Dysmorphism/congenital abnormality Flashcards

cleft lip/palate, diaphragmatic hernia, tracheoesophageal fistula, oesophageal atresia, biliary atresia, small bowel atresia, urinary tract anomalies, anorectal malformations, cryptorchidism

1
Q

Describe the embryology of the umbilicus.

A

During development, umbilicus consists of 2 umbilical arteries (continuous with internal iliac arteries) and 1 umbilical vein (continuous with the falciform ligament/ducus venosus).

After birth, the cord dessicates and separates and the umbilical ring closes.

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2
Q

Name 4 umbilical disorders (with discharge).

A
  • Omphalitis - infection with S.aureus; may be dangerous as can spread through umbilical veins to cause pyaemia and portal vein thrombosis; treat with topical and systemic antibiotics
  • Umbilical granuloma - cherry lesions around umbilicus which may _bleed or have seropurulent discharg_e; treat with chemical cautery and topical silver nitrate
  • Persistent urachus - urinary discharge from umbilicus when urachus which is attached to bladder persists; assoc. with other urogenital abnormalities
  • Persistent vitello-intestinal duct - small bowel content discharge, rarely a complete persistence of the duct; persistence of part of the duct is called Meckel’ diverticulum; image with contrast and close surgically by laparotomy.
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3
Q

Name 2 umbilical disorders (no discharge).

A

Umbilical hernia - self resolve, rarely stragulate, more comon in premature infants

Paraumbilical hernia - defects in linea alba, edes of hernia more defined than of umbilical hernia, close spontaneously after 12 months - 3 years.

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4
Q

What is the management of an umbilical hernia found in an infant?

A

They will self-resolve by age of 3 years - if not surgery can be offered at 2-3 years if large(>1.5cm) and symptomatic or 4-5 years if small and asymptomatic.

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5
Q

What are the risk factors for umbilical hernia?

A
  • Afro-Caribbean infants
  • Down’s syndrome
  • mucopolysaccharide storage diseases
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6
Q

Define biliary atresia.

A

A paediatric condition involving either obliteration or discontinuity within the extrahepatic biliary system wjocj results in the obstruction of flow of bile. Neonate then presents with cholestasis within a few days.

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7
Q

What are the types of biliary atresia?

A
  1. Type 1: patent proximal ducts but common duct obliterated
  2. Type 2: atresia of cystic duct and cystic structures in the porta hepatis
  3. Type 3: atresia of the left and right ducts to the level of the porta hepatis, occurs in >90% of cases
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8
Q

How common is biliary atresia?

A
  • females> males
  • neonates only - perinatal form presents within 2 weks of life and postnatal form presents within the first 2-8 weeks of life
  • 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births affected
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9
Q

Describe the presentation of biliary atresia. What signs are present on examination?

A
  • First few weeks of life
  • Janudice
  • Dark urine, pale stools
  • Appetite and growth distrubance

Examination:

  • Janudice
  • Hepatomegaly with splenomegaly
  • Abnormal growth
  • Cardiac murmur with cardiac abnormalities present
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10
Q

What investigations would you do for biliary atresia?

A
  • LFTs - serum bile acids and aminotransferases raised but not differentiating from other causes of jaundice
  • Serum bilirubin (conjugated + unconjugated) - total normal but conjugated abnormally high
  • US liver and biliary tree - distension and tract abnormalities
  • Other:
    • Alpha-1 antitrypsin - serum deficiency may cause cholestasis
    • Sweat chloride test - CF involves biliary tract
    • Percutaneous liver biopsy + intraoperative cholangioscopy
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11
Q

What is the management of biliary atresia?

A
  1. SURGERY - dissection of abnormalities into distinct ducts/anastomosis creation
  2. Antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery
  3. Nutrition and fat soluble vitamin supplementation

If surgery is unsuccessful: transplantation.

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12
Q

What surgery is used for biliary atresia?

A

Palliative surgery

Kasai hepatoportoenterostomy (loop of jejunum is anastomosed to the cut surface of the porta hepatis) - bypasses the fibrotic ducts and facilitated drainage of bile from any remaning patent ductules

80% will clear jandice if this surgery is done in <60days of life

BUT even if successful, disease progresses to cholangitis and cirrhosis with portal hypertension in moct

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13
Q

What are the complications of biliary atresia? What is the prognosis?

A
  • Unsuccessful surgery
  • Liver disease progression
  • Cirrhosis with hepatocellular carcinoma

Prognosis: good if surgery suceeds but if fails then transplantation may be required within first 2 years of life.

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14
Q

What are 5 features of a congenital diaphragmatuc hernia?

A

5 B’s:

  1. B: Bochdalek (name)
  2. B: barrel chest appearance
  3. B: back / lateral (usually on the left)
  4. B: baby (rarely present in adulthood)
  5. B: bad (associated with pulmonary hypoplasia and high mortality risk)
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15
Q

How common is congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

A

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) occurs in around 1 in 2,000 newborns.

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16
Q

What is the pathophysiology of CDH?

A

Pleuroperitoneal canal fails to close

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17
Q

Why is mortality of CDH so high?

A

Mortality is 50%

Herniated viscera may have cause lung hypoplasia causing high mortality after birth

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18
Q

What is the management of CDH?

A

Large nasogastric tube is placed and suction applied to prevent distension of the intrathoracic bowel

Surgical repair after stabilisation

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19
Q

What is the most common type of CDH?

A

Left sided herniation of bowel through the posterolateral foramen causing heart sounds to be displaced to the right side

AKA Bochdalek hernia (accounts for 85% of cases)

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20
Q

What is oesophageal atresia usually associated with?

A

Tracheo-oesophageal fistula

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21
Q

Describe the types of oesophageal atresia/tracheo-oesophageal fistula that can occur.

A
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22
Q

How common is oesophageal atresia? What are the risk factors? What is seen on antenatal scan?

A

1 in 3500 live births affected

Polyhydramnios during pregnancy

Absent stomach bubble on antenatal scan

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23
Q

How does oesophageal atresia present if not detected antenatally?

A
  • Persistent drooling
  • Coughing and choking when fed
  • Cyanotic episodes
  • Aspiration of saliva or acid secretions from stomach
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24
Q

What % of babies will have other congenital abnormalities with oesophageal atresia? Name these.

A

50% will have other congenital malformations e.g. VACTERL association

  • V - vertebral
  • A- anorectal
  • C - cardiac
  • TE - tracheo-oesophageal
  • R- renal
  • L- limb
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25
Q

What is the management if oesophageal atresia is suspected antenatally?

A

At birth a tube is passed and XR done to see if it reaches the stomach

Continuous suction is applied to reduce aspiration of saliva and secretions

Transfer to neonatal surgical unit for correction

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26
Q

Wha are the complications following surgery for oesophageal atresia/tracheo-oesophageal fistula?

A
  • GORD
  • Chronic cough
  • May require oesophageal dilation in infancy or childhood
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27
Q

Define cleft lip.

A

Unilateral or bilateral defect where there is failure of fusion of the frontonasal and maxillary processes.

28
Q

Define cleft palate.

A

Failure of fusion of the palatine processes and the nasal septum.

29
Q

How common is cleft palate/lip?

A

0.8 per 1000 births

30
Q

What are the risk factors for cleft lip/palate?

A
  • polygenic inheritance
  • smoking/alcohol during pregnancy
  • obesity during pregnancy
  • lack of folic acid
  • maternal drugs e.g. anticonvulsant therapy and steroids
31
Q

Name 2 chromosomal disorders associated with cleft palate/lip/

A
  1. Pierre Robin sequence (micrognathis, glossoptosis, midline cleft of soft palate)
  2. DiGeorge syndrome (22q11 deletion)
32
Q

When is cleft lip and cleft palate repaired?

A

Lip = 3 months

Palate = 6-12 months

33
Q

What are the difficulties with cleft lip/palate? How can these be managed?

A

Difficulty feeding - may be breastfed successfully but if milk is seen to enter nose/cause coughing then special teats and feeding devices may be required e.g. orthodontic advixe and dental prosthesis

Secretory otitis media - prone to this but adenoidectomy should not be done

34
Q

What is the management of cleft lip/palate ?

A

MDT approach - ENT, paediatricians, orthodontists, audiologists, speech therapists

  1. Surgery at 3 months (lip) or 6-12 months (palate)
  2. Advice on feeding
  3. SALT - help with speech development
  4. Hearing monitoring - prone to glue ear
  5. Good dental hygiene and orthodontic treatment
  6. Parent support groups e.g. Cleft Lip and Palate Association
35
Q

Why is adenoidectomy best avoided to prevent otitis media in cleft lip/palate?

A

It can exacerbate difficulty feeding and cause nasal speech

36
Q

What is shown here?

A

Abdominal X-ray in duodenal atresia showing a ‘double bubble’ from distension of the stomach and duodenal cap. There is absence of air
distally

37
Q

How is small bowel atresia diagnosed? What are the features?

A

Antenatally on ultrasound

Clinical features of obstruction - bilous vomiting (unless obstruction is above the ampulla of Vater), no transition to normal stool after meconium, abdominal distension

Abdominal X ray

38
Q

Does distal or proximal atresia/obstruction present earlier and which causes greater abdominal distension?

A

High lesions present earlier

Distal lesions present a few days later and will cause greater abdominal distension

39
Q

List 5 neonatal causes of small bowel obstruction.

A
  1. Atresia/stenosis of duodenum
  2. Atresia/stenosis of jejunum or ileum - may have multiple atretic segments of bowel
  3. Malrotation with volvulus - dangerous as could cause infarction of whole bowel
  4. Meconium ileus - thick inspissated meconium of puttylike consistency
  5. Meconium plug - plug of insippated meconium causing lower intestinal obstruction
40
Q

What condition do almost all infants with meconium ileus have?

A

cystic fibrosis

41
Q

What is the management of small bowel obstruction in a neonate?

A
  • Surgery and correct fluid and electrolyte depletion - atresia or stenosis
  • Passes spontaneously - meconium plug
  • Gastrografin contrast medium dislodgement or surgery - meconium ileus
42
Q

List 2 causes of large bowel obstruction in a neonate.

A

Hirschsprung disease - >48 hours to pass meconium; 15% present with acute enterocolitis; more common in Down’s syndrome and in boys

Rectal atresia - absence of anus; bowel can end high or low and may form fistula with bladder or urethra in boys and vagina or bladder in girls.

43
Q

What is gastroschisis/exomphalos? How do they differ?

A

Abdominal contents protrude through unbilical ring covered by an amniontic membrane and peritoneum (exomphalos) or

through a defect in the abdominal wall and there is no covering sac(gastroschisis)

Management: cover with clear occlusive wrap, give NG tube fluids and surgically close.

44
Q

How does GFR change with age?

A
45
Q

What are the features of Potter’s syndrome? What is the cause?

A
  • low set ears
  • beaked nose
  • prominent epicathic folds and downward slant to eyes
  • pulmonary hypoplasia causing respiratory failure
  • limb deformities

Cause: intrauterine compression of fetus fromoligohydramnios due to lack of fetal urine from renal agenesis

46
Q

List 6 urinary tract anomalies found in neonates.

A
  1. Renal agenesis - absence of both kidneys
  2. Multicystic dysplastic kidneys - no urine produced if bilateral
  3. Pelvic kidney or horseshoe kidney - abnormal migration may predispose to infection of obstruction
  4. Duplex system
  5. Bladder exstrophy
  6. Posterior urethral folds (M)
  7. Neuropathic bladder
47
Q

What is the cause of multicystic dysplastic kidneys in neonates? What is the prognosis?

A

Cause: Failure of the union of the ureteric bud (forming ureter/pelvis/calyces and collecting ducts) with the nephrogenic mesenchyma. This forms non-functioning structure with large fluid filled cysts with no renal tissue and no connection with the bladder.

Prognosis: half will involute by age 2 and nephrectomy only required if hypertension develops or if the structure is large. Potter’s syndrome can develop which is fatal if the defect is bilateral.

48
Q

List 3 other causes of large cystic kidneys in a neonate.

A
  1. AR polycystic kidney disease
  2. AD polycystic kidney disease
  3. Tuberous sclerosis

NB: in contrast to multicystic dysplastic kidney, there is some or normal renal function in these conditions.

49
Q

What is the incidence of ADPKD? What is the course of the disease?

A

Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease affects 1 in 1000

Hypertension in childhood; renal failure in late adulthood; can also cause cysts in the liver, pancreas, cerebral aneurysms, mitral valve prolapse.

50
Q

What is a duplex system kidney?

A

Varies - can be a bifid renal pelvis or complete division with two ureters

Lower pole moiety often refluxes, whereas upper may drain ectopically into urethra or vagina or prolapse into the bladder (ureterocele) and flow obstructed.

51
Q

What is prune belly syndrome? What happens to the bladder?

A

Absent musculature on the abdomen - associated with large bladder, dilated ureters (megacystis-megaureters) and cryptorchidism

Bladder extrophy occurs. Failure of fusion of the infraumbilical midline structures results in exposed bladder mucosa.

52
Q

What do these renal ultrasounds show?

A

Left) dilated renal pelvis from pelviureteric junction obstruction

Right) normal ultrasound of kidney for comparison

53
Q

Give 2 causes of unilateral hydronephrosis and bilateral hydronephrosis.

A

Unilateral:

  • Pelviureteric junction obstruction
  • Vesicoureteric junction obstruction

Bilateral:

  • Bladder neck obstruction
  • Posterior urethral valves
54
Q

Why is furosemide given to perform a MAG3 renogram (mercapto-acetyl-triglycine, labelled with 99mTc)?

A

This is a dynamic scan, whereby isotope-labelled substance MAG3 excreted from the blood into the urine. Measures drainage, best performed with high urine flow so FUROSEMIDE is often given.

Best in children >4yrs and used to identify VUR.

55
Q

What is the diagnosis?

A

Posterior urethral valves

56
Q

What is the management of congenital urethral abnormalities detected antenatally?

A
57
Q

What is a MCUG scan?

A

Micturating cystourethrogram - contrast introduced into bladder through urethral catheter.

Uses: visualising VUR and urethral obstruction

Disadvantages: invasive and unpleasant beyond infancy, high radiation dose, can introduce infection

58
Q

Define cryptorchidism.

A

Cryptorchidism, or undescended/ectopic testis, is when one or both testes are not present within the dependent portion of the scrotal sac.

59
Q

How common is cryptorchidism?

A

2-8% at birth

decreases to 1-2% after few months of life due to spontaneous resolution with testosterone peat at 3 months

60
Q

What are the causes/risk factors for cryptorchidism?

A

Hormonal: abnormalities in the pathways/signalling of testosterone, mullerian inhibiting substance, insulin-like 3 hormone or its receptor LGR8, epidermal growth factor, and/or oestrogens.

Environmental or maternal toxins: organochlorines, environmental oestrogens, phthalate esters, and pesticides

Maternal: alcohol consumption, analgesic consumption, and smoking

Gestational diabetes and/or obesity

Genetic: up to 23% of cases have been associated with familial clustering; mutations include insulin-like factor 3 and its receptor, LGR8, and CAG/GGC repeats in androgen receptor genes.

Mechanical: problems with development of the gubernaculum or cremasteric muscle fibres, a patent processus vaginalis, or impaired intra-abdominal pressure

Neuromuscular: abnormalities of the calcitonin gene-related peptide of the genitofemoral nerve or the cremasteric nucleus

61
Q

What is the most common pathophysiology behind cryptorchidism?

A

Incomplete migration of the testis during embryogenesis from the original retroperitoneal position near the kidneys to its final position in the scrotum.

( Less commonly- absent testis or severely atrophic testis (nubbin), secondary to malformation or testicular torsion)

62
Q

What should you ask about in history of cryptorchidism?

A

Presence of testes at times when the patient is relaxed, such as when in the bath (may suggest excessive cremasteric reflex or retractile testes)

Previous inguinal surgery

Family history

63
Q

What should you check on examination in cryptorchidism?

A

Palpate for the testes in the scrotum, inguinal canal, femoral or perineal regions.

Check for retractile testes (this is a normal variant in position where the testes is located in the suprascrotal position and can be pulled down painlessly)

Inspect for hypospadias, penil length and secondary sexual characteristics (at older age)

64
Q

What hormonal profile will signify anorchia? NB: not usually tested as clinically diagnosed.

A
  • absent mullerian inhibiting substance (MIS)
  • absent inhibin B
  • high FSH
65
Q

What is the management of cryptorchidism?

A

If palpable testes, orchiopexy (surgical) should be carried out before 12-18 months

Otherwise, referral for endocrinology and/or genetic evaluation with karyotype and biochemical workup for a disorder of sex development (DSD).

NB: sometimes severely androgenised female with CAH can present with presumed undescended testes.

66
Q

What are the reasons for correction of cryptorchidism?

A

Reasons for correction of cryptorchidism

  • Reduce risk of infertility
  • Allows the testes to be examined for testicular cancer
  • Avoid testicular torsion
  • Cosmetic appearance

Males with undescended testis are 40 times as likely to develop testicular cancer (seminoma) as males without undescended testis.
The location of the undescended testis affects the relative risk of testicular cancer (50% intra-abdominal testes). This may be because of higher intra-abdominal temperature of the testes etc. so always suspect malignancy. However even if corrected it may have higher risk of malignancy.

67
Q

What does the neonatal blood spot screening test for? When is it performed?

A

5-9 days

The following conditions are currently screened for:

  • congenital hypothyroidism
  • cystic fibrosis
  • sickle cell disease
  • phenylketonuria
  • medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD)
  • maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)
  • isovaleric acidaemia (IVA)
  • glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1)
  • homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU)