Dump 5 Flashcards
What process does a security manager use in establishing priorities in the protection of assets?
a. Audit survey
b. Security survey
c. Risk analysis or assessment
d. Inspection review
e. Both B and C
f. All of the above
E – Both B and C
The degree of protection desired in any installation is predicated on an analysis of which of the following?
a. Cost and vulnerability
b. Cost and criticality
c. Criticality and vulnerability
d. Vulnerability and environmental conditions
e. None of the above
C – Criticality and vulnerability
A critical on-site examination and analysis of a facility to ascertain the present security status and to identify deficiencies or excesses in determining the protection needed to make recommendations to improve overall security is the definition of a(n):
a. Full-field inspection
b. Inspection review
c. Audit survey
d. Security survey
e. None of the above
D – Security survey
What is a key consideration in a risk analysis or risk assessment process?
a. Vulnerability to attack
b. Probability of attack
c. Cost
d. Impact to the business if loss occurs
e. Both A and B
f. All of the above
F – All of the above
From a security perspective, what is the first factor to be considered in facility construction?
a. The identity of experienced consultants
b. An effective security plan
c. The building site itself
d. An architect with knowledge of physical security
e. None of the above
C – The building site itself
Which of the following is not correct regarding a security education program?
a. Many people are naïve and trusting
b. All installation personnel must be made aware of the constant threat of breaches of security
c. Structural aids to security are valueless without active support of all personnel
d. Security consciousness is an inherent state of mind
e. None of the above
D – Security consciousness is an inherent state of mind
The most vulnerable link in any identification system is:
a. Poor quality of identification badges
b. Educational background of security officers
c. Not enough security officers assigned to control posts
d. Identification cards are too small
e. Perfunctory performance of duty
f. None of the above
E – Perfunctory performance of duty
Which of the following is not true in regard to establishing and identifying personnel to control movement?
a. The identification card should be designed as simply as possible
b. Detailed instructions should be disseminated as to where, when, and how badges should be worn
c. Procedures should be designed to show employees what to do when an identification card or badge is lost
d. The identification card or badge should be designed in a relatively complicated manner to avoid duplication
e. Prerequisites should be devised and disseminated for reissue
D – The identification card or badge should be designed in a relatively complicated manner to avoid duplication
The use of a simple codeword or phrase during a normal conversation to alert other security personnel that an authorized person has been forced to vouch for an unauthorized individual is termed:
a. Code one
b. SOS
c. Security alert
d. Duress code
e. Basic alert
D – Duress code
The practice of hanging at least two authorized persons, each capable of detecting incorrect or unauthorized procedures with respect to the task being performed, present during any operation that affords access to a sensitive area is referred to as a(n):
a. Two-man access procedure
b. Two-man control rule
c. Two-man rule
d. Controlled access rule
e. Information security rule
f. None of the above
C – Two-man rules
The designation and establishment of “restricted areas” according to army regulations is performed by the:
a. Joint Chiefs of Staff
b. National Security Agency
c. The Secretary of Defense
d. The Secretary of the Army
e. The military commander of the installation or facility
E – The military commander of the installation or facility
Which of the following is not a known advantage of the establishment of restricted areas?
a. They provide an increase in security without slowdown in operation
b. They provide increased security through buffer zones
c. They allow for varying degrees of security as required
d. They improve overall security
e. They make it possible to have security compatible with operational requirements
A – They provide an increase in security without slowdown in operation
A restricted area containing a security interest or other sensitive matter, which uncontrolled movement can permit access to the security interest or sensitive matter, but within which access may be prevented by security escort and other internal restrictions and controls, is canned a(n):
a. Exclusion area
b. Controlled area
c. Limited area
d. Sensitized area
e. None of the above
C – Limited area
What type of fencing is generally used for protection of limited and exclusion areas?
a. Concertina
b. Barbed tape
c. Barbed wire
d. Chain link
e. Wood
D – Chain-link
Excluding the top guard, a chain-link fence for general security purposes should be:
a. 6 gauge
b. 7 gauge
c. 8 gauge
d. 9 gauge
e. 10 gauge
D – 9 gauge
In a chain-link fence with mesh openings for general security purposes, the openings should be no larger than:
a. 1 1/5 inches
b. 2 inches
c. 2 ½ inches
d. 4 inches
e. 4 ½ inches
B – 2 inches
Excluding the top guard, standard barbed-wire fencing that is intended to prevent human trespassing should not be less than:
a. 6 feet high
b. 7 feet high
c. 8 feet high
d. 9 feet high
e. 10 feet high
B – 7 feet high
The federal specification regarding standard barbed-wire fencing that is twisted and double strand is that it should be:
a. 8 gauge
b. 10 gauge
c. 12 gauge
d. 14 gauge
e. None of the above
C – 12 gauge
A standard barbed-wire, twisted, double-strand fence has _____ point barbs spaced an equal distance apart.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
D – 4
The distance in a barbed-wire fence should not exceed:
a. 2 inches
b. 3 inches
c. 4 inches
d. 5 inches
e. 6 inches
E – 6 inches
Top-guard supporting arms should be permanently affixed to the top of the fence posts to increase the overall height of the fence by at least:
a. 1 foot
b. 1 ½ feet
c. 2 feet
d. 2 ½ feet
e. 3 feet
A – 1 foot
A top guard must consist of:
a. Two strands of barbed wire or tape
b. Three stands of barbed wire or tape
c. Four strands of barbed wire or tape
d. Five strands of barbed wire or tape
e. Six strands of barbed wire or tape
B – Three strands of barbed wire or tape
How many inches apart should strands of barbed wire or tape used as a top guard on a fence be spaced?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
E – 6
Unavoidable drainage ditches, culverts, vents, ducts, and other openings should be protected by security fastened weld-bar grills when they have a cross-section area greater than:
a. 10 square inches
b. 48 square inches
c. 64 square inches
d. 96 square inches
e. 104 square inches
D – 96 square inches
Between the perimeter barrier and exterior structures should be a clear zone covering:
a. 10 feet
b. 15 feet
c. 20 feet
d. 30 feet
e. 40 feet
C – 20 feet
As a general rule, between the perimeter barrier and structures within the protected area, except when a building is a part of the perimeter barrier, there should be a clear zone of at least:
a. 10 feet
b. 20 feet
c. 30 feet
d. 40 feet
e. 50 feet
E – 50 feet
Manhole covers ______ inches or more in diameter should be secured to prevent unauthorized openings:
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
e. 50
A – 10
Which of the following characteristics of protective lighting is incorrect?
a. It may be unnecessary where the perimeter fence is protected by a central alarm system
b. It usually requires less intensity than working light
c. It may also provide personal protection by reducing advantages of concealment
d. It should only be used as a psychological deterrent
e. Such lighting is expensive to maintain
E – Such lighting is expensive to maintain