Dump 5 Flashcards
What process does a security manager use in establishing priorities in the protection of assets?
a. Audit survey
b. Security survey
c. Risk analysis or assessment
d. Inspection review
e. Both B and C
f. All of the above
E – Both B and C
The degree of protection desired in any installation is predicated on an analysis of which of the following?
a. Cost and vulnerability
b. Cost and criticality
c. Criticality and vulnerability
d. Vulnerability and environmental conditions
e. None of the above
C – Criticality and vulnerability
A critical on-site examination and analysis of a facility to ascertain the present security status and to identify deficiencies or excesses in determining the protection needed to make recommendations to improve overall security is the definition of a(n):
a. Full-field inspection
b. Inspection review
c. Audit survey
d. Security survey
e. None of the above
D – Security survey
What is a key consideration in a risk analysis or risk assessment process?
a. Vulnerability to attack
b. Probability of attack
c. Cost
d. Impact to the business if loss occurs
e. Both A and B
f. All of the above
F – All of the above
From a security perspective, what is the first factor to be considered in facility construction?
a. The identity of experienced consultants
b. An effective security plan
c. The building site itself
d. An architect with knowledge of physical security
e. None of the above
C – The building site itself
Which of the following is not correct regarding a security education program?
a. Many people are naïve and trusting
b. All installation personnel must be made aware of the constant threat of breaches of security
c. Structural aids to security are valueless without active support of all personnel
d. Security consciousness is an inherent state of mind
e. None of the above
D – Security consciousness is an inherent state of mind
The most vulnerable link in any identification system is:
a. Poor quality of identification badges
b. Educational background of security officers
c. Not enough security officers assigned to control posts
d. Identification cards are too small
e. Perfunctory performance of duty
f. None of the above
E – Perfunctory performance of duty
Which of the following is not true in regard to establishing and identifying personnel to control movement?
a. The identification card should be designed as simply as possible
b. Detailed instructions should be disseminated as to where, when, and how badges should be worn
c. Procedures should be designed to show employees what to do when an identification card or badge is lost
d. The identification card or badge should be designed in a relatively complicated manner to avoid duplication
e. Prerequisites should be devised and disseminated for reissue
D – The identification card or badge should be designed in a relatively complicated manner to avoid duplication
The use of a simple codeword or phrase during a normal conversation to alert other security personnel that an authorized person has been forced to vouch for an unauthorized individual is termed:
a. Code one
b. SOS
c. Security alert
d. Duress code
e. Basic alert
D – Duress code
The practice of hanging at least two authorized persons, each capable of detecting incorrect or unauthorized procedures with respect to the task being performed, present during any operation that affords access to a sensitive area is referred to as a(n):
a. Two-man access procedure
b. Two-man control rule
c. Two-man rule
d. Controlled access rule
e. Information security rule
f. None of the above
C – Two-man rules
The designation and establishment of “restricted areas” according to army regulations is performed by the:
a. Joint Chiefs of Staff
b. National Security Agency
c. The Secretary of Defense
d. The Secretary of the Army
e. The military commander of the installation or facility
E – The military commander of the installation or facility
Which of the following is not a known advantage of the establishment of restricted areas?
a. They provide an increase in security without slowdown in operation
b. They provide increased security through buffer zones
c. They allow for varying degrees of security as required
d. They improve overall security
e. They make it possible to have security compatible with operational requirements
A – They provide an increase in security without slowdown in operation
A restricted area containing a security interest or other sensitive matter, which uncontrolled movement can permit access to the security interest or sensitive matter, but within which access may be prevented by security escort and other internal restrictions and controls, is canned a(n):
a. Exclusion area
b. Controlled area
c. Limited area
d. Sensitized area
e. None of the above
C – Limited area
What type of fencing is generally used for protection of limited and exclusion areas?
a. Concertina
b. Barbed tape
c. Barbed wire
d. Chain link
e. Wood
D – Chain-link
Excluding the top guard, a chain-link fence for general security purposes should be:
a. 6 gauge
b. 7 gauge
c. 8 gauge
d. 9 gauge
e. 10 gauge
D – 9 gauge
In a chain-link fence with mesh openings for general security purposes, the openings should be no larger than:
a. 1 1/5 inches
b. 2 inches
c. 2 ½ inches
d. 4 inches
e. 4 ½ inches
B – 2 inches
Excluding the top guard, standard barbed-wire fencing that is intended to prevent human trespassing should not be less than:
a. 6 feet high
b. 7 feet high
c. 8 feet high
d. 9 feet high
e. 10 feet high
B – 7 feet high
The federal specification regarding standard barbed-wire fencing that is twisted and double strand is that it should be:
a. 8 gauge
b. 10 gauge
c. 12 gauge
d. 14 gauge
e. None of the above
C – 12 gauge
A standard barbed-wire, twisted, double-strand fence has _____ point barbs spaced an equal distance apart.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
D – 4
The distance in a barbed-wire fence should not exceed:
a. 2 inches
b. 3 inches
c. 4 inches
d. 5 inches
e. 6 inches
E – 6 inches
Top-guard supporting arms should be permanently affixed to the top of the fence posts to increase the overall height of the fence by at least:
a. 1 foot
b. 1 ½ feet
c. 2 feet
d. 2 ½ feet
e. 3 feet
A – 1 foot
A top guard must consist of:
a. Two strands of barbed wire or tape
b. Three stands of barbed wire or tape
c. Four strands of barbed wire or tape
d. Five strands of barbed wire or tape
e. Six strands of barbed wire or tape
B – Three strands of barbed wire or tape
How many inches apart should strands of barbed wire or tape used as a top guard on a fence be spaced?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
E – 6
Unavoidable drainage ditches, culverts, vents, ducts, and other openings should be protected by security fastened weld-bar grills when they have a cross-section area greater than:
a. 10 square inches
b. 48 square inches
c. 64 square inches
d. 96 square inches
e. 104 square inches
D – 96 square inches
Between the perimeter barrier and exterior structures should be a clear zone covering:
a. 10 feet
b. 15 feet
c. 20 feet
d. 30 feet
e. 40 feet
C – 20 feet
As a general rule, between the perimeter barrier and structures within the protected area, except when a building is a part of the perimeter barrier, there should be a clear zone of at least:
a. 10 feet
b. 20 feet
c. 30 feet
d. 40 feet
e. 50 feet
E – 50 feet
Manhole covers ______ inches or more in diameter should be secured to prevent unauthorized openings:
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
e. 50
A – 10
Which of the following characteristics of protective lighting is incorrect?
a. It may be unnecessary where the perimeter fence is protected by a central alarm system
b. It usually requires less intensity than working light
c. It may also provide personal protection by reducing advantages of concealment
d. It should only be used as a psychological deterrent
e. Such lighting is expensive to maintain
E – Such lighting is expensive to maintain
Measured horizontally 6 inches above ground level and at least 30 feet outside the exclusion area or barrier, the perimeter band of lighting must provide a minimum intensity of:
a. 0.2 foot-candle
b. 0.3 foot-candle
c. 0.4 foot-candle
d. 0.6 footy-candle
e. 0.10 foot-candle
A – 0.2 foot-candle
Which of the following principles of protective lighting is not correct?
a. Lighting should be used with other measures, such as fixed security posts, fences, etc., and not used alone
b. A large amount of light should be focused on security patrol routes
c. Adequate, even light should be used on bordering areas
d. There should be a high brightness contrast between an intruder and the background
B – A large amount of light should be focused on security patrol routes
Lighting units of four general types are used for protective lighting. Which of the following is not used?
a. Emergency
b. Movable
c. Standby
d. Intermittent
e. Continuous
D – Intermittent
What is the most common protective lighting system that consists of a series of fixed luminaries arranged to flood a given area during the hours of darkness with overlapping cones of light?
a. Emergency lighting
b. Movable lighting
c. Standby lighting
d. Intermittent lighting
e. Continuous lighting
E – Continuous lighting
Piers and docks located on an installation should be safeguarded by illuminating both water approaches and the pier area. Decks on open piers should be illuminated to at least:
a. 0.5 foot-candle
b. 1.0 foot-candle
c. 1.5 foot-candles
d. 2.0 foot-candles
e. 3.0 foot-candles
B – 1.0 foot-candle
Water approaches that extend to 100 feet from the pier should be illuminated to at least:
a. 0.5 foot-candle
b. 1.0 foot-candle
c. 1.5 foot-candles
d. 2.0 foot-candles
e. 3.0 foot-candles
A – 0.5 foot candle
U.S. Army illumination intensity minimums for lighting the perimeter of a restricted area is:
a. 0.15 foot-candle
b. 0.40 foot-candle
c. 1.00 foot-candles
d. 2.15 foot-candles
B – 0.40 foot-candle
What agency should be consulted before installing protective lighting adjacent to navigable waters?
a. Local law enforcement agencies
b. The Department of Transportation
c. The Bureau of Customs
d. The U.S. Coast Guard
e. Both A and B
D – The U.S. Coast Guard
The intrusion detection system in which a pattern of radio waves is transmitted and partially reflected back to the antenna is known as a(n):
a. Capacitance detection system
b. Ultrasonic detection system
c. Vibration detection system
d. Electromechanical detection system
e. Microwave detection system
E – Microwave detection System
The intrusion detection system that is used on safes, walls, and openings in an effort to establish an electrostatic field around an object to be protected is known as a(n):
a. Capacitance detection system
b. Ultrasonic detection system
c. Contact microphone detection system
d. Microwave detection system
e. Radio frequency detection system
A – Capacitance detection system
An alarm system in which the installation-owned system is a direct extension of the police or fire alarm system is known as a(n):
a. Central station system
b. Local alarm system
c. Proprietary system
d. Auxiliary system
e. Bell-sound system
D – Auxiliary system
An alarm system that is monitored by an outside company to provide electric protective services in which they provide the appropriate actions is known as a(n):
a. Central station system
b. Local alarm system
c. Proprietary system
d. Auxiliary system
e. Bell-sound system
A – Central station system
An alarm system whereby the central station is owned by and located within the installation being protected is known as a(n):
a. Central station system
b. Local alarm system
c. Proprietary system
d. Auxiliary system
e. Bell-sound system
C – Proprietary system
The principle of the pin-tumbler lock can be traced back historically to:
a. Egyptians more than 4000 years ago
b. The Civil War period
c. The late eighteenth century
d. 1905
e. World War I
A – Egyptians more than 4000 years ago
Which of the following is not true with regard to lock and key systems?
a. The locking system should be supplemented with other security devices
b. Most key locks can be picked by an expert in a few minutes
c. A high-quality pickproof lock is considered a positive bar to entry
d. The lock is the most accepted and widely used security device of the basic safeguards in protecting installations
e. Locks, regardless of quality or cost, should be considered as delay devices only
C – A high-quality pickproof lock is considered a positive bar to entry
Of the following locks, which one type is generally considered to have the poorest security value?
a. An interchangeable core system
b. Conventional combination locks
c. Key locks
d. Manipulation-resistant combination locks
e. Both A and D
f. None of the above
C – Key locks
The number of combinations possible with a lock that has 40 numbers and a 3-number combination is:
a. 12,000
b. 16,000
c. 32,000
d. 64,000
e. 86,000
D – 64,000
Which lock is generally used on automobiles, desks, and cabinets?
a. Wafer
b. Ward
c. Pin tumbler
d. Combination
e. Cypher
A – Wafer
Which of the following is not true with regard to door latches?
a. A dead-bolt latch is easy to install and can be used on almost any door
b. Chain latches are highly recommended as effective security measures
c. A dead-bolt latch is very expensive
d. A dead-bolt latch increases the security posture of the facility
e. Both B and C
f. Both A and D
E – Both B and C
An inventory of key systems should be conducted at least:
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Semiannually
e. Annually
E – Annually
A sentry dog normally does not perform as well as:
a. Radar sites
b. Warehouses
c. Gasoline storage aeras
d. Ammunition storage areas
e. Offices containing classified materials
C – Gasoline storage areas
Which of the following is more of a probable disadvantage in the use of sentry dogs?
a. A dog is more effective than a human during inclement weather
b. A dog has a keen sense of smell
c. A dog provides a strong psychological deterrent
d. The type of dog best suited for security work is naturally dangerous
e. A dog can detect and apprehend intruders
D – The type of dog best suited for security work is naturally dangerous
In meeting federal specifications, insulated units must have the following fire-resistant minimum ratings:
a. Class 150: two hours
b. Class 150: four hours
c. Class 350: three hours
d. Class 350: four hours
C – Class 350: three hours
In meeting minimal federal specifications, non-insulated security containers must satisfactorily pass a drop test of:
a. 15 feet
b. 20 feet
c. 22 feet
d. 25 feet
e. 30 feet
E – 30 feet
In meeting minimal federal specifications, government security containers must be equipped with a combination lock capable of resisting manipulation and radiological attack for:
a. 10 man-hours
b. 20 man-hours
c. 30 man-hours
d. 40 man-hours
e. 45 man-hours
B – 20 man-hours
Which of the following is not an approved UL safe classification?
a. 350-1
b. 350-2
c. 350-3
d. 350-4
e. None of the above
C – 350-3
Underwriters Laboratories does independent testing on security containers that simulate a major fire where the heat builds up gradually to:
a. 7500p
b. 10000p
c. 20000p
d. 25000p
e. 30000p
C – 20000P
The acceptable vault construction of insulated doors has a minimal reinforced concrete wall, floor, and ceiling of:
a. 4 feet
b. 6 feet
c. 8 feet
d. 10 feet
e. 12 feet
B – 6 feet
Which of the following would be a UL computer media storage classification?
a. 100-4
b. 150-4
c. 250-4
d. 350-4
e. 450-4
B – 150-4
Safes that are UL classified must be anchored to the floor or must weigh at least:
a. 750 lbs
b. 1000 lbs
c. 1500 lbs
d. 2000 lbs
e. 3000 lbs
A – 750 lbs
Which of the following is not generally true regarding money safes?
a. Those manufactured prior to 1960 have round doors
b. They provide good protection against fire
c. They always have wheels
d. Today, money safes have square doors
e. Both B and C
f. All of the above
E – Both B and C
A “re-lock” on a vault door will automatically prevent the bolt mechanism from operating when:
a. A timer is used
b. A switch is flipped
c. There is an attack on the door or the combination lock
d. It is locked by remote control
e. All of the above
C – There is an attack on the door or the combination lock
Money safes are classified by both Underwriters Laboratories and:
a. The Bureau of Standards
b. The American Society for Industrial Security
c. The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation
d. The Insurance Services Office
D – The Insurance Services Office
Security vaults differ from safes in that:
a. They do not have both fire and burglary resistant properties
b. Steel is used
c. They are tested by UL for burglary resistance
d. They are permanently affixed to the building
e. None of the above
D – They are permanently affixed to the building
Most theft is committed by:
a. Professionals
b. Organized crime
c. Amateurs
d. Maladjusted criminals
e. Semiprofessionals
C – Amateurs
An experienced safecracker will ordinarily use which of the following methods?
a. Trying the maintenance standard combination
b. Trying the day combination
c. Trying the handle
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
D – All of the above
Which of the following methods has not been used in recent years to crack open record and money safes?
a. Punching
b. Core drilling
c. Using a fluoroscope
d. Torching
e. Using a laser beam
E – Using a laser beam
The weakness of the burning bar as a burglar tool is that:
a. It will not burn through concrete
b. Its actual heat is not intense enough
c. It requires hydrogen tanks
d. It produces a large volume of smoke
e. All of the above
D – It produces a large volume of smoke
A 50 percent insurance discount is generally allowed to protect a safe it:
a. The premises are guarded by security guards
b. The premises are open 24 hours a day
c. Multiple coverage is purchased
d. The safe is UL tested
e. The safe has wheels
B – The premises are open 24 hours a day
Which of the following is not correct with regards to safes?
a. Money safes do not have accredited fire resistance
b. UL classification labels are removed from all safes exposed to fires
c. Record safes are designed to resist fires only
d. Quality equipment should be purchased only from reputable dealers
e. Insulation in record safes more than 30 years old may negate fire-resistant qualities
f. None of the above
F – None of the above
The UL symbol “TRTL” indicates:
a. The type of locking device used
b. That the safe is resistant to both torches and tools
c. That the safe is resistant to torches
d. That the safe is resistant to tools
e. None of the above
B – That the safe is resistant to both torches and tools
Vaults are designed to meet most fire protection standards that are specified by the:
a. Local fire department
b. American Society for Industrial Security
c. National Fire Protection Association
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
C – National Fire Protection Association
Fire-resistant safes must pass which of the following tests?
a. Explosion
b. Impact
c. Fire exposure
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
D – All of the above
Which of the following methods of attacking newer-model safes is considered to be impractical?
a. Peel
b. Punch
c. Burn
d. Manipulation
e. Explosion
D - Manipulation
