Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IC Part 2 > Embryology part 2 > Flashcards

Embryology part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Patent foramen ovale

A

forms between the septum primum and septum secundum, allowing oxygenated placental blood to cross over from right to left atrium during intrauterine life
fusion of SP with SS occurs by 2 years of age in 75% of people, closing PFO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Atrial septal defect

A

allows left to right shunting of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

endocardial cushions

A

key event in heart development

abnormalities can lead to atrial and vsd, transposition of great vessels (arteries) and other anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

development of aortic arches

A

4th and 5th week- branchial/pharyngeal arches form, receiving a blood vessel of aortic sac called aortic arches

3rd arch- common carotid (internal carotid)
4th arch- aorta
6th arch- pulmonary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ductus arteriosus

A

connects pulmonary arteries to arch of aorta, bypassing fetal lungs
closes and forms ligamentum arteriosum after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

blood flow prior to birth

A

oxygenated blood from placenta, passes through umbilical vein, ductus venosis, ivc, into RA, blood jets through foramen ovale in interarterial septum sending blood into left atrium instead of right atrium, bypassing fetal lungs
second bypass occurs at ductus arteriosus (fetal lungs have high vascular resistance) , allowing blood pumped out of pulmonary artery to join descending aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

blood flow after birth

A

with first few breaths, bradykin released from lungs decreases vascular resistance within the lungs, and bradykinin stimulates smooth muscle in wall of ductus arteriosis to contract causing increase in blood flowing to lungs
rise in blood flow to lungs increases blood flowing from lungs returning to left atrium, increasing pressure within LA
blood flow within RA drops as blood flow within umbilical veins is lost, reducing pressure within right atrium
pressure within LA greater than RA, septum primum is pushed against septum secundum, closing foramen ovale, closing atrial shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What medication helps close pda

A

indomethacin- prostaglandin synthesis inhibitor because pge-2 is responsible for keeping ductus arteriosis open

also ibuprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what medication helps keep pda open

A

prostaglandin analogs- alprostadil or misoprostol (pge1 analogs) keep ductus arteriosis open in cases such as new borns with transposition of great arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TGA

A

aorta and pulm artery arise from incorrect ventricle resulting in two closed circuits of blood flow
1st- RV to aorta to organs to RA back to RV to aorta delivers only deoxygenated blood to organs resulting in cyanosis
2nd- LV to pulm artery to lungs for oxygenation to LA back to LV

give Pge1 analogs- misoprostol, alprostadil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

branchial clefts

A

ectodermal ingrowths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

branchial pouches

A

endodermal outpocketings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

branchial arches

A

mesenchymal core- mesoderm and neural crest in between clefts and pouches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which aortic arch provides most adult blood supply to head and neck

A

third

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pierre Robin Sequence

A 
first arch syndrome
cleft soft palate
micrognathia
glossoptosis (downward displacement of tongue)
natal teeth
receding chin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treacher Collins Syndrome

A 
first arch syndrome
colobomas (malformation of eye)
hypoplasia of mandible
malar hypoplasia--> absence of zygomatic bones
Malformed pinnae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DiGeorge Syndrome

A

cardiac, abnormal facies, thymic hypoplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcemia, 22q11

anomalous development of 3rd and 4th branchial pouches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

abnormal hard palate and visualization in nasal cavity- failure of fusion of

A

palatal shelves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

holoprosencephaly and FAS

A

Holoprosencephaly is a disorder caused by the failure of the prosencephalon (the embryonic forebrain) to sufficiently divide into the double lobes of the cerebral hemispheres. The result is a single-lobed brain structure and severe skull and facial defects.

alcohol alters pattern of migration and differentiation of ncc (low levels of superoxide dismutase and catalase, retinoic acid sensitivity)

20
Q

permanent kidney

A

metanephric kidney- from intermediate mesoderm - sprouts from mesonephric ducts

only nephron formation is complete at birth; after birth, elongation of segments and functional maturation occurs resulting in dramatic postnatal increase in size

21
Q

significance of urine formation early in development

A 
key component of amniotic fluid which: 
cushions embryo
control of body temp
prevents adherence of amnion to embryo
permits symmetrical external growth of embryo
allows free movement of embryo
22
Q

renal agenesis

A

unilateral: 1/1000, only a problem if other defects are present
bilateral: 1/3000 births, oligo, incompatible with post natal life

23
Q

anomalies related to ascent of kidneys

A

ectopic kidneys (pelvic)
horseshow kidney- inf poles of kidneys are fused, ascent blocked by IMA
multiple renal vessels

24
Q

Wilm’s tumor

A

nephroblastoma
most common primary renal tumor affecting children (2-5 years old) and 4th most common pediatric tumor
mutation of WT-1 gene

histo- tightly packed cells, fibrocytic or spindle shaped cells, poorly formed tubules

triphasic: blastemic, stromal, epithelial components

25
Q

polycystic kidneys

A

recessive- renal failure in infancy, cysts from collecting tubules

dominant- renal failure in adulthood, cysts anywhere

26
Q

Cloaca

A

divides into urogenital sinus and anorectal canal

27
Q

urorectal septal anomalies and imperforate anus

A

fistulas result from incomplete septation of hindgut from urogenital sinus by urorectal septum, or if cloaca is too small

28
Q

median umbilical ligament

A

initially, bladder is continuous with allantois which forms the urachus, which is known in adult as median umbilical ligament

can have a fistula, cyst, or sinus

29
Q

exstrophy of bladder

A

exposure and protrusion of posterior wall of bladder through abdominal wall

30
Q

epispadias

A

uretrha opens on dorsal surface of penis

31
Q

hypospadias

A

urethra opens on venral surface of penis

32
Q

adrenal glands development

A

cortex- from intermediate mesoderm

Medulla- from ncc

33
Q

regulation of adrenal gland

A

CRH from hypothalamus leads to secretion of ACTH from anterior pituitary–> cortisol from adrenal cortex
inc secretion of cortisol feeds back on ant pit decreasing acth secetion and decreased crh from hypothalamus

34
Q

hypertrophy of fetal adrenal cortex

A

inc dehydroepiandrosterone (most often due to C21 hydroxylase enzyme mutation- inability to synthesize corticosteroids)–> inc secretion of ACTH and CRH–> more dehydroepiandrosterone–> inc hydroxyprogesterone–> masculinization of female genitalia (fusion of labia majora and enlargement of clitoris)

congenital virilizing hyperplasia (adrenogenital syndrome)
pseudohermaphroditism

35
Q

reproductive system

A

gonads, internal duct system, external genitalia
initially two sexes develop in identical fashion- indifferent stage
acquisition of male and female characteristics at 7th week of development

36
Q

female development

A

default pw

mesonephric duct degenerates and paramesonephric duct develops into internal duct system

37
Q

male

A

SRY on Y chromosome is testis determining factor
Mullerian inhibitory factor from sertoli cells in testis suppresses paramesonephric ducts development and induces apoptosis of structures

androgens from leydig cells stimulate development of mesonephric ducts into male internal duct structures (seminal vesicle, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, vas deferens)

38
Q

What inhibits paramesonephric ducts in male repro

A

mullerian inhibiting substance from sertoli cells

39
Q

vaginal development

A

fornices and upper portion of vagina formed by vacuolization of paramesonephric tissue
lower portion of vagina formed by vacuolization of sinovaginal bulbs

40
Q

uterine abnormalities

A

caused by persistence of uterine septum or obliteration of lumen of uterine canal
uterus didelphys with double vagina
uterus arcuatus (indent at top of uterus)
uterus bicornis
uterus bicornis with rudimentary horn
atresia of cervix
atresia of vagina

41
Q

androgen insensitivity syndrome

A

X linked recessive condition resulting in failure of normal masculinization of external genitalia in chromosomally male individuals
complete or partial syndrome

complete- female external genitalia with normal labia, clit, and vaginal introitus

partial- mildly virilized female external genitalia to midly undervirilized male external genitalia (hypospadias, diminished penile size)

42
Q

5 alpha reductase deficiency

A

inability to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone

genitala may appear male with underdevelopment and hypospadias or female with clitoromegaly

individuals masculinize at puberty because pubescent changes are due to testosterone, not dht

43
Q

paramesonephric duct agenesis

A

xx genotype, normal height, weight, normal external genitalia, normal breast development, normal pubic hair development, absent menses

failure of mullerian duct to develop

44
Q

Turner syndrome

A

XO
short stature, low hair line, widely spaced nipples, poor breast development, elbow deformity, web neck with fold of skin, brown spots, rudimentary ovaries, no menstruation

45
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

XXY
gynecomastia, long limbs, decreased upper/lower segment ratio, testes and penis are small, no evidence of pubertal development
problems with reading, writing, math, spelling
infertility

46
Q

cryptochidism

A

failure of testes to reach scrotal sac

47
Q

inguinal hernia

A

vaginal process remains open communication with peritoneal cavity, portions of intestinal loops often descend toward and occasionally into scrotum, causing inguinal hernia

IC Part 2 (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions