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SAS scs RUSVM > E2: Dentistry and Periodontal disease > Flashcards

E2: Dentistry and Periodontal disease Flashcards

1
Q

_______: Toward the midline of the dental arch

_______: Away from midline (caudal)

_______: (contact) surface facing adjoining teeth

_______: betwee the contact surfaces of adjoining teeth

A

Mesial : Toward the midline of the dental arch

Distal: Away from midline (caudal)

Proximal: (contact) surface facing adjoining teeth

Interproximal: betwee the contact surfaces of adjoining teeth

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2
Q

What is a wider space between teeth called?

A

Diastema

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3
Q

What are the chewing surfaces of molars called?

A

Occlusal

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4
Q

_______ means toward the root or away from the crown. _______ means toward the crown.

A

Apical

Coronal

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5
Q

What is a Chevron Sign?

A

Widened periodontal ligament spaces in the apical areas of endodontically sound (healthy) teeth

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6
Q

What is the lamina lucida? What is the lamina dura?

A

Periodontal ligament

Cortical bone

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7
Q

What absorbs shock, supplies nutrients to alveolar bone and cementum as well as providing tactile and proprioceptive info?

A

Periodontal ligament

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8
Q

What can excessive vitamine D in cat food cayse?

A

Ossification of the periodontal ligament

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9
Q

What is the anatomical system for numbering teeth? What is the Triadan system?

A

Anatomic: Teeth labled based on type of tooth (M=molar, I=incision, C=canine) plus a number to the right or left of the letter as a sub or superscript (side of mouth, mandible vs maxilla)

Triadan: each tooth assigned 3-digit number; right maxilla = quadrant 1 = number start with 1, etc. (for deciduous 5, 6, 7, 8 instead of 1, 2,3,4)

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10
Q

What is the dental formula for a dog? Cat?

A

Dog: 3/3, 1/1, 4/4, 2/3 x2 =42 total

Deciduous: 3/3, 1/1, 3/3 x2= 28 total

Cat: 3/3, 1/1, 3/2, 1/1 x2= 30 total

Deciduous: 3/3, 1/1, 3/2 x2=26 total

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11
Q

Which teeth are considered carnassial in carnivores? What does this mean?

A

PM 4 on maxilla

M1 on mandible

Largest teeth in the mouth, essential for shearing flesh

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12
Q

What layer of the tooth is the largest?

A

Dentin

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13
Q

Where do the nerves and vessels enter the pulp cavity?

A

Apical delta

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14
Q

What is this? What does it overlie?

A

Incisive papilla

Vomeronasal organ

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15
Q

What does pulp consist of?

A

Blood vessels

Lymphatics

Nerves

Connective tissue

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16
Q

What quadrant (Triaden system) is the left mandible? Right maxilla?

A

3

1

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17
Q

What is the rule of 4 and 9?

A

The 4th tooth is always the canine tooth

The 9th tooth is alwats the first molar

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18
Q

In relation to the deciduous tooth, where do the adult teeth erupt?

A

Lingual/Palatal

Except maxillary canines which erupt mesial

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19
Q

What breeds are predisposed to crowding? Which tooth is most commonly affected?

A

Brachycephalics

Upper PM3

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20
Q

Which tooth is often supernumary in Boxers?

A

Upper PM1

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21
Q

_______ is the joining of two teeth, typically there will be ____ crown(s) and _____ root(s).

_______ is the incomplete splitting of two teeth, typically there will be ____ crown(s) and _____ root(s).

A

Fusion: 1 crown, 2 roots

Gemination/twinning= 2 crowns, 1 root

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22
Q

T/F: If the deciduous tooth is congenitally absent, the adult tooth will also be missing.

A

True

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23
Q

What is the Triadan classification of the left maxillary canine?

A

204

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24
Q

What is the most common malocclusion?

A

Base narrow canines (Class 1 malocclusion)

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25
Q

What is the difference between a class 1, class 2, and class 3 malocclusion?

A

Class 1: One or more teeth are not in the normal scissor alignment

Class 2: Mandibular brachygnathism, mandible too short or maxilla too long

Class 3: Mandibular prognathism, mandible too long or maxilla too short

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26
Q

What is the difference between attrition and abrasion?

A

Attrition = wearing away of crown by tooth against tooth contact

Abrasion= wearing away of crown by abnormal contact with structures other than teeth (E.g. bones, cage bars, balls)

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27
Q

What is the malocclusion called that when the midlines of the top and bottom arcades not to line up?

A

Wry mouth

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28
Q

What are the treatment options for maloclusions?

A

Interceptive orthodontics/Orthodontic appliances: incline planers

Exodontics: Removing deciduous or adult teeth

Crown reduction

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29
Q

What relationship should the mandibular and maxillary canines have to each other?

A

Mandibular canine should be ROSTRAL to Maxillary canine

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30
Q

What is the recommended treatment for impacted teeth? What can form if you do not treat these and what does it look like?

A

Extraction

Dentigerous cyst- swelling with a blue hue

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31
Q

What types of teeth are most commonly supernumery?

A

Premolars

Incisors

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32
Q

What are the 2 methods for obtaining dental radiographs? What are the 2 digital imaging systems?

A

Extraoral or Intraoral

Direct or Indirect (reusable plates)

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33
Q

If you are using dental firm for rads, where is the dimple placed?

A

Coronally and poining toward the x-ray tube (facing up)

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34
Q

What is the Triadan classification of the left mandibular 4th premolar?

A

308

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35
Q

What is the SLOB rule?

A

Re: Dental Rads

Same Lingual Opposite Buccal

When the tube head horizontally and angled 1-20deg, then the root that movies in the same direction as the tube head is lingual/palatal and the one that moves in the opposite direction is buccal

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36
Q

What is the Triadan classification of the right mandibular first molar?

A

409

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37
Q

What can cause enamel hypoplasia/hypoclassification? What is the treatment?

A

High fevers

Distemper

Periapical inflammation

Trauma

Endocrine dysfunction early in life

Tx- focal: Restore with composite

Tx-several teeth: Cap to prevent wear

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38
Q

What tool can be used to establish whether there is endodontic exposure?

A

Dental explorer probe (sharp tip)

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39
Q

What does reparative dentin look like?

A

Brown and hard

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40
Q

Which teeth are commonly affected by periapical infection?

A

Carnasial teeth

(upper PM4, lower M1)

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41
Q

What is a draining tract associated with the teeth?

A

Parulis

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42
Q

What drugs can cause gingival hyperplasia?

A

Cyclosporin

Ca channel blockers

Anticonvulsants

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43
Q

What is the normal depth of a gingival sulcus?

A

Cats: 0-1mm

Dogs: 1-3mm

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44
Q

What is the post-op care protocol after a gingivectomy?

A

Analgesics

Decaffeinated tea, chlorhex or other oral rinse

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45
Q

Which teeth are most commonly fractured?

A

Upper 4th PMs - 108 and 208

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46
Q

What are the DDx for this? How would you diagnose it?

A

Gingival hyperplasia

Peripheral odontogenic fibroma

Dx: Rads, marginal excisional biopsy, incisional if suspect malignancy

47
Q

What are the treatment options for an adult who has a tooth with pulpitis? How can you diagnose this?

A

Extract or Root canal

Dx: Transilluminate tooth, Rads

48
Q

What are the cardinal signs of endodontic disease?

A

Decreased wall size

Lucency around apex

Apical resorption

49
Q

What is the Triadan classification of the right maxillary middle incisor?

A

102

50
Q

What is the main factor for tooth fracture classification

A

Exposure of the pulp chamber/ endodonic system

51
Q

What is an abraction?

A

Type of tooth fracture in which there are cracks in the enamel but there is no loss of structure

Aka Enamel infraction

52
Q

What is the difference between an uncomplicated an a complicated crown fracture?

A

Pulp exposure

53
Q

What is the treatment for a tooth with a fractured root?

A

Extraction

54
Q

What are the treatment options for tooth fractures that do not involve pulp exposure?

A

Indirect pulp capping

Crown restoration

55
Q

What are the treatment options for tooth fractures that DO involve pulp exposure?

A

Vital pulpotomy or Root canal

followed by Crown restoration

Or

Extraction

56
Q

What is indicated by the single red arrow at the crown of the tooth? The multple red arrows at the root? The multple yellow arrows at the root?

Treatment options?

A

Red arrow: Fractured crown

Red arrows: Apical lucency

Yellow arrows: Apical tooth resorption

Tx: Root canal or extraction

57
Q

What are the indications for endodontics?

A

Fractured teeth

Pulpitis

Tooth luxation/avulsion

Crown reduction (Disarming, base narrow canines, soft tissue trauma post-resection)

Certain types of dental caries

58
Q

What is the main objective for a vital pulpotomy? When is it indicated?

A

Maintain viable tooth that will continue to mature

Immature tooth, very wide pulp cavity, apex not completely closed

59
Q

What improves the outcome of a vital pulptomy?

A

Young animals

Recent pulpal exposure

60
Q

What is the main objective of a complete root canal?

A

Maintain functionality of a ‘dead’ tooth

61
Q

What is the most common oral disease and the most common cause of tooth loss?

A

Periodontal disease

62
Q

What are the 2 major requirements for a successful root canal?

A

Complete removal of pulp contents

Seal apex (prevent bacteria from escaping tooth)

63
Q

What is the most commonly used canal sealant used for vital pulpotomies?

A

ProRoot MTA

Less good: Calcium hydroxide powder

64
Q

What are the 2 indicatons that a vital pulpotomy was successful?

A

Dentin continuing to thicken

Root canal continuing to get smaller

65
Q

What is the major disadvantage of doing a root canal to maintain tooth functionality?

A

Tooth will become dry and brittle and thus more likely to fracture

66
Q

What does ‘obturation of the root canals’ mean?

A

Filling the root canal completely

67
Q

What is the most important thing for long term success following a tooth luxation or removal?

A

Survival of the periodontal ligament

68
Q

What should you tell an owner who’s dog has avulsed a tooth and the owner wants to re-seat the tooth?

A

Keep the tooth moist- milk or saline

69
Q

What are the 2 steps to repairing a tooth avulsion?

A

Re-seat tooth (after flushing with saline if dirty) in alveolus and splint (for 4 weeks)

Root canal after tooth has reattached

70
Q

What characterizes the types of tooth resportion lesions?

A

Type 1: multifocal or focal radiolucencies, periodontal ligament intact, moderate to severe gingivitis and peridontitis

Type 2: multifocal or focal radiolucencies, disappearance of periodontal ligament with varying degrees, no or minimal evidence of periodontitis

Type 3: Features of both type 1 and type 2 in the same tooth

71
Q

What types of teeth typically get Type 3 resporptive lesions?

A

Multi-rooted

72
Q

For which type of resorptive lesion can you leave the root in after extraction?

A

Type 2 (will resorb)

73
Q

What part of the mouth is more commonly affected by gingivostomatitis?

A

Caudal

74
Q

What is typically the treatment choice for a cat with gingivostoatitis?

A

Full mouth extractions

75
Q

What is the main difference between juvenile-onset periodontitis and gingivostomatitis in cats?

A

JOP tends to affect the whole mouth, GS has prediliction for caudal mouth

76
Q

What artery can be affected by eosinophilic grauloma in cats?

A

Greater palatine artery

77
Q

What canine disease causes fetid halitosis, ptyalism and anorexia, and appears similar to gingivostomatitis in cats?

A

Canine ulcerative paradental stomatitits (CUPS)

78
Q

What are the indications for a glossectomy?

A

Trauma

Neoplasia

Macroglossia

79
Q

When do the first deciduous teeth erupt in dogs? Cats? Which teeth?

A

Dogs: Canines at 3 weeks (incisors at 3-4 weeks)

Cats: Incisors at 2-3 weeks (canines at 3-4 weeks)

80
Q

What characterizes stage 1 peridontal disease?

A

Gingivitis

Erythema

Gums bleed when probed

Loss of stipling

Normal sulcus depth

81
Q

What characterizes stage 2 peridontal disease?

A

Normal or hyperplastic gums

Minor picket develpment (3-5mm in dogs, 1-2mm in cats)

+/- minimal bone loss (<25%)

Possible mobility of incisors in small dogs and cats

82
Q

What characterizes stage 3 peridontal disease?

A

Moderate to deep pocket foration (5-6mm in dogs, 3mm in cats)

Gingival recession or hyperplasia

25-50% bone loss

Abnormal gingival topography

Slight mobility everywhere, moderate mobility of incisors

83
Q

Periodontal disease is primarily associated with ______.

A

Plaque

84
Q

What type of bacteria are present in early periodontal disease? What about with periodontitis?

A

Gram +

Gram -

85
Q

T/F: Gingivitis, which progresses to periodontitis if untreated, is reversible.

A

True

86
Q

What is feline buccal bone expansion? How is it managed?

A

Expression of vertical pocket formation filled in with granulation tissue and osteitis

Surgery

87
Q

What are the objectives of treating periodontal disease?

A

Remove biofilm

Minimize attachment loss and pocket depth

Maintain adequate attached gingiva (2-3mm)

88
Q

Bacteria in a biofilm require _____ times more antibiotics to kill them.

A

1500

89
Q

What is the most commonly used systemic antibiotic therapy for peridontal disease?

A

Clindamycin

90
Q

Why can polishing teeth cause tooth death?

A

Generates heat, over-polishing can kill the pulp

91
Q

What type of scaler is recommended?

A

Ultrasonic

92
Q

What formulation of chlorhexidine is recommened for oral use?

A

Chlorhexidine gluconate (0.12%)

93
Q

What is included in a basic dental cleaning pack (5 things)?

A

Scaler

Curette

Explorer/probe combo

Dental mirror

Retractor

94
Q

What instrument is never used below the gingival margin?

A

Scaler

95
Q

What is the most important thing for dental instrument maintenance?

A

Sharpening (preferrably after each use)

96
Q

Which hand instrument has only one cutting edge and a rounded tip? What is it used for?

A

Curette

Supra- or subgingival calculus removal and root cleaning

97
Q

What is the most important thing to know about the type ofn scaler that you have?

A

Tip function: amplitude, movement, pattern (which surfaces are active)

98
Q

T/F: When it comes to power scalers, smaller tip motion means less enamel damage.

A

True

99
Q

What is the most common error made when using a high speed handpiece?

A

Too much pressure (too heavy handed)

100
Q

Why is it important to look under the tongue during a dental, especially in cats?

A

Location for SCC and foreign body lodging

101
Q

Which gingival index indicates moderate inflammation, edema and bleeding on probing?

A

2

102
Q

What is the purpose of disclosing solution? What is an alternative?

A

Missed calculus detection

Using air (Calculus appears chalky white when tooth is dried)

103
Q

How man spots need to be probed per tooth when assessing pockets?

A

4

104
Q

What site must you evaluate closely, especially in small dogs, when looking for deep pockets? Where should you check after you have probed here?

A

Palatal surface of maxillary canines (104, 204)

Check nostril (for blood)

105
Q

What term is used for the assessment of the extent of pathological lesions? Which is used for quantitative assessment of severity? Which is used as a quantitiative expression of predefined diagnostic criteria?

A

Stage

Grade

Index

106
Q

What can result in a pseudopocket?

A

Gingival hyperplasia

107
Q

At what periodontal disease stage does mobility become compromised?

A

Stage 3

108
Q

What does “F3” exposure indicate?

A

Significant furcation exposure, can pass probe horizontally through furcation

109
Q

What can you use to seal the gingival sulcus?

A

Barrier sealants

110
Q

Which teeth are most likely to develop resorptive lesions?

A

Premolars

111
Q

Which teeth are most commonly affected by caries?

A

Maxillary M1 and M2

Mandibular M1

112
Q

At which teeth do oronasal fistulas most common occur?

A

Maxillary canines

113
Q

What teeth are most commonly affected by the genetic defect oligodontia?

A

PMs

SAS scs RUSVM (24 decks)

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