Drugs for Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

What drug is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-alpha; given by IV with methotrexate; associated with upper respiratory infections; used for the treatment of RA; chimeric

A

Infliximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Drug that is an inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase; used for the treatment of RA

A

Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the side effects of Methotrexate?

A

1) Immunosuppresion
2) Nausea
3) Mucosal ulcers
4) Cirrhosis
5) Pneumonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What side effect of methotrexate does not go away when drug is removed?

A

Pneumonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Drug that is a recombinant protein consisting of two soluble portions of TNF-alpha receptor molecule with a Fc portion of IgG; binds to TNF-alpha; injected

A

Etanercept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a problem that may occur with infliximab?

A

1) Inflixmab is a chimer monoclonal antibody that may cause a hypersensitivity reaction within the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Human monoclonal antibody for anti-TNF; injected

A

Adalimumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is given as an alternative to methotrexate? What are its side effects?

A

1) Leflunomide

2) Elevated liver enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Drug that acts by inhibiting the activation of T cells by binding to the CD 80/86; used if anti-TNF does not work

A

Abatacept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is abatacept contraindicated?

A

1) COPD

2) Given with anti-TNF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MOA of Leflunomide

A

1) Inhibitor of tyrosine kinase

2) Inhibitor of pyrmidine synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Monoclonal antibody for CD20 on B cells

A

Rituximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Drug that is poorly absorbed and is broken down by intestinal bacteria into a salicylate and an antibiotic; risk for hypersensitivity

A

Sulfasalazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the adverse effects of hydroxychloroquine?

A

1) Corneal deposits
2) Extraocular muscle weakness
3) Loss of accommodation
4) Retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Drugs that work by inhibiting the maturation and function of mononuclear phagocytes and T cells

A

Gold Salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What gold salts are water soluble and can be given IM injection; generally are given as weekly injections until 1 gm has been administered

A

1) Gold Sodium thiomalate

2) Aurothioglucose

17
Q

What gold salt is hydrophobic and is given orally for 6-9 months; less efficacy

A

Auranofin

18
Q

What is the most common side effect of gold salts?

A

Lesions of the skin and mucosal membranes

19
Q

Drug that is an analog to cysteine that slows the bone destruction of RA

A

D-penicillamine

20
Q

What are the side effects of D-penicillamine?

A

1) Dermatological problems
2) Nephritis
3) Aplastic anemia

21
Q

Recombinant form of IL-1ra that is used to inhibit the effects of IL-1 (inhibition of collagen synthesis and increased joint degradation)

A

Anakinra

22
Q

Antibody selective for the IL-6 receptor

A

Tocilizumab

23
Q

What are the side effects of Tocilizumab?

A

1) Upper respiratory infections
2) Headache
3) Elevated BP
4) Increased LDL
5) Increases risk for cancer

24
Q

Drug that causes the local depletion of substance P

A

Capsaicin

25
Q

Alkylating agent that causes inhibition of DNA syntesis

A

Cyclophosphamide

26
Q

Purine antimetabolite that interferes with purine synthesis and causes DNA damage through formation of false nucleotide substrates

A

Azathioprine

27
Q

What are the side effects of azathioprine?

A

1) Bone marrow suppression

2) Hepatotoxicity

28
Q

Isolated cyclic peptide from fungus that inhibits T cells

A

Cyclosporine

29
Q

What drugs increase the excretion of uric acid from the body?

A

1) Probenecid

2) Sulfinpyrazone

30
Q

What drugs are selective inhibitors in the terminal step of uric acid (aka xanthine oxidase inhibitors)

A

1) Allopurinol

2) Febuxostat

31
Q

What drug decreases the mobility of granulocytes by binding to tubulin?

A

1) Colchicine

32
Q

What NSAID is the drug of choice for acute gout attacks?

A

Indomethacin

33
Q

Why is allopurinol started at low doses first? What is usually given with allopurinol?

A

1) Because it precipitates acute attacks

2) Colchicine

34
Q

What type of dose of a uricosuric drug should be given to increase excretion of uric acid? High or low?

A

1) High

2) Low doses decrease the excretion of uric acid

35
Q

MOA of Allopurinol

A

Inhibits xanthine oxidase resulting in decreased production of uric acid

36
Q

What drug acts similarly to Allopurinol?

A

1) Febuxostat

37
Q

MOA of probenecid

A

Inhibits the reabsorption of uric acid in the proximal convoluted tubule

38
Q

MOA of colchicine

A

Binds and stabilizes tubulin to inhibit polymerization, impairing leukocyte chemotaxis and degranulation