E2- Airway Equipment II Flashcards

1
Q

Name the components of the laryngoscope.

A
  • Handle
  • Blade
  • Light source (usually fiberoptic)

Manufactured as a single piece or detachable blade/handle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which hand should handle the laryngoscope?

A
  • Left Hand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Source of power for the laryngoscope light.

A

* Disposable batteries in the handle of the laryngoscope
* Typically C-Size Batteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Most laryngoscope blades form a ________ angle to blade when ready for use.

A
  • right
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 2 parts of the blade?

A
  • Tongue: Manipulates and compresses soft tissue
  • Tip - elevates epiglottis - direct or indirectly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the two types of laryngoscope blades?

A
  • Mac (Curved)
  • Miller (Straight)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

%%%%%%%%%%%

What is the purpose of the blade spatula?

A
  • Compresses the tongue into the mandibular space
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

%%%%%%%%%

What is the purpose of the flange?

A
  • The flange (if present) is used to move the tongue laterally and create a visual lumen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Typical Mac sizes for adults

A
  • Mac #3 (most common)
  • Mac #4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the tongue of a Mac blade compared to a Miller blade.

A
  • Mac blade tongue has a gentle curve
  • Miller blade has a straight tongue with a slight upward tip
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Typical Miller sizes for adults

A
  • Miller #2 (most common)
  • Miller #3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which laryngoscope blade has been shown to cause greater cervical spine movement?

A
  • Macintosh Blade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which laryngoscope blade is great for smaller mouths and longer necks?

A
  • Miller Blade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which laryngoscope blade will be used to minimize the movement of the cervical spine?

A
  • Miller Blade

Uses LESS force, head extension, c-spine movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which laryngoscope blade makes** intubation easier** because the blade requires adequate mouth opening.

A
  • Macintosh Blade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

%%%%%%%

When would you want to use a Miller #3 blade?

A
  • Tall person
  • Long neck
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The laryngoscope blade requires less force, less head extension, and less cervical spine movement.

A
  • Miller Blade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When using a Mac Blade, after epiglottis is visualized, the tip advanced into the _________.

A

Vallecula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When using a Mac Blade, the pressure applied at the right angle of the blade and the handle moves the ______ and ________forward.

A
  • Base of the tongue
  • Epiglottis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The Miller Blade will lift the ______.

A
  • Epiglottis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If the Miller Blade is inserted too far, what structures can it elevate?

A
  • Larynx
  • Esophagus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What can happen if the Miller Blade is withdrawn too far?

A
  • Epiglottis flips down and covers the glottis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How can the Miller Blade be used as a Macintosh?

A
  • Miller Blade can also be inserted into the vallecula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How can Mac blade be used like a Miller?

A

Directly elevate tip of epiglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the optimal position for the patient undergoing direct laryngoscopy?

A
  • Sniffing position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The sniffing position will have a ______ degree neck flexion (lower cervical).

The sniffing position will have a ____ degree head extension at the** atlanto-occiptal level.**

A
  • 35 degree
  • 80-90 degree
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In the sniffing position, there should be an imaginary horizontal line that connects the _______ and ________.

A
  • external auditory meatus
  • sternal notch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Steps to inserting laryngoscope blade.

A
  • Right hand opens mouth (“scissor”) to keep the lips free to accommodate blade insertion
  • Insert blade on right side of the mouth
  • Advance blade, keeping tongue to the left and elevated
  • Epiglottis comes into view
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some interventions for difficult airways?

A
  • Maintain a neutral position + use an OPA
  • Flexible fiberoptic scope
  • Video laryngoscope
  • awake or asleep
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the maneuver to displace the larynx to get the glottis in view?

A
  • BURP (Backwards Upward Rightward Pressure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

___________ patients will require elevation of the shoulder + upper back.

A
  • Obese

Use ramping technique for these patients so they can have a horiztonal ear to sternal notch line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What can be used to ramp a patient?

A
  • Troop Elevation Pillow
  • Folded Blankets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When ramping, create an imaginary horizontal line that connects?

A

External auditory meatus + sternal notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe a Shikani Optical Stylet.

A
  • Stainless steel lighted stylet with a malleable distal tip
  • Design utilizes an eyepiece for DL
  • Oxygen port for oxygen insufflation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What kind of position will the patient have for a Shikani Optical Stylet?

A
  • Neutral Position
  • inserted midline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Shikani Optical Stylet will advance into the trachea with ________ pressure, and the tip should remain _________ at all times to avoid injury.

A

*Light pressure
* Anterior (pointed up)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Shikani Optical Stylet can be used as a ________, check ETT placement, or placement of double-lumen ETT

A
  • Light wand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

4 Advantages of the Shikani Optical Stylet

A
  • Easy to use for routine and difficult intubations
  • Trachea is visualized. Esophageal intubation should not occur
  • Decreased incidence of sore throat
  • Results in less C-spine movement over conventional laryngoscopy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

3 Disadvantages of the Shikani Optical Stylet

A
  • Longer intubation time
  • Cannot be used with nasal intubation. (not flexible)
  • Cannot be adjusted into a precise direction compared to a traditional malleable stylet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Name the four most common Video Laryngoscopes.

A
  • Glidescope
  • Co-Pilot
  • King
  • McGrath
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are 6 advantages of using a video laryngoscope?

A
  • Magnified anatomy
  • Some scopes have curved/straight blades to mimic laryngoscopes
  • Operator and assistant can see
  • May result in decreased c-spine movement
  • Further distance from infectious patients
  • Demonstrates correct technique in legal cases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are 2 limitations of using a video laryngoscope?

A
  • Requires video system - batteries/power source
  • Portability varies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is 3 strongest predictor of failure when using a video laryngoscope?

A
  • Altered neck anatomy with the presence of a surgical scar
  • radiation changes
  • mass
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

7 Complications of Laryngoscopy

A
  • Dental Injuries
  • Cervical Spinal Cord Injury
  • Swallowing of foreign body (lightbulbs, teeth)
  • Abrasions/Hematoma
  • Lingual/ Hypoglossal nerve injury
  • Arytenoid Subluxation
  • Anterior TMJ dislocation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the most frequent anesthesia-related claim?

A
  • Dental Injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is most likely damaged during laryngoscopy?

A
  • Upper incisors
  • Restored or weakened teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What can help mitigate laryngoscopy-related dental injury?

A
  • Tooth protectors (placed on upper teeth during DL)
  • Protects from blade causing direct surface damage
  • Does not guarantee safety from dental trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How do you prevent cervical spinal cord injury during a laryngoscopy?

A
  • Do not aggressively position the head
  • Manual in-line stabilization (remove C-collar before intubation, have neurosurgeon remove C-collar)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Laryngoscopy causes damage to 4 structures

A
  1. Abrasions/hematomas – upper lip
  2. Lingual or hypoglossal nerve injury – placing blade + hitting them
  3. Arytenoid subluxation – don’t hit arytenoid with blade
  4. Anterior TMJ dislocation – don’t force mouth open
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What 2 things are most likely to be swallowed / aspirated?

A
  • light bulbs
  • teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How many teeth does a healthy adult patient have?

A
  • 32 teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What ETT properties causes change in resistance in the breathing system?

A
  • Internal Diameter of the tube
  • Tube Length
  • Configuration changes (if tube knots up)
  • Connectors
53
Q

What is the most important factor causing resistance of ETT?

A

Internal diameter

54
Q

Manufacturing Requirments of ETT

A
  • Low cost
  • Lack of tissue toxicity
  • Easy sterilization
  • Non-flammability
  • Smooth, non-porous surface
  • Sufficient body to maintain shape
  • Sufficient wall strength
  • Conforms to patient anatomy
  • Lack of reaction with anesthetic agents and lubricants
  • Latex-free
55
Q

What is 3 function of having a smooth, non-porous surface of the ETT?

A
  • Prevent/mitigate trauma
  • Prevent/mitigate secretion buildup
  • Allow passage of suction catheter or bronchoscope
56
Q

How does the ETT design decrease kinking?

A
  • Circular internal and external walls
57
Q

The slanted bevel helps _____ _____?

A

view larynx

58
Q

What part of the ETT provides an alternate pathway for gas flow?

A
  • Murphy eye
59
Q
  • What does RAE Tube stand for?
  • Are they cuffed?
  • What are they made of?
A
  • Ring-Adair-Elwin (RAE) Tube
  • YES
  • metal !! (MRI)
60
Q

What are 5 advantages of RAE Tubes?

A
  • Facilitate surgery around the head and neck
  • Temporarily straightened during insertion
  • Increased tube diameter… increased distance from tip to curve
  • Easy to secure
  • Nasal fiberoptic intubation.
61
Q

What are 2 disadvantages of RAE Tubes?

A
  • Difficult to pass suction/scope d/t angle
  • Increases airway resistance
62
Q

What are 3 other names for Armored Tubes?

A
  • Reinforced Tube
  • Anode Tube
  • Spiral Embedded Tubes
63
Q

What are 3 advantages of Armored Tubes?

A
  • Useful when tube is likely to be bent or compressed
  • Resistance to kinking and compression
  • Useful in head, neck, tracheal surgeries
64
Q

What are 4 disadvantages of Armored Tubes?

A
  • Need a stylet or forceps
  • Difficult to use during nasal intubation
  • Cannot be shortened
  • Tube can be damaged if bitten
65
Q
  • What makes up the laser-resistant tubes?
  • When are they used?
A
  • Metallic or silicone/ metal mixture
  • surgeries that need laser to burn something off (oral cavity)
66
Q

What kind of laser’s do laser-resistant tubes reflect?

A
  • CO2 Laser
  • KTP (Potassium-titanyl-phosphate) Laser
67
Q
  • What is Laser-Resistant Tube’s cuff filled with?
  • Is the cuff laser resistant?
  • Why double cuff?
A
  • The cuff is filled with methylene blue crystals + saline so that, if the laser bursts the cuff, this will be detected quickly by the surgeon.
  • NOT laser resistant
  • So that if burst one still have another
68
Q

Which cuff is filled first in the Laser-Resistant Tube?

A
  • Distal + internal Cuff first
  • Proximal Cuff second
69
Q

Location of ETT markings

A
  • Bevel side above the cuff
70
Q

How do you read the ETT markings?

A
  • From patient side (balloon) to machine side
71
Q

What are 6 safety standards of the ETT markings?

A
  • The word oral or nasal or oral/nasal
  • Tube size in ID in mm (7.0, 7.5, etc)
  • Name of manufacturer
  • Graduated markings in centimeters from patient’s end
  • Cautionary note… single use only if disposable
  • Radiopaque marker at patient’s end (CXR for positioning)
72
Q

Inflatable balloon near patient’s end of the tube

A
  • Cuffs
73
Q

Characteristics of an ETT Cuff.

A
  • Strong
  • Tear-resistant
  • Thin
  • Soft
  • Pliable
74
Q

The cuff must not herniate over what part of the ETT?

A
  • Muphy eye
  • Bevel
75
Q

What is the recommended cuff pressure?
What happens if too much pressure?

How much air is that?

A
  • 18-25 mmHg
  • mucosal necrosis
  • 8-10 mL of air
76
Q

Monitor cuff pressure frequently with a manometer if using ______, as this causes cuff inflation/expansion.

A
  • Nitrous
77
Q

KNOW DIFFERENCES

What are the two different types of cuffs?

Which one is more common?

A
  • High-volume, Low-pressure Cuff (more common = what we use)
  • Low-volume, High-pressure Cuff
78
Q

Describe the High-Volume, Low-Pressure Cuffs.

A
  • Thin compliant wall
  • Occludes trachea without stretching tracheal wall
  • Area of contact larger but cuff adapts shape to tracheal wall shape
79
Q

2 Advantages of High-Volume, Low-Pressure Cuffs

A
    • Easy to regulate pressure
    • Pressure applied to trachea less than mucosal perfusion pressure. (maintains circulation)
      * Low Risk to Tracheal Mucosa
80
Q

5 Disadvantages of High-Volume, Low-Pressure Cuffs

A
  • More difficult to insert
  • May obscure the view of the tube tip and larynx
  • Cuff is more likely to be torn during intubation
  • More likely to have a sore throat
  • May not prevent fluid leakage
  • Easy to pass NGT, esophageal stethoscopes around cuff
81
Q

Describe Low-Volume, High-Pressure Cuffs.

A
  • Has small area of contact with trachea
  • Requires large amount of pressure to achieve a seal
  • Distends and deforms the trachea to a circular shape
82
Q

3 Advantages of Low-Volume, High-Pressure Cuffs.

A
  • Better protection against aspiration
  • Better visibility during intubation
  • Lower incidence of sore throat
83
Q

3 Disdvantages of Low-Volume, High-Pressure Cuffs.

A
  • Pressure exerted on trachea probably above mucosal perfusion pressure
  • Can cause mucosal damage
  • Should be replaced with a low-pressure cuff if postoperative intubation is required
84
Q
  • MATCHING
  • 4 Factors that can cause changes in cuff pressure.
  • Do they increase or decrease pressure?
A
  • Use of nitrous (↑ pressure)
  • Hypothermic cardiopulmonary bypass (↓ pressure)
  • Increases in altitude (↑ pressure)
  • Coughing, straining, and changes in muscle tone (↑ pressure)
85
Q

What are 4 common controversies involving airway equipment?

A
  • Use of a stylets
  • Securing ETT
  • Use of Bite blocks/airways while intubated - not while lateral/prone
  • Is it bad to intubate the esophagus?
86
Q

List endotracheal tube 5 complications

A
    • Trauma
    • Inadvertent bronchial intubation
    • Fluid accumulation above the cuff
    • Upper airway edema
    • Vocal cord granuloma
87
Q
  • ____ occurs from excessive force + repeated attempts.
  • keep stylet ____ tube
A
  • Trauma
  • Inside
88
Q

Use _________ for nasal intubation to mitigate bleeding and pre-dilate nasal passage.

A
  • vasoconstrictors (Afrin/Cocaine)
89
Q

Inadvertent bronchial intubations are most common in:

A
  • Emergencies (Code Blue)
  • Pediatrics (shorter distance to carina)
  • Females (shorter right mainstem)
90
Q

Inadvertent bronchial intubation can lead to _________ if left in place for too long.

A
  • atelectasis
91
Q

The distance to the carina decreases during what two things? Why?

A
  • Trendelenburg and laparoscopy.
  • Insufflation + shifting abdomen cephalad
92
Q

What marking would you secure an ETT on a male patient?

Female patient?

A
  • Male: 23 cm at teeth
  • Female: 21 cm at teeth

REMEMBER :: females drink at 21 ,, males should wait til 23

93
Q

What can accumulate above the cuff of ETT?

A
  • Fluids
94
Q
  • Where does upper airway edema occur?
  • Why is upper airway edema dangerous in young children?
  • Peak incidence age?
A
  • Along the length of tube
  • Cricoid cartilage completely surrounds the subglottic area
  • 1-4 years old
95
Q
  • Complications of airway edema can occur as early as _____ hours post to ____ hours postop.
  • Avoid _______ stimuli – URI + Anesthetic depth
A
  • 1-2 hours to 48 hrs
  • irritating
96
Q
  • What is vocal cord granuloma?
  • Who is more prone ?
A
  • mass that result from irritation
  • Adults + Females
97
Q

What are the 4 causes of Vocal Cord Granuloma?

A
  • Trauma
  • ETT too large
  • Infection
  • Excessive cuff pressure
98
Q

4 Signs and Symptoms of Vocal Cord Granuloma?

A
  • Persistent hoarseness
  • Fullness
  • Chronic cough
  • Intermittent loss of voice
99
Q

Treatment of Vocal Cord Granuloma

A
  • Laryngeal evaluation (ENT appt)
  • Voice rest
100
Q

This airway adjunct is typically used to aid tracheal intubation in poor laryngoscopic views or diffcult ETT passage.
* has a ______ base with resin coating

A
  • Bougie
  • polyester

The bougie has a polyester base with resin coating.

101
Q
  • The distal end of the bougie is angled _______- degrees.
  • with _____ position in order to feel tracheal rings
A
  • 30-45 degrees
  • anterior

Introduce Bougie with anterior positioning of the tip.
Be Gentle.
You should feel the clicks of the tracheal rings.

102
Q

What are these called?
What are they used for?
Considerations?

A
  • Magill forceps
  • Used primarily with nasal intubations to directs tube into larynx
  • Considerations: Possible damage to cuffs and lodged in Murphy eye
103
Q

3 uses for lung isolation

A
  1. thoracic procedures
  2. control contamination or hemorrhage
  3. unilateral pathology
104
Q

The rationale for lung isolation in thoracic procedure

A
  • Deflating the lung to increase safety profile and surgical exposure
105
Q

The rationale for lung isolation to control contamination or hemorrhage

A
  • Can prevent material in one lung from contaminating other
  • Allows one lung to be ventilated while other hemorrhages
106
Q

The rationale for lung isolation in unilateral pathology

A
  • Isolate fistulas, ruptured cysts, or other issues with the diseased lung while allowing unilateral ventilation
107
Q

KNOW DIFFERENCES

Anatomy of the Right Mainstem
angle, length, takeoff

A
  • Shorter, straighter, + larger diameter
  • 25 degree takeoff from trachea
  • RUL tracheal takeoff = close to origin (proximal)
  • Avg length = 2.5 cm from carina to take-off
108
Q

Anatomy of the Left Mainstem
angle, length, takeoff

A
  • 45 degree takeoff from trachea
  • LUL tracheal takeoff = more distal
  • Avg length 5.5 cm from carina to take-off
109
Q

What are the adult sizes for the double-lumen tube?

A
  • 35 Fr
  • 37 Fr
  • 39 Fr
  • 41 Fr

ODD that geriatric pregnancy is 35-41

110
Q

What are the pediatric sizes for the double-lumen tube?

A
  • 26 Fr
  • 28 Fr
  • 32 Fr

That means “pediatric” pregnancy could be evenly 26-32

111
Q

Which Double-Lumen Tube (DLT) is commonly used?

A
  • Left Double-Lumen Tube
112
Q

KNOW! TEST QUESTION

4 Procedures that will require a Right Double-Lumen Tube.

A
  • ANYTHING on LEFT side
    1. * Left pneumonectomy
    1. * Left lung transplantation
    1. * Left mainstem bronchus stent in place
    1. * Left tracheo-bronchus disruption
113
Q

Insertion of DLT is placed similarly as a standard ETT, but more difficult due to what?

A
  • Stiffness
  • Size
114
Q

The DLT is advance through the larynx with angled tip __________ into the ________.

A
  • Anterior
  • Trachea
115
Q

When inserting the DLT, when the _________ cuff passes the cords, the tube is turned ____ degrees. _____________ portion points toward the appropriate bronchus

A
  • bronchial
  • 90 degrees
  • bronchial
116
Q

DLT verification of the location of the bronchial port with a ________.

A
  • fiberoptic scope
117
Q

The __________ bronchial cuff of the DLT is just below the _______ in the appropriate bronchus.

A
  • blue
  • carina
118
Q

Inflate DLT’s bronchial balloon under ___________to verify proper placement

A
  • direct visualization
119
Q

Ensure DLT’s bronchial cuff does not herniate over the ______.

A
  • carina
120
Q

How can you isolate a lung with the DLT?

A
  • Clamping either tracheal or bronchial connector
121
Q

What are 2 DLT complications?

A
  • Tube malpositions
  • Hypoxemia
122
Q

What 2 cause DLT malposition + unsatisfactory lung collapse? Treatment?

A
  • Bronchial lumen in the wrong mainstem = reinsertion
  • Tube too proximal in airway = correct with fiberoptic
123
Q
  • What can cause hypoxemia with a DLT?
  • Treatments?
A
  • Malpositioning of DLT = reinsertion)
  • Patient comorbidities = PEEP or intermittent 2-lung ventilation
124
Q

Picture of DLT Insertion

A
125
Q

What are 7 indications for Bronchial-Blockers?

A
  • When DLT is not advisable
  • Nasal intubation
  • Difficult intubation
  • Patients with tracheostomy
  • Subglottic stenosis
  • Need for continued postoperative intubation
  • If a single-lumen tube is already in place (critically ill pts)
126
Q

The function of the Bronchial Blocker.

A
  • Can block a segment of the lung without isolating the entire lung

DLT cannot do this

127
Q

4 Difficulties with Bronchial-blockers

A
  • Right upper lobe bronchus takeoff is high
  • Tracheal bronchus
  • Fixation by staples during surgery
  • Perforation by suture needle or instrumentation
128
Q

What two teeth have the highest incidence of dental injuries?

A

Left Central Incisor (47%)
Left Lateral Incisor (20%)