Embalming Flashcards

1
Q

process of chemically treating the dead human body to reduce the presence and growth of microorganisms, to retard organic decomposition and to restore an acceptable physical appearance

A

Embalming

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2
Q

an amorphous nonvolatile solid or soft side substance, a natural exudation from plants

A

resinous

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3
Q

resins combined with oil

A

balsamic

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4
Q

separation of compounds into simpler substances by the action of microbial and. autolytic enzymes

A

decomposition

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5
Q

4 things entailed in embalming

A

sanitation, disinfection, temporary preservation, restoration

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6
Q

a process to promote and establish conditions which minimize or eliminate biohazards

A

sanitation

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7
Q

the destruction/inhibition of most pathogenic organisms and their products in or on the body

A

disinfection

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8
Q

the science of treating the body chemically so as to temporarily inhibit decomp

A

temporary preservation

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9
Q

treatment of the deceased in the attempt to recreate natural form and color

A

restoration

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10
Q

4 classifications of embalming

A

Vascular
Surface
hypodermic
cavity

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11
Q

the use of vasular systems of the body for preservation, disinfection and restoration; usually accomplished through injection of embalming solutions into the arteries and drainage from the veins

A

vascular embalming

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12
Q

direct contact of internal or external body tissues with embalming chemicals

A

surface embalming

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13
Q

injection of embalming chemicals directly into the tissues through the use of a syringe, needle, or trocar

A

hypodermic embalming

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14
Q

direct treatment other then vascular embalming by aspiration and then injection of chemicals using a trocar

A

cavity

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15
Q

best possible source of ID for identification of body

A

DNA

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16
Q

worst possible source of ID for IDing a body

A

personal effects

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17
Q

an official elected or appointed to investigate suspicious or unnatural deaths; doesn’t do inquest

A

medical examiner

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18
Q

an official of a local community who holds inquests concerning sudden, violent, and unexplained deaths

A

coroner

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19
Q

an agent, usually chemical, applied to inanimate objects/surfaces to destroy disease-causing microbial agents, but usually not bacterial spores

A

disinfection

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20
Q

movement of particles from an area of greater density to an area of lesser concentration

A

diffusion

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21
Q

“rule of thumb” for creating a solution

A

one gallon per 50lb of body weight; generally 2.5 index

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22
Q

3 types of disinfection

A

Primary
concurrent
terminal

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23
Q

OSHA regulation that deals with IDing and limiting exposure to occupational hazards

A

Hazardous communication statndard

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23
Q

Formaldehyde Rule

A

OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1048

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24
Q

the maximum legal limit exposure over a time-weighed 8hr work shift; 0.75ppm

A

Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)

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25
Q

Exposures for no more than 15 mins and not repeated more than 4 times per work day; 2ppm

A

Short Term Exposure Limit (STEL)

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26
Q

the specific point at which an 8hr exposure in unsafe; 0.5ppm

A

Action level

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27
Q

an evaluation of exposure that is time- weighted over an 8 hr time period

A

Time weighted average

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28
Q

Blood-borne pathogen standard

A

OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030

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29
Q

those items of protection worn to minimize exposure to hazards

A

Personal protective equipment

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30
Q

what does OPIM stand for

A

other possible infectious material

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31
Q

minute particles of blood and water become atomized and suspended in air when water under pressure meets the blood drainage or when flushing an uncovered flush sink

A

aerosolization

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32
Q

tubular instrument of varying diameter and shape, preferably with a plunger that is inserted into a vein to aid in drainage of blood to restrict the exit of vascular embalming fluid

A

drain tube

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33
Q

piercing mucous membranes or the skin barrier through such events as needle sticks, human bites, cuts and abrasions; getting punctured

A

parenteral entry

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34
Q

The Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) is now aligned with what?

A

Globally Harmonzied System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS)

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35
Q

Log of Work- related Injuries and Illnesses; classification of work- related injuries and illnesses and provides the information on the extent and severity of each case

A

OSHA Form 300

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36
Q

yearly Summary of total cases in each category

A

Form 300A

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37
Q

Injury and Illness Incident Report

A

Form 301

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38
Q

legal necessity of embalming

A

when died of communicable disease, transporting across state lines, burial not taking place within 24 hrs, when having a public viewing

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39
Q

Key stone to the Funeral Rule

A

General Price List

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40
Q

the mandatory disclosures on the GPL

A

1: right to select only the goods and services desired
2:embalming is not legally required
3:alternative containers for D-Cremation
4:basic services fee
5:Casket price list
6:outer burial container price list

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41
Q

irreversible cessation of all vital functions; irreversible total cessation of metabolic activity

A

death

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42
Q

in a dying state; in the agonal period; period immediately before somatic death

A

moribund (agonal period)

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43
Q

the semi-convulsive twitches that often occur before death

A

death struggle

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44
Q

a prolongation of the last violent contraction of the muscles into the rigidity

A

cadaveric spasm

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45
Q

condition in which the manifestations of life are feebly maintained; very faint

A

apparent death

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46
Q

dead human body used for medical purposes; including transplantation, anatomical dissection and study; donated to science

A

cadaver

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47
Q

the elements remaining after cremation of a dead human body

A

cremated human remains

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48
Q

study of death

A

thanatology

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49
Q

death of the organism as a whole; body dead, not cells

A

somatic death

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50
Q

a phase of somatic death lasting from 5-6 min in which life may be restored

A

legal (clinical) death

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51
Q

tripod of life; any one stops adn you die; not dead until warm and dead

A

Heart, lungs, brain

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52
Q

irreversible somatic death

A

biological (irreversible)

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53
Q

death of the individual cells of the body; cells may stop functioning after 10-20hrs; always follows somatic death

A

cellular death

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54
Q

before death

A

antemortem

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55
Q

pathological death due to a lack of 0xygen to cells

A

necrosis

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56
Q

caused by pressure to capillaries from staying in bed and cutting off blood flow to outer cells of body

A

decubitus ulcers; bed sores (pressure sores)

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57
Q

necrosis of tissues of part of the body, usually due to deficient or absent blood supply

A

gangrene

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58
Q

the three types of gangrene

A

wet
dry
gas

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59
Q

antemortem, physiological death of the cells of the body followed by their replacement with living tissue

A

necrobiosis

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60
Q

period that begins after somatic death

A

postmortem

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61
Q

4 factors influencing onset of postmortem cellular death; occurs abt 20hrs after somatic death

A

cause of death
environmental conditions
condition of body
medication preceding death

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62
Q

abnormal amount of body fat

A

corpulence

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62
Q

single best way to tell if someone is dead

A

decomposition

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63
Q

signs of death

A

decomp
odor
cessation of circulation/respiration
complete muscular relaxation
algor mortis: cooling down
rigor mortis: onset after 4-6 hrs and onset 4-6
livor mortis
changes of the eye

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64
Q

postmortem, INTRAvascular, red-blue discoloration resulting from hypostasis of blood

A

livor mortis, cadaveric lividity

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65
Q

what will neutralize rigor mortis

A

buffer

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66
Q

4 changes of the eye after death

A

clouding or cornea: immediate
loss of luster of conjunctiva: turns gray
flattening of eyeball: 4 hrs after; no pressure
lack of pupil dilation: immediate

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67
Q

signs are _, symptoms are _

A

objective; subjective

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68
Q

any procedure used to prove a sign of death

A

tests for death

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69
Q

4 Expert tests for signs of death

A

stethoscope: heart sounds
ophthalmoscope: pupil response
encephalogram: electronic life detection
injections of dyes for circulation: not done now

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70
Q

3 Inexpert tests (historical) signs of death

A

ligature test
ammonia injection
feel for pulse at radial artery

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71
Q

antemortem (agonal) changes

A

Thermal
Blood
moisture
Bacterial translocation
Gases in the tissues
Therapeutic agents

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72
Q

decreased in body temp immediately before death; caused by decreased circulation

A

agonal algor

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73
Q

increase in body temperature immediately before death; may be caused by a full stomach

A

agonal fever

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74
Q

settling of blood or other fluids to dependent portion of the body

A

hypostatis

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75
Q

the process of converting soluble protein to insoluble protein by heating or contact with a chemical such as an alcohol or an aldehyde; the solidification of a solution into a gelatinous mass

A

congealing (coagulation)

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76
Q

a specific form of coagulation; INTRAvascular: the increase of viscosity of blood brought about by the clumping of particulate formed elements in the blood vessels

A

agglutination

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77
Q

an agonal or postmortem redistribution of host microflora on a host-wide basis; from intestinal areas to blood vascular system due to capillary permeability changes

A

bacterial translocation

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78
Q

The ulnar artery lies along the ___________ border of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle.

A

lateral

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79
Q

What is the purpose of adding eosin and erythrosine to arterial fluid?

A

They impart a color to the tissue

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80
Q

What is the purpose of ponceau in embalming fluids?

A

It will impart a color change

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81
Q

The injection pressure which just overcomes the vascular resistance and causes the embalming fluid to enter the arterial system at a moderate and uniform rate is

A

ideal

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82
Q

Which of these is a commonly used moisture absorbing substance in hardening compound?

A

Plaster of Paris

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83
Q

air edema (hospital induced edema)

A

antemortem subcutaneous emphysema

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84
Q

necrosis in a wound infected by an ANAerobic gas forming bacillus; most common etiologic agent is Clostridum perfinges

A

gas gangrene

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85
Q

condition that results when the body part that dies has little blood and remains aseptic; the arteries but not the vein are obstructed and shrivles up

A

dry gangrene

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86
Q

necrotic tissue that is moist as a result of inadequate venous drainage, may be accompanied by bacterial infection; swells and turns black

A

wet gangrene

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87
Q

a therpeutic agent that dilates the vessels and aids in distribution; caution, swelling could accompany

A

vasodilator

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88
Q

from within the body

A

intrinsic factors

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89
Q

from outside the body

A

extrinsic factor

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90
Q

amount of clothing covering the body; temp and humidity of environment; temp of patient at time of death

A

extrinsic factors

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91
Q

what killed them

A

cause

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92
Q

how did it get there

A

manner

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93
Q

postmortem, Intravascular, red-blue discoloration resulting from hypostasis of blood

A

livor mortis (cadaveric lividity)

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94
Q

loss of moisture from body tissue which may occur antemortem

A

dehydration (dessication)

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95
Q

dehydration known as “”; desiccation all the way through

A

surface evaporation

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96
Q

absorption of the fluid portion of blood by the tissues after death resulting in postmortem edema

A

imbibition (postmortem edema)

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97
Q

liquid flows to dependent portion of body

A

gravitation of serum

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98
Q

the intravascular increase of viscosity of blood brought about by the clumping of particulate formed elements in the blood vessels

A

agglutination of formed elements

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99
Q

self destruction of cells, decomp of tissue by enzymes of their own formation without microbial assistance

A

autolysis

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100
Q

organelle that exists within a cell, but separate from the cell; contains hydrolytic enzymes that break down proteins and certain carbohydrates;

A

lysosomes

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101
Q

an organic catalyst produced by living cells and capable of autolytic decomp

A

enzyme

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102
Q

bacterial decomposition of carbohydrates
(which break down sugars)

A

fermentation

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103
Q

decomp of sugars

A

saccharolysis

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104
Q

decomp of proteins

A

proteolysis

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105
Q

decomp of proteins by the action of enzymes from ANAerobic bacteria; more odor

A

Putrefaction

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106
Q

decomp of proteins by enzymes of Aerobic bacteria

A

decay

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107
Q

decomp of fats

A

lipolysis

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108
Q

split by taking up elements of water; breaks down peptide bonds

A

hydrolysis

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109
Q

postmortem evacuation of any substance from an external orifice of the body as a result of gas pressure

A

purge

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110
Q

1 & 2 signs of decomposition

A

1.Odor
2.color

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111
Q

building blocks of which proteins are constructed an the end products of protein digestion or hydrolysis; result of comp of proteins

A

amino acids

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112
Q

a product of comp of fats; decomp of lipids

A

fatty acids

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113
Q

any one of a group of nitrogenous organic compounds formed by the action of putrefactive bacteria on proteins

A

ptomaines

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114
Q

ammonia. ammonium compounds. hydrogen. hydrogen sulfide. mercaptan. nitrogen. carbon dioxide. water. methane. phosporic acid. sulfuric acid

A

end products

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115
Q

a compound of hydrogen, carbon, and oxygen; sugars, starches, and glycogen

A

carbohydrates

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116
Q

organic compound found in plants and animals; can be broken down into amino acids,

A

proteins

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117
Q

order of decomposition of the body compounds

A

Carbohydrates
proteins
fats
bones

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118
Q

first organs of putrefaction

A

lining membrane of trachea and larynx
*except for brain of an infant or pregnant uterus

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119
Q

last organs of putrefaction

A

non-pregnant uterus or large blood vessels

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120
Q

pH balance of blood

A

7.35 -7.45

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121
Q

pH during rigor mortis

A

5-6

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122
Q

pH of advanced decomposition

A

alkaline: 11ish

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123
Q

postmortem stiffening of the body muscles by natural body processes

A

rigor mortis

124
Q

order of rigor appearance and disappearance

A

starts in eyes works out; leaves in same order

125
Q

physical methods or reducing rigor mortis

A

flexing
extending
rotating
massaging

126
Q

extravascular color change that occurs when hemoglobing, released by hemolysis of red blood cells, seeps through the vessel walls into the body tissues

A

postmortem stain

127
Q

can postmortem stain be removed during normal arterial injection and venous drainage

A

NO

128
Q

how to determine if postmortem stain

A

press on skin and spot wont go away

129
Q

the RISE in temp after death due to continued cellular metabolism

A

postmortem calorcicty

130
Q

embalming machine that uses an electrical pump to create pressure

A

pressure machine (Centrifugal Force Machine)

131
Q

3 main companies the produce pressure machines

A

porti-boy
duotronic
sawyer

132
Q

apparatus that is connected to the water supply and develops a suction

A

hydroaspirator

133
Q

a device that uses a motor to create suction for the purpose of aspiration

A

electric aspirator

134
Q

an apparatus that relies on gravity to create pressure required to deliver fluid (0.43 lbs per foot of elevation)

A

gravity injector

135
Q

historical instrument resembling a large hypodermic syringe attached to a bottle apparatus; used to create pressure or a vacumm

A

hand pump

136
Q

historical self contained, soft rubber manual pump designed to created pressure to deliver fluid as it passes through one-way valves

A

bulb syringe

137
Q

an electrically heated blade which may be used to dry moist tissue, reduce swollen tissue and restore contour; use liberal amounts of massage cream

A

electric spatula

138
Q

equipment used to dry the hair of the deceased

A

hair dyer

139
Q

desinged to eliminate the physical strain of moving caskets and bodies by hand

A

body lifts

140
Q

oven/appliance used for sterilizing

A

sterilizers

141
Q

types of tables

A

embalming
dressing

142
Q

a table used for the dressing of the deceased; doesn’t tilt, no drain and folds in the middle

A

dressing table

143
Q

temp that refrigeration units should be maintained

A

38-40F

144
Q

OSHA required emergency safety device providing a steady stream of water for flushing the eye

A

eyewash station

145
Q

OSHA required safety device for a release of a copious amount of water in a short time

A

quick drench shower

146
Q

OSHA required receptacle for proper disposal of sharps

A

sharps container

147
Q

OSHA required container used for bio-hazardous waste

A

bio-hazardous waste container

148
Q

how many times does OSHA require the air to be replaced by an exhaust system

A

6 per hour min.

149
Q

those items of protection worn to minimize exposure to hazards

A

PPE

150
Q

water pressure important for hydroaspirator; positive flow water system

A

specialized plumbing

151
Q

a tube used to inject embalming fluid into the blood vascular system

A

arterial tube

152
Q

a mechanical device used to impel specially designed metal pins into bone

A

needle injector

153
Q

an embalming instrument consisting of a handle and blade fused together as one unit and used to make incisions

A

scalpel

154
Q

an instrument that is used for blunt dissection and in raising vessels

A

aneurysm hook/needle

155
Q

may be sharp/sharp, sharp/blunt, blunt/blunt, or bandage scissors; straight/curved

A

scissors

156
Q

instrument used to guide vein tubes into vessels

A

groove director

157
Q

instrument used to maintain the elevation of the vessels above the surface of the skin

A

separator (bone separator)

158
Q

instrument used to clamp vessels, various-sizes, straight or curved

A

hemostats (lock forceps)

159
Q

mutli-purpose instrument commonly used for holding cotton swabs, wiping out and disinfecting the eyes, restoration treatment and closing the eyes; also may hold open veins

A

spring forceps

160
Q

general purpose instrument which is primarily used to spread incisions and to afford more working room

A

retractors (spreader)

161
Q

used to shave

A

razor

162
Q

tubular instrument of varying diameter and shape, preferably with a plunger, that is inserted into a vein to aid in drainage of blood and to restrict the exit of vascular embalming fluid

A

drain tube

163
Q

used on arterial tubes to stop the flow of fluid

A

stopcocks

164
Q

used to close cuts and incisions by suturing with ligature

A

suture needles

165
Q

used to aspirate the the throat by means of the nostrils

A

nasal tube aspirator

166
Q

used to aspirate the body cavity embalming to aspirate the cavities and inject cavity fluid

A

trocars

167
Q

used to inject embalming chemicals and tissue builder into the body tissues

A

hypodermic syringe and needle

168
Q

used to insert trocar buttons into trocar punctures

A

trocar button applicator

169
Q

purpose is to hold aterial tubes in the arteries

A

arterial fixation forceps

170
Q

chemicals which inactivate saprohytic bacteria render unsuitable for nutrition the media upon which such bacteria thrive, and which will arrest decomposition by alterin enzymes and lysins of the body as wll as converting the decomposable tissue to a form less susceptible to decomp

A

preservative embalming chemicals

171
Q

a chemical that lightens a skin discoloration

A

bleaching agent

172
Q

chemicals that are used to destroy/inhibit most pathogenic bacteria and their products

A

disinfectant chemicals

173
Q

material used to provide a barrier or seal against any type of leakage of fluid/blood; powder/liquid forms, external and internal use

A

sealing agents

174
Q

a liquid holding another substance in solution; used to remove stains from the body, and thinning agent

A

solvents

175
Q

types for cotton (2)

A

roll
towel (web-reel)

176
Q

a thin plastic dome-shaped disk used to restore contour just beneath the eyelids

A

eyecap

177
Q

a device used in the mouth in shaping the contour of the lips; used to support the lips and give normal contour when deceased does not have teeth/dentures

A

mouth formers

178
Q

use powder first; unionall, coveralls, panties, stocking

A

plastic goods

179
Q

used with suturing needles to suture cuts and incisions

A

suture ligature

180
Q

used in mouth closure; inserted into the needle injector and forced into the mandible and maxilla

A

injector needles

181
Q

super glue, aron alpha, rubber cement

A

adhesive

182
Q

used on cases where the lips/eyelids are difficult to close properly (use stay cream before going to adhesives

A

lip and lid cement

183
Q

that consideration given to the dead body prior to, during, and after the embalming procedure

A

embalming analysis (case analysis)

184
Q

metabolic by-products that contain nitrogen, such as urea and uric acid; tend to neutralize embalming chemicals

A

nitrogenous waste products

185
Q

loss of blood to the point of not being able to support life

A

exsanguinated

186
Q

amount of time between death and embalming

A

postmortem interval

187
Q

order of initial treatment of the body

A

1.disinfection of oral and nasal cavities
2. remove and record all clothing/ personal effects
3.disinfection of clothing when necessary
4.remove medical dressings
5.bathe/ external disinfection

188
Q

method of mouth closure in which a suture is passed through the septum of the nose and through the mentalis muscle of the chin; AKA frenulum suture

A

musculature suture

189
Q

method of mouth closure in which a suture is passed through the septum of the nose and around the mandible

A

mandibular suture

190
Q

location of eyeline closure

A

inferior one-third of eye socket (abut)

191
Q

a paste to fix/fill; mastic compound

A

mortuary putty

192
Q

consideration and precautions for each artery are based upon

A

accessibility
arterial occlusion (blockage)

193
Q

a line drawn/visualized on the SURFACE on the skin to represent the approximate location of some deeper-lying structure

A

linear guide

194
Q

a descriptive reference for locating arteries and veins by means of anatomical structures that are known

A

anatomical guide

195
Q

point of ORIGIN and point of TERMINATION in relation to adjacent structures; used to designate the boundaries of arteries

A

anatomical limits

196
Q

cervical triangle

A

common carotid,internal jugular and vegus nerve

197
Q

a point from sternoclavicular articulation to the anterior surface of the lobe of ear

A

linear guide of CCA

198
Q

along medial border of sternocleidomastoid muscle

A

anatomical guide

199
Q

begins at the level of sternoclavicular articulation and terminates at the level of the superior border of the thyroid cartilage

A

right common carotid anatomical limit

200
Q

begins at the level of second costal cartilage and terminates at the superior border of the thyroid cartilage

A

left common carotid anatomical limit

201
Q

where to make incision for supraclavicular location

A

medial one-third
middle one-third

202
Q

where to make incision for parallel method

A

along posterior border of the inferior one-third of sternoclediomastoid muscle

203
Q

center of venous drainage

A

right atrium

204
Q

center of circulation

A

arch of aorta

205
Q

accompanying vein of cartoid artery; lateral/ superficial to artery

A

internal jugular

206
Q

along the inferior border of the mandible just anterior to the angle of the mandible

A

facial artery anatomical guide

207
Q

place of incision for facial arteries

A

along anatomical guide; both sides

208
Q

from the center of the base of the axiallary space to center of forearm just below bend of elbow

A

brachial linear guide

209
Q

lies posterior to the medial border of the belly of the biceps brachii muscle

A

brachial anatomical guide

210
Q

begins at the inferior border of the tendon of the teres major muscle and terminates at a point just inferior to the antecubital fossa

A

brachial anatomical limits

211
Q

place of incision for brachial artery

A

along linear guide (approx middle of guide)

212
Q

accompanying vein for brachial; medial and superficial

A

basilic

213
Q

on surface of the forearm from center of the antecubital fossa to center of base of index finger

A

radial linear guide

214
Q

just lateral tot eh tendon of flexor carp radialis muscle

A

raidial guide

215
Q

place of incision for radial arteryl

A

linear guide at the wrist

216
Q

on surface of forearm from center of antecubital fossa to a point between fourt and fifth digits (ring and pinkie fingers)

A

ulnar linear guide

217
Q

lies lateral to the tendon of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle

A

ulnar anatomical guide

218
Q

through the center of the base of axillary space and parallel to long axis of the upper extremity when abducted

A

axillary linear guide

219
Q

posterior to the medial boarder of the coracobrachialis muscle

A

axillary anatomical guide

220
Q

begins at the lateral border of the first rib and terminates at the inferior border of the tendon of the teres major muscle

A

axillary limits

221
Q

place on incision for the axillary artery

A

along the anterior margin of the hairline of the axilla

222
Q

begins at the sternoclavicular articulation and terminates at the lateral border of the first rib

A

right subclavian anatomical limits

223
Q

begins at the level of the second costal cartilage and terminates at the lateral border of the first rib

A

left subclavian anatomical limits

224
Q

brachiocephalic artery accompanying vein

A

right brachiocephalic vein

225
Q

arches over the heart and goes down along the anterior portion of the spine

A

arch of the aorta

226
Q

used to embalm newborns or babies

A

abdominal aorta

227
Q

drains ascending aorta and the arch

A

superior vena cava

228
Q

drains descending aorta

A

inferior vena cava

229
Q

medial border of the psoas major muscle

A

external iliac artery anatomical guide

230
Q

femoral triangle

A

inguinal ligament
adductor longus muscle
satrorius muscle

231
Q

on surface of thigh from center of inguinal ligament to center point on the medial condyle of the femur

A

femoral linear guide

232
Q

through the center of the femoral triangle bounded LATERALLY by the Sartorius and MEDIALLY by the Adductor longus

A

femoral anatomical guide

233
Q

begins at a point posterior to the center of the inguinal ligament and terminates at the opening in the adductor magnus muscle

A

femoral anatomical limits

234
Q

place of incision for femoral artery

A

along any portion of the superior two-thirds of the linear guide, as close as possible to the inguinal ligament

235
Q

through the center of popliteal space parallel to the long axis of lower extremity

A

popliteal artery linear guide

236
Q

begins at opening of adductor magnus muscle and terminates at the interior border of popliteus muscle

A

popliteal anatomical limits

237
Q

place of incision for popliteal artery

A

parallel incision on posteromedial aspect of the thigh just superior to popliteal space

238
Q

from lateral border of the patella to the anterior surface of the ankle joint

A

anterior tibial linear guide

239
Q

place of incision for anterior tibial artery

A

along lateral margin of inferior one-third of the crest of tibia

240
Q

from center of popliteal space to point midway between medial mallelous and the calcaneus

A

posterior tibial artery linear guide

241
Q

place of incision for posterior tibial artery

A

midway between the medial malleolus and calcaneal tendon

242
Q

from the center of the anterior surface of the ankle joint to a point between the first and second digits

A

dorsalis pedis artery linear guide

243
Q

place of incision for dorsalis pedis artery

A

along the superior one third of the linear guide

244
Q

what artery do you use for a full term infant

A

abdominal aorta; 4” long; inject up and down

245
Q

an transverse incision

A

lies at right angles to the long axis of the body; sclerotic vessel may break in half with this incision

246
Q

a longitudinal incision

A

down the long axis of the vessel; sclerotic vessels wont break with this incision but may start to split down the vessel

247
Q

a t-incision

A

combination of transverse and longitudinal

248
Q

a triangular (wedge) shaped incision

A

2 opposite diagonal cuts; like an inverted V

249
Q

a stitch that is made from beneath, up through the skin and the needle is crossed from side to side on each stitch

A

baseball stitch

250
Q

a stitch made through the skin from outside the incision and up through the opening of the incision alternating side to side

A

inverted baseball

251
Q

a stitch that is the same as the single intradermal, except the stitch penetrates completely the skin

A

draw (worm)

252
Q

hidden stitches

A

single/ double intradermal

253
Q

a stitch that uses a large full curved suturing needle strung with a strong ligature;

A

lock

254
Q

a stitch which passes the ligature through both sides of the incision from the outside going from side to the other

A

whip (roll)

255
Q

embalming machine that uses an electrical pump to create pressure either pulsating or non-pulsating

A

motorized force pump; centrifugal force machine

256
Q

types of centrifugal force machines (3)

A

duotronic, porti-boy, sawyer

257
Q

the pressure indicated by the injector needle when the injector motor is running and the arterial tubing is clamped off

A

potential pressure

258
Q

amount of pressure with rate of flow valve open

A

actual pressure

259
Q

the pressure that is the difference between potential and actual

A

differential pressure

260
Q

how many inches above the injection site is needed to create one lb of pressure when using a gravity injector

A

28”

261
Q

a historical instrument used to created either pressure for injector or vacuum for aspiration

A

hand pump

262
Q

a self contained, soft rubber manual pump designed to create pressure to deliver fluid as it passes through one-way valves; is only used to deliver fluids

A

bulb syringe

263
Q

types of air pressure apparatuses

A

mechanical and hydraulic

264
Q

a force applied/acting against resistance

A

pressure

265
Q

the pressure exerted by the blood on the vessel walls measured in millimeters of mercury

A

blood pressure

266
Q

the amount of pressure produced by an injection device to overcome initial resistance within or on the vascular system

A

injection pressure

267
Q

pressure developed as the flow of embalming solution is established and the elastic arterial walls expand and then contract, resulting in filling of the capillary beds and development of pressure filtration

A

intravascular pressure

268
Q

speed at which fluid is injected; measured in ounces per minute

A

rate of flow

269
Q

the strength of embalming fluids indicaated by the number of grams of pure HCHO gas dissolved in 100mL of water

A

index

270
Q

strong (high) index fluids

A

26-36%

271
Q

medium index fluids

A

16-25%

272
Q

weak (low)

A

5-15%

273
Q

types of embalming chemicals (3)

A

arterial, cavity, accessory

274
Q

chemicals which inactivate saprophytic bacteria render unsuitable for nutrition the media upon which bacteria thrive; alters enzymes

A

preservative

275
Q

disinfectant in the solution

A

HCHO

276
Q

the ingredient of embalming fluids that retards the natural postmortem tendency of blood to become more viscous or prevents adverse reactions between blood and other embalming chemicals

A

anticoagulants

277
Q

liquids that serve as a solvent for the numerous ingredients that are incorporated into embalming fluids

A

vechicls

278
Q

chemicals that reduces the molecular cohesion of a liquid so it can flow through smaller apertures

A

surfactants

279
Q

substances which will, impart a definite color to the solution

A

dyes

280
Q

chemicals found in embalming arterial formulations having the capability of displacing an unpleasant ordor (esters & benzaldehyde)

A

masking agents

281
Q

chemicals added to the solution to deal the varying demands predicated upon the type of embalming, environment and fluid used

A

modifying agents

282
Q

chemical that increases the ability of embalmed tissue to retain moisture

A

humectants

283
Q

trocar guide for the right side of the heart

A

Direct the trocar to intersect a line drawn from the left anterior-superior iliac spine and the right earlobe. After the trocar has passed through the diaphragm, depress the point and enter the heart.

284
Q

trocar guide for the stomach

A

Direct the trocar point toward the intersection of the fifth intercostal space and the left midaxillary line (established by extending a line from the center of the medial base of the axillary space inferiorly along the rib cage)

285
Q

trocar guide for the cecum

A

Direct the trocar toward a point one-fourth of the distance from the right anterior-superior iliac spine to the pubic symphysis; keep the point of the trocar well up near the abdominal wall until within 4 inches of the right anterior-superior iliac spine; then dip the point 2 inches and insert it forward.

286
Q

lividity

A

antemortem intravascular discoloration

287
Q

carbon monoxide

A

antemortem intravascular discoloration

288
Q

capillary congestion

A

antemortem intravascular discoloration

289
Q

ecchymosis

A

antemortem extravascular discoloration

290
Q

petechia

A

antemortem extravascular discoloration

291
Q

petechia

A

antermortem extravascular discoloration

292
Q

hematoma

A

antemortem extravascular discolortion

293
Q

livor mortis

A

postmortem intravascular discolortion

294
Q

postmortem stain

A

postmortem extravascular discolortion

295
Q

tardieu spots

A

postmortem extravascular discolortion

296
Q

trocar point toward the intersection of the fifth intercostal space and the left mid-axillary line

A

stomach guide

297
Q

point trocar toward a point one-fifth of the distance from the right anterior-superior iliac spine to the pubic symphysis

A

cecum guide

298
Q

point trocar toward intersection of median line and advance to pubic bone, then withdraw about one half inch, dip the point slightly

A

bladder guide

299
Q

point trocar along a line from the left anterior-superior iliac spine to the lobe of the right ear, Once you pierce the diaphragm, dip point downward

A

right side of the heart guide

300
Q

If an embalmer elevated a gravity percolator ten feet above the injection site how many pounds of potential pressure would be created?

A

five

301
Q

What type of anticoagulant will breakup clots by causing the mineral particles of the blood to fall out of suspension?

A

Precipitants

302
Q

What is lipolysis

A

The decomposition of fats

303
Q

The temperature at which decomposition of the human body progresses most rapidly is:

A

98 degrees Fahrenheit

304
Q

Which blood vessel continues as the brachial artery

A

Axillary artery

305
Q

Which artery should be raised and injected to facilitate the embalming of the body between the antecubital fossa and the wrist?
Axillary

A

radial

306
Q

What type of solution will have its solvent drawn through a semi-permeable membrane into a more concentrated solution?

A

Hypotonic solution

307
Q

The individual for whom “Hunters Canal” is named is

A

John Hunter

308
Q

The largest singular bone of the face is the

A

mandible

309
Q

The horizontal, horse- shoe shaped portion of the mandible is known as the

A

body