Emergency Critical Care Flashcards

1
Q

What does the the RCVS state regarding emergency care practices provide?

A
  • Must take steps to provide 2-4 hour emergency first aid and pain relief
  • Practice can provide this
  • Can use specific emergency care provider
  • Should never be refused to an owner
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2
Q

What can be done once initial first aid treatment has been given?

A
  • Safely examined by RVN or VS
  • Ascertain if needing urgent treatment or can wait
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3
Q

What does the Veterinary Surgeons Act 1966 say regarding first aid treatment?

A
  • Anyone can perform animal first aid to save life, prevent suffering or prevent condition deteriorating
  • This can be used if VS or RVN not available
  • Owners can administer first aid to patients
  • This includes CPCR, pressure on haemorrhage, anything preserving life
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4
Q

What are the objectives of first aid?

A
  • Preserve life
  • Reduce pain and discomfort
  • Prevent further deterioration
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5
Q

Who is best to perform first aid if a VS is unavailable?

A
  • RVN have greater knowledge and skill base
  • Have clinical experience with emergencies
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6
Q

What do successful first aid outcomes depend on?

A
  • Early recognition of severity
  • Good communication with owner and team
  • Implementing correct treatment
  • Careful and regular monitoring
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7
Q

Rules for emergency practice

A
  • Remain calm
  • Be prepared
  • Don’t put self, owner, staff at risk (pain causes aggression)
  • Ensure safe environment
  • Ensure animal at no further risk
  • Assess severity of injury/illness
  • Administer appropriate FA
  • Contact VS ASAP
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8
Q

What is often the first point of call between owners and the practice in emergency stituations?

A
  • Telephone calls
  • Owners often distressed
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9
Q

What needs to be remembered when asking questions on the phone in emergency situations?

A
  • Reassure they are priority and being heard
  • Need to see if life threatening
  • If so, bring to practice immediately
  • Question further once arrived
  • Any delay can impact survival
  • Be concise and polite
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10
Q

Why is a veterinary call out not appropriate in emergencies?

A
  • No access to equipment needed
  • Limited oxygen supply as mobile smaller
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11
Q

What emergencies need to be seen without delay?

A
  • Respiratory distress
  • Severe haemorrhage
  • Collapse/unconsciousness
  • Rapid + progressive abdominal distension
  • Inability to urinate
  • Sudden onset neuro abnormalities
  • Severe vomiting, especially if depressed
  • Severe D+, especially if haemorrhagic
  • Witnessed ingestion of toxin
  • Sudden weakness/inability to stand
  • Extreme pain
  • Open fractures
  • Dystocia
  • RTA
  • Head injuries
  • Prolapsed eyeball
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12
Q

What conditions need seeing quickly but not immediately?

A
  • Mild to moderate V+
  • Non-haemorrhagic D+
  • Small wounds with minimal blood loss
  • Discomfort when passing U+
  • Polyuria/polydipsia
  • Weight baring lameness
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13
Q

What important information is needed when discussing emergencies with clients?

A
  • Patient and client details
  • Characteristics of patient
  • Any medication, last dose
  • Exact nature of problem
  • When started
  • Progressively got worse?
  • Happened before? Treated?
  • Depressed or lethargic?
  • Any other symptoms?
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14
Q

What information should be taken at the start of an emergency phone call?

A
  • Client name and number
  • In case call cuts off
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15
Q

Rules for emergency telephone conversations

A
  • Introduce self and practice
  • Calm, polite, reassuring
  • Find problem quickly, is life threatening?
  • Directions to practice
  • Advise alternative transport
  • How to safely transport pet
  • Ask ETA
  • Get client contact details
  • Are they registered?
  • If not get history from registered vets
  • Estimate cost of consult, especially in OOH
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16
Q

What advice should be given to clients transporting their pets during emergencies?

A
  • Pain can cause aggression
  • Client must stay safe
  • Cats in carriers
  • Dogs in safe area, crate?
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17
Q

What can be used in an RTA for the client to transport their pet?

A

Parcel shelf

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18
Q

What is important in practice when waiting for an emergency to arrive?

A
  • Communication
  • Prepare equipment
  • Paperwork, room, equipment, consumables, oxygen, crash box, muzzle, restraint equipment, stretcher, other transport equipment
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19
Q

What is triage?

A
  • Prioritisation of critically ill or injured patients
  • Take less than 5 minutes
  • Good history taking essential
  • Classified into 4 main sections
  • Attend to in seconds, attended to within hour, within a few hours, within 24 hours
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20
Q

What emergencies fall into Class 1 triage emergencies, to be attended to in seconds?

A
  • Catastrophic and dying
  • Cardiopulmonary arrest
  • Respiratory failure
  • Unconsciousness
  • Severe trauma
  • GDV
  • Penetrating thoracic wounds
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21
Q

What emergencies fall into Class II triage emergencies, to be attended to within under an hour?

A
  • Shock
  • Multiple injuries
  • Toxicity
  • Penetrating abdominal wounds
  • Haemorrhage
  • Dystocia
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22
Q

What conditions fall into Class III triage emergencies, to be attended to within a few hours?

A
  • Open fractures
  • Blunt injuries without altered mentation or shock
  • Profuse D+, not dehydrated
  • V+
  • Urethral obstruction
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23
Q

What conditions fall into Class IV triage emergencies, to be attended to within 24 hours?

A
  • Lameness
  • Anorexia
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24
Q

What is a primary survey in emergencies?

A
  • How likely to go into imminent cardiopulmonary arrest
  • A - Airway patency
  • B - Breathing
  • C - Circulation; HR + pulses
  • Only take 30 seconds
  • If concerned should start CPCR immediately while a VS is called
  • If okay, major body system approach can be considered
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25
Q

What are the 3 major body systems to be assessed during emergencies?

A
  • Cardiovascular
  • Respiratory
  • Neurological
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26
Q

How should the cardiovascular system be assessed and monitored during emergencies?

A
  • Auscultation of heart; clear/muffled
  • HR and PR
  • Synchronised HR + PR
  • Pulse quality; normal, bounding, weak, thready
  • MM colour
  • CRT, normal, fast, prolonged
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27
Q

How should the respiratory system be assessed and monitored during emergencies?

A

AUSCULTATE CHEST
- Clear, crackly, muffled?
- Dorsal or ventral aspect?
- Dorsal = air; pneumothorax
- Ventral = fluid; pleural space disease
- RESPIRATORY EFFORT
- Increased on inspire, expire, both?
- No chest movement but abdominal movement?; indicate tension pnemothorax
- Posture when attempting breath
- Abducted elbows/trying to stand = orthopnoea
- Extension of neck + paradoxical abdominal breathing are signs of resp distress
RESP RATE
MM COLOUR

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28
Q

How should the neurological system be assessed and monitored during emergencies?

A

GAIT
- Paresis (weakness)
- Plegia (paralysis)
- Quadraplegia (4), paraplegia (2), hemiplegia (one side), hypermetria (exaggerated limb movements)
MENTATION
- Alert
- Obtunded (dull, depressed)
- Stuporous (only roused by pain)
- Coma (unconscious, unrousable)

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29
Q

How frequently should observations for critical patients be recorded?

A
  • Every 5 - 15 minutes
  • Trends can be observed
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30
Q

Why is it important to monitor the vital signs of critical patients?

A

To monitor patients response to treatment

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31
Q

What vital signs should be monitored in critical patients?

A
  • Temperature
  • Heart/pulse rate
  • Respiration rate
  • Lung auscultation
  • Mucous membrane colour
  • Capillary refill time
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32
Q

What is a pulse deficit?

A
  • No matching pulse to every heartbeat
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33
Q

How can pulse quality be described?

A

0 - Absent, not palpable
1+ Weak, thready
2+ Normal, strong,
3+ Bounding, full

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34
Q

What is hypokinetic pulse?

A
  • Weak, thready
  • Barely palpable
  • Easy to obliterate with light pressure
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35
Q

What is a normal pulse?

A
  • Easily palpable
  • Normal, strong pulse
  • Easily found
  • Obliterated by strong pressure
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36
Q

What is a hyperkinetic pulse?

A
  • Bounding, full pulses
  • Increased strength
  • Difficult to obliterate with fingers
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37
Q

What causes stridor?

A
  • High pitched breathing sound
  • Laryngeal paralysis
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38
Q

What causes stertor?

A
  • Snoring sound
  • BOAS
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39
Q

What causes a goose honk cough?

A
  • Tracheal collapse
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40
Q

What causes diminished or absent lung sounds?

A
  • Pleural effusion
  • Pneumothorax
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41
Q

What causes crackles in the lungs?

A
  • Pulmonary oedema
  • Pneumonia
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42
Q

What are the two methods of blood pressure monitoring?

A
  • Direct, invasive, arterial
  • Indirect, non-invasive
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43
Q

What is direct blood pressure measurement?

A
  • Place cannula directly into artery
  • Often dorsal pedal artery on hind limb
  • Used in emergency + referral
  • Required 24 hour nursing
  • Good for critical patients that may rapidly deteriorate
44
Q

What cautions should be taken when using direct blood pressure monitoring?

A
  • Clearly label to avoid drug injection
  • Care in patients with coagulopathies
45
Q

How is indirect blood pressure monitored?

A
  • Cuff around distal limb or tail
  • Inflated until pulse occluded
  • Slowly deflated until pulse returns and pressure read
46
Q

What devices are used to measure indirect blood pressure?

A

DOPPLER
- Gives systolic reading
OSCILLOMETRIC
- Systolic, diastolic and mean

47
Q

What are normal blood pressure readings?

A

SYSTOLIC
- Above 90mmHg
MEAN
- Above 70mmHg

48
Q

What size should a blood pressure cuff be?

A
  • Width = 40% of the circumference of the limb
  • Incorrect sizes = inaccurate results
  • Too small/tight = overestimate BP, gives high reading
  • Too large/loose = underestimate BP, gives low reading
49
Q

Why are times between BP readings important in indirect monitoring?

A
  • Multiple frequent readings can have tourniquet effect
  • Can cause ischaemic damage
50
Q

What percentage of body weight is water?

51
Q

What does water contain that is important for normal cell and organ function?

A

Electrolytes

52
Q

What are normal water losses from the body?

A
  • Faecal - 10-20ml/kg/24hrs
  • Urinary - 20ml/kg/24hrs
  • Inevitable losses (Respiratory, cutaneous) - 20ml/kg/24hrs
  • Total losses - 50-60ml/kg/24hrs
53
Q

What are the indications for fluid therapy?

A
  • Correction of dehydration
  • Expansion/support of intravascular volume
  • Correction of electrolyte disturbances
  • Correct history is important to determine appropriate fluid type and volumes for treatment
54
Q

What history should be taken to determine fluid needs?

A
  • Duration of illness
  • V+/D+ frequency
  • Water intake
  • Food intake
  • Blood loss
55
Q

Which electrolytes are found in the intracellular fluid?

A
  • Potassium
  • Magnesium
56
Q

Which electrolytes are found in the extracellular fluid?

A
  • Sodium
  • Chlorine
  • Bicarbonate
57
Q

What are the clinical signs of inadequate fluid balance?

A
  • Urine output < 1ml/kg/hr
  • Tacky/dry MMs
  • Prolonged CRT
  • Skin tenting
  • Sunken eyes
  • Weak peripheral pulses
  • Collapse/shock=severe dehydration and hypovolaemia
  • Tachycardia
  • Bradycardia (Cats)
58
Q

What is the normal urine output equation?

A

1-2ml/kg/hr

59
Q

How often should patients with low urine output be monitored?

A

Every 30 minutes

60
Q

What are the clinical signs of <5% dehydration?

A
  • No detectable clinical signs
  • Increased urine concentration
61
Q

What are the clinical signs of 5-6% dehydration?

A
  • Subtle loss of skin elasticity
  • Skin tenting
62
Q

What are the clinical signs of 6-8% dehydration?

A
  • Marked loss of skin elasticity
  • Slightly sunken eyes
  • Dry MMs
63
Q

What are the clinical signs of 10-12% dehydration?

A
  • Tented skin stays in place
  • Sunken eyes, protruded 3rd eyelids
  • Dry MMs
  • Progressive signs of hypovolaemic shock
64
Q

How is severity of dehydration estimated?

A
  • Percentage of body weight
  • Fluctuations in BW are most accurate way of measuring alterations in fluid balance
  • Patients should be weighed once a day
  • Critical patients should be weighed 2-3 times a day for IVFT plan amendments
65
Q

What is the calculation for fluid therapy for dehydrated patients?

A
  • % dehydrated x BW kg = ml dehydrated
  • This should be added to maintenance fluid amount
66
Q

What are crystalloid fluids?

A
  • Water based solutions
  • Easily leave IV space and enter all body compartments
  • Small molecules, electrolytes, other solutes
  • Osmotically active, able to cross capillary membrane
67
Q

What are the 3 different kinds of crystalloid solutions?

A

ISOTONIC
- Most common
- Osmolarity similar to plasma and ECF
HYPERTONIC
- Osmolarity > plasma
- Pulls water from interstitial and intracellular into IV space
HYPOTONIC
- Osmolarity < plasma
- Fluid moves to interstitial and intracellular spaces

68
Q

When are hypotonic crystalloids used?

A
  • Primary water loss and dehydration
  • No evidence of hypoperfusion
69
Q

When are hypertonic crystalloids used?

A
  • Small volumes of hypovolaemia
70
Q

What are colloid fluids?

A
  • Large molecule
  • Increase oncotic pressure of plasma
  • Holds fluid in IV space and increases IV volume
  • Don’t pass into interstitial spaces
  • More effective at maintaining IV volume
71
Q

What are natural colloids?

A
  • Whole blood
  • Human albumin
  • Plasma
72
Q

What are synthetic colloids?

A
  • Hydroxyethyl starched and gelatins
  • Used to be commonly used
73
Q

What method is used when creating fluid plans?

A

The five R’s

74
Q

What are the five R’s?

A

RESUSCITATION
- Correcting shock and life threatening deficits
ROUTINE MAINTENANCE
- Provide fluids to support homeostasis
REPLACEMENT
- Replace dehydration deficits
REDISTRIBUTION
- Move fluids + electrolytes between body compartments
REASSESSMENT
- Regular monitoring of IVFT

75
Q

What are the routes of fluid therapy administration?

A
  • Orally
  • Subcutaneously
  • Intravenously
  • Intraperitoneal
  • Rectal
  • Intraosseous
76
Q

What are the most common routes of fluid administration in emergency?

A
  • Intravenous
  • Intraosseous
77
Q

What are central lines?

A
  • Placed directly into jugular vein at entrance to right atrium
  • Can be multi-lumen with 2-4 ports
  • Allows multiple infusions of fluids and medications at same time
  • Allows repeat blood sampling
  • Used to monitor central venous blood pressure
78
Q

What is important to label in central lines?

A

Label ports to distinguish what each port is used for

79
Q

What hygiene requirements are needed for central lines?

A
  • Aseptic handling
  • Clear adhesive dressing to monitor site without handling
  • Dressing only changed when visibly contaminated or signs of phlebitis
80
Q

What are the types of central lines?

A
  • Over needle catheter; Seldinger
  • Through needle; Intracath
  • Peel away sheath; type of through needle
81
Q

What are the signs of overhydration and increased fluid balance?

A
  • Increased urine output
  • > 2ml/kg/hr
  • Coughing
  • Hypertension
  • Peripheral oedema
  • Clear nasal discharge
  • Ascites
82
Q

What is fresh whole blood?

A
  • Collected directly from donor in closed system with citrate-phosphate-dextrose (CPD)
  • Then administered to recipient
  • Contains RBCs, functional platelets, coagulation factors and plasma proteins
  • For patients with reduced O2 carrying capacity due to haemorrhage or anaemia
  • Should be used within 4-6 hours of collection
83
Q

What is stored whole blood?

A
  • Similar to fresh, stored in refrigerator prior to use
  • Platelets lose viability when refrigerated; 50% decrease in 12-18 hours
  • Some clotting factors also affected
  • Similar use to fresh blood, for patients that don’t need viable platelets
84
Q

What are packed red blood cells in reference to blood transfusions?

A
  • Produced by centrifuging whole blood
  • Used in patients with anaemia
  • Used in place of fresh whole blood when donor is unavailable and patient needs immediate RBCs
85
Q

What is fresh frozen plasma?

A
  • Plasma portion of centrifuged whole blood
  • Frozen to -18 in 24 hours
  • Contains coagulation factors, albumin and immunoglobulins
  • Thawed in warm water bath
  • Expires within a year
  • Can be labelled as frozen plasma and stored for 4 more years
86
Q

What is frozen plasma?

A
  • Plasma not frozen within 24 hours
  • OR been frozen over a year
  • Contains albumin and globulin
  • Minimal clotting factors
87
Q

What is blood typing?

A
  • Checking blood groups in cats and dogs prior to a transfusion
88
Q

What is important with blood typing cats?

A
  • Must blood type all donors and recipients before transfusion
  • Even in emergencies
89
Q

What is cross-matching blood?

A
  • In vitro mixing donor and recipient components
  • Can be blood or plasma
  • Looks for potential incompatibilities
  • Agglutination or haemolytic reactions
90
Q

When should cross-matching be performed in dogs?

A
  • Recipient received transfusion more than 4 days prior
  • History of transfusion reaction
  • Unknown transfusion history
  • Recipient has had puppies
91
Q

When should cross-matching be performed in cats?

A
  • If recipient requires more than one transfusion
  • Previously transfused blood can induce antibody production against RBC antigens
92
Q

What is required for dog blood donors?

A
  • Healthy, fully vaccinated
  • Not receiving medication
  • Suitable temperament
  • > 25kg lean body weight
  • 1-8 years old
  • Normal PCV; >40%
  • Ideally DEA1.1 negative
  • Not received blood transfusion
  • Not vaccinated in last 14 days
  • Not travelled out of UK
  • Can be collected every 8 weeks
93
Q

What is required for cat blood donors?

A
  • Healthy, fully vaccinated
  • Not receiving medication
  • Suitable temperament
  • > 4kg lean bodyweight
  • 1-8 years old
  • Normal PVC; >35%
  • Blood type A, B or AB
  • No previous transfusion
  • Not travelled out of UK
  • FeLV + FIV negative
  • Haemotropic mycoplasma negative (PCR test)
  • Can donate every 8 weeks
  • Only 50-60 ml can be taken
94
Q

What is DEA1.1 referring to blood typing dogs?

A
  • Dog Erythrocyte Antigen
  • 8 dog blood types number 1-8
  • DEA1.1 causes most severe transfusion reactions
  • Must check donor and recipient blood type
  • Or only use DEA1.1 negative donors
95
Q

How should blood be administered to dogs?

A
  • DEA1.1 -ve should only receive DEA1.1 -ve blood
  • DEA1.1 +ve can have +ve or -ve
  • Blood giving set has filter to trap small clots
96
Q

How should blood be administered to cats?

A
  • Type A must only receive type A
  • Type B must only receive type B
  • Type AB are rarer and don’t possess either antibody
  • Should receive type AB but can have type A
  • Type B should be used as a last resort
  • Plain 150ml collection bag can be used with blood giving set
97
Q

What is important to check before administering blood?

A
  • Syringe drivers and infusion pumps can destroy some cells
  • Visually inspected for clots, discolouration or haemolysis; can indicate bacterial contamination
  • Does not need to be warmed unless given to neonates or very small animals
  • Warming can cause haemolysis, damage cells and promote microbial growth
  • Never warm in microwave
98
Q

What is an alloantibody?

A

Antibody against RBC antigen

99
Q

What is the transfusion rate of blood?

A
  • 2ml blood/kg raises PCV by 1%
  • First 15-30 minutes 0.5-1ml/kg/hr while close monitoring
  • To notice transfusion reactions promptly
  • If tolerated well, can be increased to 5-10ml/kg/hr
  • Remaining transfusion delivered within 4 hours to minimise bacterial infection
100
Q

What parameters must be monitored during blood transfusion?

101
Q

What do animals presenting with trauma require?

A
  • Rapid, accurate triaging
  • Ongoing monitoring
  • Prevent complications
  • Problems treated
  • Patient stabilised
  • Ongoing plan made
102
Q

What constitutes a traumatic emergency?

A
  • Haemorrhage
  • Wounds
  • Fracture
  • Luxation (dislocation)
  • Foreign bodies
103
Q

What is haemorrage?

A
  • Loss of blood from vessels
  • Prolonged or acute is severe
  • Likely to go into hypovolaemic shock
  • Can lead to death
104
Q

How can haemorrhage be classified?

A
  • By location and type
  • External or internal
    ARTERIAL
  • Bright red, spurts
  • Immediate action needed to control rapid blood loss
    VENOUS and CAPILLARY
  • Dark red blood
  • Oozes from area
105
Q

What surgical procedures may need to be performed in an emergency?

A
  • Airway surgery
  • Thoracotomy
  • Laparotomy
  • Spinal surgery
  • Caesarean section