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pharmacology dentistry > drugs and diseases > Flashcards

drugs and diseases Flashcards

1
Q

drugs stimulate liver enzymes

A

rifampicin for TB

phenytoin for epilepsy

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2
Q

rifampicin drug for ?

A

TB

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3
Q

phenytoin drug for ?

A

epilepsy

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4
Q

drugs inhibet liver enzymes :

A

cimetidine for peptic
ulcer
erythromycin which is an antibiotic (macrolide)

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5
Q

cimetidine drug for

A

peptic ulcer

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6
Q

erythromycin drug is an

A

antibiotic (macrolide)

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7
Q

cimetidine drug for ?

ME enhancer or inhibitor

A

peptic ulcer

metabolism inhibitor

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8
Q

ciproflaxocin is ME enhancer or inhibitor

A

inhibitor

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9
Q

isonizide is ME enhancer or inhibitor

A

inhibitor

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10
Q

carbamezepine is ME enhancer or inhibitor

A

enhancer

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11
Q

phenobarbitone is ME enhancer or inhibitor

A

enhancer

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12
Q

phenytoin is ME enhancer or inhibitor

A

enhancer

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13
Q

Aspirin is anti____ and ____

A

antiplatelets as well as analgesic

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14
Q

warfarin is an ______

half life + why

A

anticoagulant drug

36h it binds protein in 99%

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15
Q

amoxicillin is a ____ its half life ___

dose per day ?

A

antibiotic
8h
3*/d

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16
Q

levodopa drug for ____ disease
half life ___
___ per day

A

parkinson
4h
6*

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17
Q

example for a drug that change the cell permeability

A

local anesthetics

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18
Q

some drugs target to inhibit nucleic acid synthesis what kind of drugs are they ?

A
  • Anticancer drugs
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19
Q

patients who suffer from burning sensation in the stomach we give him ?

A

antacids

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20
Q

other name for diclofenac sodium

A

voltaren

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21
Q

antacids are pills used for?

A

patients who suffer from burning sensation in the stomach, due to gastritis or peptic ulcer.

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22
Q

asthma patient we give him ______agonist

and not ____ & _____ agonist

A

adrenergic

b blocker / ach

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23
Q

bethanochol
is _____ _/agonist
treats

A

ach agonist

post-operative GI paralysis of urinary retention (not mechanical obstruction)

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24
Q

post-operative GI paralysis of urinary retention we use

A

bethanochol

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25
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome treated by

A

Pilocarpine

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26
Q

glaucoma treated by (topically)

A

Pilocarpine

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27
Q

Pilocarpine
is _____ _/agonist
treats

A

ach agonist

orally in Sjogren’s syndrome & mouth dryness, topical in glaucoma

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28
Q

contraindication for ach agonist (Pilocarpine)

A 
asthma 
SOPD
 obstruction GI 
peptic ulcer
 bradycardia cases
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29
Q

used for diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis

A

Edrophonium

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30
Q 
Physostigmine
is \_\_\_\_\_ _/agonist
treats 
antidose for \_\_\_\_\_overdose
BBB penetrate ?
A

ach agonist (indirect reversible)
constipation, urine retention (oral)
atopine
yes

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31
Q

constipation, urine retention cases we give _____ _/agonist : _______

A

ach agonist

Physostigmine

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32
Q

reverse surgery induced paralysis, paralytic ileus (oral\SC), atonic bladder, nasal spray + MG
treated by : _____ _/agonist : _______

A

ach agonist

neostigmine

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33
Q

Neostigmine (prototype)
is _____ _/agonist
treats

A

ach agonist

reverse surgery induced paralysis, paralytic ileus (oral\SC), atonic bladder, nasal spray + MG

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34
Q

________ Used in chronic management of Myasthenia gravis (oral), protection in chemical war

A

Pyridostigmine ( ach agonist)

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35
Q

Rivastigmine used for

A

delay the progression of the Alzheimer’s disease

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36
Q

only therapeutic use (of irreversible ach agonist ) is the drug ______

A

Echothiopate

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37
Q

Echothiopate treats

A

glaucoma

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38
Q

glaucoma treated
topically by____
locally ____

A

Pilocarpine

Echothiopate

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39
Q

Treat myasthenia gravis:

A

neostigmine, pyridostigmine orally

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40
Q

Alzheimer :

A

rivastigmine

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41
Q

BY ACH ANTIGGONIST diarrhea treated by

A

atopine

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42
Q 
Atropine (prototype): -
1-Antidote for :
2-induce \_\_\_\_\_ during ophthalmic examination 
3-treat \_\_\_\_cardia by \_\_\_\_\_
treat 
4-Pre-anesthetic how / why ?
5-good for Parkinson disease how ?: .
6-what does it beneficial to GI
A

1- any cholinergic agonist
2-mydriasis

3-Bronchodilator in the lungs, causes Tachycardia in the heart

4-Reduce all secretions, bronchodilator, Anti-emetic

5-reduce involuntary movement & rigidity, control sialorrhea.
6-Antispasmodic in GI & treat diarrhea. Urine retention (treat urge incontinence in overactive bladder)

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43
Q

drug for Parkinson disease

A

atopine

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44
Q

drug control sialorrhea.

A

atopine

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45
Q

drug for COPD & asthma :

A

Ipratropium

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46
Q

prophylaxis in motion sickness :

A

Scopolamine

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47
Q

Tropicamide for

A

To dilate pupil

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48
Q

To decrease bladder overactivity

A

(oxybutynin)

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49
Q

drug for eye examination

A

atropine

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50
Q

why atropine cause dryness

A

because Tissues most sensitive to Atropine are the salivary, bronchial and sweat glands

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51
Q

Phenylephrine for?

A

induce mydriasis only without cycloplegic effect

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52
Q

The cause of death in atropine overdose is ?

A

hyperthemia ( due to decrease all secretions )

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53
Q

in bradycardia condition we use?

A

Atropine

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54
Q

in parkinson & dystonia diseases we use ?

A

benztropine

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55
Q

benztropine for

A

parkinson & dystonia diseases

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56
Q

one of atropine side effect is Seizures are controlled by

A

an antiseizure drug called diazepam

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57
Q

diazepam is ?

A

antiseizure drug

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58
Q

why physostigmine are given in small doses ?

A

because it has risk to cause paralysis or bradycardia which are life threatening
conditions.

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59
Q

situations in which we don’t want the patient to memorize something like their surgery we give him ?

A

Scopolamine (hyoscine)

60
Q

in asthma and CODP cases we give

A

Ipratropium

61
Q

Respiratory disorders we give

A

Ipratropium

62
Q

Ophthalmologic Disorders: To dilate pupil we give

A

Tropicamide

63
Q

Cardiovascular Disorders: Sinus bradycardia. we give

A

atropine

64
Q

Anesthetic premedication

A

Scopolamine/Hyoscine, Atropine

65
Q

To suppress gastric acid secretion

A

pirenzepine

66
Q

Gastrointestinal Disorders: As antispasmodic

A

Scopolamine/Hyoscine

67
Q

oxybutynin is used for

A

To decrease bladder overactivity

68
Q

for Cholinergic Poisoning

A

atropine

69
Q

Phentermine side effect

A

cardiovascular disorders like arrhythmia

70
Q

→ patient suffer from benign prostate hyperplasia we give him

A

alpha 1 antagonist.

71
Q

drug that
treat overactive bladders
decrease overreactive

A

mirabageron (adrenergic agonist)

oxybutynin (antiag ach)

72
Q

drug that have amnesic effect

A

Scopolamine

73
Q

Prevention of motion sickness

A

(Hyoscine)Scopolamine

74
Q

phenylephrine is ____ _/agonist

used for ?

A

adrenergic agonist

nasal decongestion

75
Q

alpha 1 blocker drugs used for ?

A

treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia

76
Q

clonidine is ____ _/ agonist for ?

A

hypertension treatment

77
Q

yohimbine is ____ _/ agonist for___?

A

alpha2 antagonist

→ research drugs

78
Q

_______receptor stimulation will increase renin release

A

beta 1

79
Q

_____ blocker should be avoided in patients suffering from bronchial asthma

A

beta

80
Q

_______ receptor + drug used in the management of bronchial asthma

A

beta 2 agonist (aulbutamol -salmetrol formetrol )

81
Q

_____ blocker should be avoided in patients suffering from bronchial asthma

A

beta2

82
Q

Dobutamine is ____agonist for

A

beta 1

cardiogenic shock

83
Q

_______ for ADHD children

A

Amphetamine

84
Q

cocaine is ?

for?

A

indirect adrenergic receptor
for local anesthetic
local VasoContraction

85
Q 
Patients can't be treated by local anesthesia with epinephrine are patients 
suffering from: 
Tachycardia (heart rate 
exceeds the normal), 
hypertension and angina
so we give them ?
A

plain local anesthetic drug

86
Q

indication as dentistry for epinephrine is

A

Gingival retraction cords: (gingivectomy)
local anesthetic
anaphylaxis(as antihistamine)

87
Q

The usage of neuromuscular blockers:

A
  • During surgery complete muscle relaxation __recover quickly and completely after surgery
  • to give less dose than that needed for general anesthesia thus reducing its risk for respiratory and CVS depression.
  • In facilitating intubation.
  • Endotracheal intubation
88
Q

list the drugs can be delivered via endotracheal intubation

A 
NAVEL (adults) -LANE
 Naloxone Lidocaine
 Atropine Atropine
 Vasopressin Naloxone
 Epinephrine Epinephrine 
 Lidocaine
succinylcholine
89
Q

Naloxone can be given via ?

A

endotracheal intubation

90
Q

Lidocaine can be given via ?

A

endotracheal intubation

91
Q

Vasopressin can be given via ?

A

endotracheal intubation

92
Q

NAVEL can be given via ?

A

endotracheal intubation

93
Q 
pancuranium is 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ _/agonist
\_\_\_\_\_ blocker
\_\_\_ \_\_/polarizing
action ?
over come by ?
direct / indirect nicotinic receptor?
A 
competetive antagonist
NM 
non DEpolarizing
inhibit muscular contraction. Without receptor stimulation _ paralysis 
increadirectsing Ach
94
Q

dantrolene used for ?

A

decreasing the calcium level

95
Q

succinylchole side effects can be over come by ?

A

dantrolene & Cooling of the patient

96
Q

succinylcholine causes a apnea in which case ?

A

AChE deficiency

97
Q

succinylcholine SIDE EFFECT ?

A

apnea(AChE deficient patient) & Malignant hyperthermia

98
Q

succinylcholine onset of action ?why ?

A

5min because of AChE

99
Q 
succinylcholine is an 
\_\_\_\_\_ _/agonist
\_\_\_\_ blocker / enhancer
\_\_\_ depolarizing 
action on nicotic receptor
A

competitive
NM
-
shortest duration of action of all muscle relaxants.

100
Q

Therapeutic use of succinylcholine ?

A

➢ Endotracheal intubation.

➢ commonly used as the sole muscle relaxant during electroconvulsive therapy

101
Q

drug that decrease the release of acetylcholine

A

• Botulinum toxin

102
Q

ex for Selective α1 agonists

A

Phenylephrine

103
Q

_______drug for urine relaxant & asthma

A

Salbutamol

104
Q

Salbutamol is _____ _/agonist

A

b1 agonist

105
Q

for treatment of opioid withdrawal ?

A

lofexidine

106
Q

captagon causes ?

A

CVS disorders like ventricular fibrillation and cerebral hemorrhage.

107
Q

Captagon is made of الكبت

A

fenethylline and amphetamine

108
Q

for esophageal varices we use

A

propranolol+ nadolol

109
Q

for Infantile hemangiomas ?

A

propranolol

110
Q

The side effect of Beta- blockers:{5}

A

1- Bronchoconstriction.
2- Hypotension, Bradycardia.
3- Cold extremities because they decrease blood flow to the
extremities by decreasing outflow of the heart.
4- Nightmares, vivid dreams.
5- Masking symptoms of hypoglycemia. (All symptoms except
sweating).
6- Prolongation of insulin-induced hypoglycemia.7- Fatigue (DUE TO reduce CO).

111
Q

How the B-blockers masking symptoms of hypoglycemia?

A
  • Beta blocker will lead to hypoglycemia (decrease glucose level).
  • Diabetes patient with hypoglycemia will feel this by sympathetic symptoms (tachycardia,
    tremor, sweating, palpitation), beta blocker will mask all hypoglycemia symptoms except
    sweating (because sweat glands have muscarinic receptor).
112
Q
  • Drugs that lead to hypoglycemia are
A

insulin or oral sulfonylurea.

113
Q

cardioselective beta blocker is ?

A

Atenolol

114
Q

_______ used for Stable angina / diabetic hypertensive patients who are receiving insulin or oral antidiabetic agent

A

Atenolol

115
Q

Timolol skip

A

atenolol

116
Q

Timolol is
selective/non ______ agonist/antagonist
used for

A

Nonselective, blocks B1and B2
local use in the eye because it lacks local anesthetic properties.
open-angle glaucoma.
- It reduces aqueous humor production through blockage of β receptors on the ciliary epithelium

117
Q

the diuretic drug that it is use in initial therapy or hypertension is ?

A

thiazides diuretics

118
Q

in severe HTN combination drug of ?

A

sympathoplegic , Angiotensin antagonist & vasodilator drugs

119
Q

respond to thiazide diuretics reduce the blood pressure within about

A

4-6w

120
Q

side .E of thiazide diuretics?[5]

A 
Cause electrolyte imbalance
❑ Hyper-uricemia. (At high dose).
 ❑ Hyperglycemia.( At high dose)
❑ Hypokalemia.
 ❑ Hypercalcemia
121
Q

case of using loop Diuretics

A

when fluid overload in the body such as pulmonary edema→ the cause it heart failure

122
Q

S.E of loop diuretics :[3]

A

Hypocalcaemia. (inhibit Ca2+ reabsorption)
Hypokalemia.
Ototoxicity: transient and occur with rapid IV infusion

123
Q

Hypokalemia (cause by loop and thiazide) increases the risk of

A

drug-induced ventricular tachycardia
the risk for ischemic ventricular fibrillation
the leading cause of sudden cardiac death
major contributor to cardiovascular mortality in treated hypertensive patients.

124
Q

Hypokalemia needs to be avoided

how ?

A

combining a thiazide with inhibitors of the RAS or with a K+-sparing diuretic

125
Q

Favorable indication for thiazide:

A

❑ HTN with osteoporosis.
❑ HTN with recurrent renal stones.
Thiazides are sometimes useful in the prevention of calcium-containing kidney stones

126
Q

Favorable indication for loop:

A

Fluid overload: heart failure ,renal disease -pulmonary edema

127
Q

______diuretics are commonly used in HTN

A

thiazide

128
Q

gynecomastia in males and menstrual irregularities in females is a side effect of _____ drug

A

Spironolactone

129
Q

______ is recommended therapy for hypertension when concomitant heart disease is present ( stable angina, SVT, post MI)

A

β blockers

130
Q

Cardio-selective beta blockers: are _____ blocker

A

beta 1

131
Q

Cardio-selective beta blockers are used for asthma patient

A

metoporolol
atelol
nebivolol

132
Q

patients with hypertension and heart failure we use

A

metoprolol

133
Q

Tenormin + diuretic Thiazide combined in a pill as ?

A

Tenoretic

134
Q

beta blocker Favorable indication:

A
  • Hyperthyroidism.
    • Essential tremor
    • Migraine
135
Q

in Essential tremor we use ____ _/agonist

A

beta antagonist

136
Q

Verapamil+ B-Blocker causes ? may lead to ?

A

-ve inotropic and chronotropic effects.

This canlead to cardiac arrest

137
Q

some patients bradykinin can lead to angioedema that can be treated by ?

A

Ep

138
Q

first-line in hypertensive diabetic patients is ?

A

ACEi/ARB

139
Q

hibiscus tea is very similar to ____ drugs as ____

A

ACEi

captopril/enalopril

140
Q

for hypertension and angina we use

A

CCD drugs

141
Q

The most common tocolytic agents used for the treatment of preterm labor

A
  • Nifedipine(Dihydropyridine)
142
Q

to treat angina and supraventricular tachyarrhythmia and prophylaxis of migraine and cluster headaches

A

Verapamil (Non-dihydropyridine)

143
Q

drug may cause gingival hyperplasia

A

Nifedipine

144
Q

treatment of mild-moderate hypertension in pregnancy

A

methyldopa

145
Q

When the patient is having resistant hypertension we give him

A

Clonidine

146
Q

Treatment of hypertension complicated by ___disease

A

renal

pharmacology dentistry (14 decks)

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