyperkalaemia
eGFR < 7ml/min
urea > 40 mmol/L
unresponsive or symptomatic acidosis pH 7.15

91
Q

complication of hyperuricemia

A

disequilibrium syndrome > cerebral oedema

92
Q

AKI stage 1

A

CR
increase > 26
increase >1.5-1.9

URINE
<0.5mL/kg/hr - 6 hours

93
Q

AKI stage 2

A

CR
increase >2-2.9

URINE
<0.5mL/kg/hr - 12 hours

94
Q

AKI stage 3

A

CR
>3x increase
or to > 354

URINE
<0.3mL/kg/hr - 24 hours or anuria for 12

95
Q

most common stone

A

calcium oxalate

96
Q

kidney stone not visible on XR

97
Q

stone commonly forming stag horn calculus

98
Q

pathophysiology for formation of struvite stone

A

bacteria hydrolyse urea in urine into ammonia - forms struvite

99
Q

gold standard ix for kidney stones

A

non contrast CT KUB

100
Q

pain relief for stones

A

IM diclofenac

101
Q

when do stones need a ‘watch and wait’ approach

A

if less than 5mm

102
Q

medication helping spontaneous passage of stones

A

tamsulosin

103
Q

surgical intervention for stones

A
  • ESWL better
  • ureteroscopy + laser lithotripsy available in Tayside
104
Q

S/E of alpha blockers - tamulosin

A

postural hypotension

105
Q

S/E of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors

A

sexual dysfunction - reduced testosterone

106
Q

calculate alcohol unit

A

(volume ml x alcohol %) / 1000

107
Q

binge drink?

A

6 units women
8 units men

108
Q

how long for delirium tremens

A

24-72 hours after withdraw

109
Q

how is wernicke-korsakoff prevented - alcohol withdrawal

A

parbinex / high dose vit B,
then long term oral thiamine

110
Q

deficiency in wernickes?

A

B1/ thiamine

111
Q

confusion
oculomotor disturbance
ataxia

A

wernickes - encephalopathy

112
Q

memory impairment
behavioural changes
alcohol withdrawal

Year 3 (5 decks)

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