Dump 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a legitimate purpose of an investigation for employee misconduct?
a. To determine whether company rules have been violated
b. To ascertain whether company policies have been violated
c. To catalog information about employees that might be derogatory for future use
d. To determine if state laws have been violated
e. To determine if federal laws have been violated

A

C – To catalog information about employees that might be derogatory for future use

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2
Q

The investigation’s best approach to questioning relies on the following:
a. Most suspects will lie or circumvent the truth
b. A suspect is innocent until proven guilty
c. A key suspect is guilty and evidence must be found
d. A signed statement in the form of a confession must be obtained
e. None of the above

A

B. – A suspect is innocent until proven guilty

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3
Q

Some facts about drug users that may assist in recognizing problem areas during a drug investigation are set forth as follows. Indicate the one that is erroneous.
a. The only common characteristic is that drug abusers use drugs to a point where they feel they can no longer manager without its support
b. The adult abuser of drugs commonly has a history of social maladjustment
c. Drug abuse is concentrated in but not confined to “slum areas” of large cities
d. Those who can afford to buy drugs without resorting to crime are less likely to be arrested for drug violations
e. Chronic abuse of drugs is generally not considered a symptom of mental or emotional illness

A

E – Chronic abuse of drugs is generally not considered a symptom of mental or emotional illness

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4
Q

A craving for a drug is exhibited often by the following:
a. Water running from nose or eyes
b. Frequent yawning or sneezing
c. Continual itching of arms and legs
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

D – All of the above

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5
Q

A narcotic addict is sometimes called:
a. A bingo
b. A geezer
c. A hophead
d. A pop
e. A bagman

A

C – A hophead

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6
Q

One whose sexual desires are directed to both men and women is known as a”
a. Lesbian
b. Bisexual
c. Homosexual
d. Transvestite
e. None of the above

A

B – Bisexual

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7
Q

When it is necessary to question a witness about sexual deviation all of the following should be avoided except:
a. Using street language
b. Giving the impression of being avid to develop the facts
c. Leaving the impression, you suspect subject of being a sex deviate
d. Allowing the witness to frame the testimony in his or her own words
e. None of the above

A

D – Allowing the witness to frame the testimony in his or her own words

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8
Q

In conducting gambling investigations, the security officer should:
a. Cooperate with local, country, state, or federal law enforcement
b. Not use undercover operatives
c. Wiretap the employee’s home phone
d. Search the lockers of all suspects
e. None of the above

A

A – Cooperate with local, county, state, or federal law enforcement

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9
Q

Which of the following investigative resources should not normally be used in a gambling investigation conducted by a proprietary investigative force?
a. Closed-circuit TV cameras
b. Undercover operatives
c. Telephone surveillance
d. Fluorescent powder
e. Physical surveillances

A

C – Telephone surveillance

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10
Q

In an investigation concerning regulations of common carriers in interstate commerce or investigation of railroad accidents, a good source of information would be the:
a. Federal Bureau of Investigation
b. Bureau of Customs
c. Federal Trade Commission
d. Interstate Commerce Commission
e. General Accounting Office

A

D – Interstate Commerce Commission

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11
Q

In investigating homicide and suicide, the best source of information would probably be the:
a. County coroner’s office
b. Health office
c. State attorney general’s office
d. Federal Bureau of Investigation
e. Sheriff’s office

A

A – County coroner’s office

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12
Q

To obtain information concerning marriage licenses, an investigator would contact the:
a. Appropriate health department
b. Tax bureau
c. Bureau of Vital Statistics
d. Appropriate court
e. Social Security Office

A

C – Bureau of Vital Statistics

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13
Q

In conducting a “claim” investigation where the claim is a serious one and where there is cause for doubt to connection with the loss or claim, the type of investigation to be used is:
a. Telephone
b. Mail
c. Personal contact
d. Undercover
e. Clandestine

A

C – Personal contact

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14
Q
  1. One of the following is not one of the desired characteristics of a statement obtained during a claim investigation.
    a. It should be written in ink or indelible pencil, or typed
    b. It must be dated
    c. It should be in short paragraphs with two spaces between each paragraph
    d. It may be signed or unsigned
    e. It must contain the identification of the person making it
A

C – It should be in short paragraphs with two spaces between each paragraph

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15
Q

A sudden, violent, and noisy eruption, outburst, or discharge by material acted upon with force, such as fire, shock, or electrical charge, which causes the material, either solid or liquid, to convert into gas and violently expand or burst is the definition of:
a. A flash fire
b. An explosion
c. A detonation
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

D – All of the above

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16
Q

A yellow-colored crystalline solid pertains to the following explosive:
a. TNT
b. Dynamite
c. Nitroglycerin
d. Mercury fulminate
e. Picric acid

A

E – Picric acid

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17
Q

Which of the following is not a high explosive?
a. Nitrocellulose
b. Nitroglycerin
c. Dynamite
d. Nitro starch
e. Picric acid

A

A – Nitrocellulose

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18
Q

Which of the following could be considered a source of information?
a. A record
b. A custodian of record
c. A public official
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

D – All of the above

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19
Q

One of the following is not considered an element of the common law crime of arson:
a. Commercial building
b. Maliciousness
c. Burning
d. Willfulness
e. Of another

A

A – Commercial building

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20
Q

Which of the following is not usually applicable to a confession?
a. It was voluntary
b. It was made subsequent to commission of a wrongful act
c. It is often applied to civil transactions
d. It gives no inference other than guilt
e. It is an admission of guilt

A

C – It is often applied to civil transactions

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21
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement for a successful undercover investigation?
a. A qualified investigator
b. A plausible cover story
c. An effective control scheme
d. Developing necessary evidence for prosecution
e. A reliable method to discontinue or even suddenly abort the investigation

A

D – Developing necessary evidence for prosecution

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22
Q

If it is necessary to terminate an undercover investigation, one of the following actions should not be done:
a. Withdraw agent safely
b. Withdraw agent immediately
c. Salvage as much of the resultant data as possible
d. Prepare explanations for those who demand them
e. Reveal the agent’s identity

A

E – Reveal the agent’s identity

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23
Q

The principal item of expense in an investigations budget will be:
a. Communications
b. Equipment
c. Maintenance
d. Personnel costs
e. Training

A

D – Personnel costs

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24
Q

The single most important administrative control in handling investigations is:
a. Indexing
b. Case assignment
c. Case review
d. Documentation of status
e. Case “ticklers”

A

A – Indexing

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25
Q

The frequency of a reinvestigation of the “financial lifestyle” inquiry should generally be:
a. Never
b. Every 6 months
c. Every year
d. Every 18 months
e. Every 3 years

A

D – Every 18 months

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26
Q

In conducting interviews during an investigation concerning “financial lifestyle,” the investigator should more appropriately tell the person being interviewed that the employee is:
a. Being considered for a position B. Suspected of wrongdoing
b. Being interviewed in connection with a position of trust
c. Being considered for a promotion
d. None of the above: tell the interviewee nothing

A

C – Being considered for a promotion

27
Q

One of the following is not prohibited by the Federal Civil Rights Act during an investigation:
a. Asking questions about prior arrests
b. Asking questions about prior convictions
c. Directing inquiry into areas of race or color for discriminatory purposes
d. Directing inquiry into areas of religion or sex for discriminatory purposes
e. None of the above

A

B – Asking questions about prior convictions

28
Q

The age discrimination in the Employment Act of 1967 bans discrimination against workers or applicants who are:
a. At least 35 but less than 60
b. At least 45 but less than 70
c. At least 50 but less than 70
d. At least 30 but less than 60
e. At least 40 but less than 65

A

E – At least 40 but less than 65

29
Q

Questions on an application blank or field investigative inquiries that deal with a union membership or affiliation should be avoided as they may lead to charges that constitute violations of:
a. The National Labor Relations Act
b. The Civil Rights Act of 1964
c. The Civil Rights Act of 1976
d. The fair Credit Reporting Act
e. The Federal Tort Claims Act

A

A – The National Labor Relations Act

30
Q

As a general rule the number of consecutive years of employment or nonemployment to be verified preceding the date of investigation is:
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 3 years
d. 2 years
e. 10 years

A

B – 7 years

31
Q

Any investigation containing unfavorable, information should be retained in a file for a period of not less than:
a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 3 years
d. 2 years
e. 10 years

A

C – 3 years

32
Q

A question on an application form inquiring about prior arrests is illegal as a violation of:
a. The National Labor Relations Act
b. The Federal Tort Claim Act
c. The Omnibus Crime Control Act
d. The Federal Full Employment Act

A

D – The Federal Full Employment Act

33
Q

The rule that states that approximately one in ten applications will have major omissions, which will require going back to the applicant, is called:
a. The Rule of Ten
b. The Rule of Nine
c. The 1-10 Rule
d. The Verification Rule
e. Sullivan’s Rule

A

A – The Rule of 10

34
Q

Who of the following should be interviewed last or near the end of an investigation under usual circumstances?
a. Those with extensive information
b. Those preparing to take a trip out of the area
c. Those likely to be hostile
d. Those with less than extensive information
e. Those only in the area temporarily

A

C – Those likely to be hostile

35
Q

If the interviewee during an investigation is hostile. It is preferable to conduct the interview at:
a. The security office
b. The home of the interviewee
c. A neutral spot
d. In an automobile
e. At the office of the interviewee’s lawyer

A

A – The security office

36
Q

Which of the following characterizations regarding investigative surveillance is not true?
a. They are expensive
b. They are time-consuming
c. They are often nonproductive
d. They are illegal in most jurisdictions
e. They can be fixed or mobile

A

D – They are illegal in most jurisdictions

37
Q

The process whereby communications are intercepted or recording is known as:
a. Physical surveillance
b. Technical surveillance
c. Surreptitious surveillance
d. Black bag operations
e. None of the above

A

B – Technical surveillance

38
Q

In situations in which at least one party to a communication is aware and willing that the recording of his or her conversation with another person or persons is being made, it is:
a. A violation of the Omnibus Crime Control Act
b. A violation of the Federal Communications Act
c. Not a violation
d. Allowed by the Federal Anti-Racketeering Statute
e. Allowed by 18 USC 2511

A

C – Not a violation

39
Q

The specific emplacement of an agent or operative in an environment or situation in which the agent’s true role is unknown with the purpose of developing information to be used later in a criminal investigation is known as:
a. Closed investigation
b. Secret investigation
c. Technical investigation
d. Concealed investigation
e. Undercover investigation

A

E – Undercover investigation

40
Q

It is becoming increasingly more difficult to do a good preemployment background investigation because of:
a. The expense
b. The lack of skilled investigators
c. Various rulings and court decisions that inhibit the use of techniques or instruments available
d. The uncooperative attitudes of persons interviewed
e. Such investigations are illegal in a number of states

A

C – Various rulings and court decisions that inhibit the use of techniques or instruments available

41
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of having investigation conducted by in-house security staff?
a. Cheaper as a general rule, depending on number of checks being done
b. In-house staff is better training
c. In-house staff has better grasp as to objective of the investigation
d. In-house staff has better sources of information
e. None of the above

A

C – In-house staff has better grasp as to objective of the investigation

42
Q

The most widely recognized and best-known instrument designed to detect deception is:
a. Fingerprint classifier
b. Voice analyzer
c. Polygraph
d. Truth serum
e. Stress analyzer

A

C – Polygraph

43
Q

The most important factor in the use of a polygraphy is:
a. The examiner
b. The make of the instrument
c. Environmental factors
d. The time of day
e. The type of questions

A

A – The examiner

44
Q

Which of the following is not a good procedure with regard to the use of the polygraph by investigators?
a. Pointing out its effectiveness
b. Describing it as infallible
c. Withholding detailed information from the examinee
d. Telling the examinee how experienced the examiner is
e. Working with the examiner as a team member

A

B – Describing it as infallible

45
Q

The U.S. Army trains its polygraph operators as well as those from other U.S. agencies at:
a. West Point, New York
b. Washington, D.C.
c. Fort Gordon, Georgia
d. Fort Leavenworth, Kansas
e. Fort Meade, Maryland

A

C – Fort Gordon, Georgia

46
Q

A device used to detect deception through stress recorded by voice modulations is known as (a):
a. Polygraph
b. Lie detector
c. Psychological stress analyzer
d. Truth serum
e. Hypnotism

A

C – Psychological stress analyzer

47
Q

Which of the following characteristics relate to the psychological stress analyzer?
a. No physical connection with the body is required
b. The subject is not required to answer in a terse “yes” or “no” format
c. It can be used covertly
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

D – All of the above

48
Q

The effectiveness of the voice analyzer in accurately detecting deception is:
a. 100 percent
b. 96 percent
c. 94 percent
d. 85 percent
e. Not determined

A

E – Not determined

49
Q

Identify the Act that basically prohibits, discrimination, discharge, failure or refusal to hire, etc., on any of the grounds of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.
a. The Fair Credit Reporting Act
b. The Civil Rights Act of 1964
c. The First Amendment
d. The Omnibus Crime Control Act
e. None of the above

A

B – The Civil Rights Act of 1964

50
Q

Under court interpretations of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, which of the following are not allowed during investigations?
a. Questions regarding prior arrests
b. Questions regarding prior convictions
c. Questions regarding age
d. Questions regarding residence
e. Questions regarding prior employment

A

A – Questions regarding prior arrests

51
Q

Interviews should be conducted:
a. In the company of the suspect’s attorney
b. In an area where distractions are minimal
c. In a comfortable room that is well furnished like home
d. In an area where the light is focused on the suspect’s face
e. None of the above

A

B – In an area where distractions are minimal

52
Q

The witness’s idea of the suspect, described in words, is called:
a. Portrait parle
b. Modus operandi
c. Corpus delecti
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

A – Portrait parle

53
Q

The most important qualification of a good undercover operator is:
a. Resourcefulness
b. Education
c. Experience
d. Good contacts
e. None of the above

A

A – Resourcefulness

54
Q

The main function of the private security agent is to:
a. Locate stolen goods
b. Ascertain and report illegal activities
c. Receive well-rounded investigative experience
d. Ascertain the state of morale
e. None of the above

A

B – Ascertain and report illegal activities

55
Q

The person best suited for physical surveillance work is one who:
a. Is tall enough to see over crowds
b. Will blend into the area
c. Has a college education
d. Has a background of police work
e. None of the above

A

B – Will blend into the area

56
Q

In conducting a polygraph, it is important to note that the most important measure of stress is recorded by:
a. Breathing
b. Galvanic skin response
c. Heartbeats
d. Perspiration
e. None of the above

A

C – Heartbeats

57
Q

The pre-testing interview prior to the polygraph examination itself is for the purpose of:
a. Helping the subject to relax
b. Helping the examiner to get to know the subject
c. Helping the examiner to judge the subject’s character
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

D – All of the above

58
Q

On average, a polygraph examination takes:
a. 10 hours
b. 1 hour
c. 15 mins
d. 5 hours
e. 4 hours

A

B – 1 hour

59
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the polygraph?
a. The polygraph is not a lie detector
b. The polygraph does not automatically register truth or falsehood
c. A polygraph test is conclusive
d. Historically, polygraphs have more often been used to establish innocence rather than to prove guilt
e. None of the above

A

C – A polygraph test is conclusive

60
Q

Persons are protected from abuses of polygraph by:
a. The courts through civil lawsuits
b. State labor departments
c. The National Labor Relations Board
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

D – All of the above

61
Q

The best way to verify an applicant’s statements is:
a. By judicious use of the telephone
b. By a personal visit with the applicant
c. By mail
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

E – None of the above

62
Q

Which of the following should not be included in the written investigative report of an applicant?
a. Derogatory information
b. Confidential sources of information
c. Results of a lie detector examination
d. Arrest records
e. None of the above

A

B – Confidential sources of information

63
Q
A