Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology 2 > Drugs Acting on the Heart > Flashcards

Drugs Acting on the Heart Flashcards

0
Q

What are 4 examples of cardiac stimulants?

Big Pretty Gray Cats

A
  • B1 agonists
  • Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
  • Glucagon
  • Calcium salts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What are 3 types of drugs that act on the heart?

CAD

A
  • Cardiac stimulants
  • Drugs used in the treatment of CHF
  • Antiarrhythmic drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are 4 examples of B1 agonists?

DINE

A
  • Isoproterenol
  • Epinephrine
  • Norepinephrine
  • Dopamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an example of phosphodiesterase inhibitor?

A

Aminophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most potent B1 agonist?

A

Isoproterenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most commonly used B1 agonist?

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When do you not use epinephrine?

A

With an incomplete AV block.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are 2 examples of non-drug therapy treatments of CHF?

A
  • Restricted salt diet

- Restricted exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are 6 classes of drugs used in the treatment of CHF?

VIP BOD

A
  • Positive inotropic drugs
  • Inodilators
  • Vasodilators
  • Diuretics
  • B blockers
  • Other agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are 2 examples of positive inotropic drugs?

B positive, Do Good

A
  • Digitalis glycosides

- B1 agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which B1 agonist is more likely to cause reflex bradycardia?

Brady in New England

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are 3 examples of digitalis glycosides?

DOD

A
  • Digitoxin
  • Digoxin
  • Ouabain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the mechanism of action for digoxin?

A
  • Inhibition of Na+/K+ ATPase in the myocardial cell membrane increases sodium available for exchange with calcium.
  • Result is increase in intracellular calcium which results in a positive inotropic effect.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are 5 cardiovascular effects of digoxin?

RIPPN

A
  • Positive inotropic effects
  • Reduction in sinus rate and slowing AV conduction
  • Prolonged PR intervals in ECG
  • Increased mechanical efficiency of the failing heart
  • Normalization of blood pressure and peripheral resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What effect does digoxin have on the kidneys?

A

Diuretic effects mainly secondary to increased cardiac output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What 2 effects does digoxin have on the GI tract?

not Very Good

A
  • GI irritation

- Vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How can digoxin be administered?

A

Orally and slowly by IV in emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the bioavailability for digoxin in the elixir form and the tablet form?

A

Elixir- 75%

Tablet- 60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the average half-life of digoxin?

What plays a role in determining the half-life of digoxin?

A
  • 24 hours

- Depends on the species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Is digoxin metabolized in the liver?

A

Yes, a small amount.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F: Digoxin undergoes enterohepatic recycling.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In what 2 species is the excretion of digoxin mainly renal?

In what species is excretion renal and hepatic?

A
  • Dogs, horses

- Cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are 2 examples of therapeutic uses of digoxin?

AC

A
  • Congestive heart failure

- Atrial arrhythmias in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are 3 examples of adverse effects of digoxin?

CDC

A
  • Digitalis has a narrow safety margin
  • Cats are more sensitive than dogs
  • Cardiac - tachyarrhythmia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are 7 predisposing factors for tachyarrhythmias with digoxin?
(Hypo-4, Hyper-3)

A
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypomagnesemia
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hypoxemia
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Hypernatremia
  • Hyperthyroidism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are 5 ways to treat tachyarrhythmia due to digoxin?

C PADD

A
  • Drug withdrawal
  • Potassium IV
  • Antiarrhythmic drugs
  • Cholestyramine
  • Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are 3 examples of antiarrhythmic drugs that can be used to treat tachyarrhythmia caused by dioxin?
(PLP)

A
  • Lidocaine
  • Phenytoin
  • Propranolol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are 2 possible treatments for bradyarrhythmias caused by digoxin?
(AD)

A
  • Drug withdrawal

- Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are 3 clinical signs that can be seen in the GI due to digoxin use?
What are 2 treatment options?

A
  • Anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea

- Drug withdrawal, fluid therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Digoxin alters serum potassium in what 2 ways?

A
  • Acute: causes hyperkalemia

- Chronic: causes hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are 2 examples of B1 agonists?

Double D

A
  • Dopamine

- Dobutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are 3 examples of inodilators?

PIM

A
  • Pimobendan
  • Inamrinone
  • Milrinone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What kind of drug is Pimobendan?

A

An inodilator (positive inotrope and balanced vasodilator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Pimobendan?

A
  • In failing heart, acts primarily by sensitization of the cardiac contractile apparatus to calcium by enhancing interaction between calcium and troponin C complex.
  • Has potential to increase intracellular calcium and increase myocardial oxygen consumption because it inhibits PDE III and probably V but this effect is minimal at therapeutic doses in dogs with CHF.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pimobendan’s inhibition of PDE III and V in blood vessels causes balanced vasodilation in both arteries and veins which leads to what?

A

Reduction in both cardiac preload and afterload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are 3 uses for Pimobendan?

A
  • Approved to treat CHF in dogs.
  • Effective as adjunctive therapy in improving quality and length of life in dogs with heart failure due to both dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) and chronic degenerative valvular disease (CVD).
  • Can be used with furosemide, spironolactone or ACE in heart failure patients.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are 5 possible side effects that can be seen with Pimobendan?
(D VIPS)

A
  • Diarrhea
  • Vomiting
  • Inappetence
  • Seizures
  • Polyuria/polydipsia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Is Pimobendan more or less arrhythmogenic than digitalis?

A

Less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are 2 contraindications for Pimobendan?

A
  • Should not be used in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

- Clinical conditions where an increase of cardiac output is not physically possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How is Pimobendan administered?

A

Orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the bioavailability of Pimobendan?

A

60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T/F: Pimobendan is metabolically activated in the liver.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How are the metabolites of Pimobendan excreted?

What is the half-life?

A
  • In feces

- 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Is the half-life of Digoxin shorter or longer in cats compared to dogs?

A

Longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Is the half-life of Digoxin in horses shorter or longer compared to dogs?

A

Shorter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Is Pimobendan bound to plasma proteins?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are 4 examples of vasodilators that can be used for CHF?
(HAPN)

A
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Hydralazine
  • Nitrates
  • Prazosin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are 4 examples of ACE inhibitors?

BLEC the prils

A
  • Captopril
  • Enalapril
  • Lisinopril
  • Benazepril
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are 4 examples of nitrates?

DINS

A
  • Sodium nitroprusside
  • Nitroglycerin
  • Isosorbide
  • Dinitrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are 3 types of diuretics that can be used in CHF?

TPL

A
  • Loop diuretics
  • Thiazide diuretics
  • Potassium-retaining diuretics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What type of a diuretic is Furosemide?

A

Loop diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What type of a diuretic is Hydrochlorothiazide?

A

Thiazide diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What type of a diuretic is chlorothiazide?

A

Thiazide diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What type of a diuretic is Spironolactone?

A

Potassium-retaining diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What type of a diuretic is Triamterene?

A

Potassium-retaining diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What type of a diuretic is Amiloride?

A

Potassium-retaining diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What type of a drug is Carvedilol?

A

Beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the mechanism of action for carvedilol?

Put A1 on all the Beef

A
  • Nonselective B blocker and A1 blocker
  • Antioxidant
  • Inhibits endothelin (ET) releasee
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When is carvedilol used?

Why?

A
  • In early treatment of CHF due to dilated cardiomyopathy.

- To blunt the harmful effects of the sympathetic nervous system on the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are 2 other beta blockers that can be used?

AM

A
  • Metoprolol

- Atenolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are 4 examples of other agents that can be used in CHF?

MOAN

A
  • Oxygen therapy
  • Morphine sulfate (very small dose)
  • Aminophylline
  • Nebulization of ethanol (20%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the definition for arrhythmias?

A

Abnormalities in heart rate and rhythm (any rhythm that is not normal sinus rhythm).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the mechanisms of action of arrhythmias?

DAA

A
  • Abnormal automaticity
  • Abnormal conduction (re-entry)
  • Disturbances in both automaticity and impulse conduction
63
Q

What are 3 examples of causes of arrhythmias?

A
  • Imbalances of sympathetic and parasympathetic
  • Changes in serum potassium, calcium or magnesium
  • Hypoxemia
64
Q

What are 6 other causes of arrhythmias?

MMM CAD

A
  • Acidosis
  • Mechanical trauma
  • Myocardial disease
  • Cardiac ischemia
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Drugs
65
Q

What are 2 types of arrhythmias?

TB

A
  • Tachyarrhythmias

- Bradyarrhythmias

66
Q

What are the 4 classifications of antiarrhythmic drugs used for tachyarrhythmias?

A
  • Class I: Sodium channel blockers
  • Class II: B-blockers
  • Class III: Agents that prolong action potential duration (potassium channel blockers)
  • Class IV: Ca2+ channel blockers
67
Q

What are 3 examples of Class IA sodium channel blockers?

A
  • Quinidine
  • Procainamide
  • Disopyramide
68
Q

What do Class I sodium channel blockers do to the action potential?

A

Prolong the action potential.

69
Q

What are 5 examples of Class IB drugs?

A
  • Lidocaine
  • Phenytoin
  • Tocainide
  • Mexiletine
  • Aprinidine
70
Q

What effect do Class IB drugs have on action potentials?

A

Shortens the action potential.

71
Q

What are 3 examples of Class IC drugs?

A
  • Flecainide
  • Encainide
  • Lorcainide
72
Q

What effect do Class IC drugs have on an action potential?

A

No effect on action potential.

73
Q

What are 8 examples of Class II B-blockers?

A
  • Propranolol
  • Timolol
  • Pindolol
  • Oxyprenolol
  • Alprenolol
  • Atenolol
  • Esmolol
  • Metroprolol
74
Q

What are 3 examples of Class III potassium channel blockers?

A
  • Bretylium
  • Amiodarone
  • Sotalol (nonselective B-blocker)
75
Q

What are 2 examples of Class IV calcium channel blockers?

A
  • Verapamil

- Diltiazem

76
Q

What are 2 therapeutic uses for Quinidine?

A
  • Ventricular arrhythmias

- Atrial fibrillation in horses (drug of choice), cattle and large breed dogs.

77
Q

What is a therapeutic use for Procainamide?

A

More effective for ventricular arrhythmias than atrial arrhythmias.

78
Q

What are 2 examples of therapeutic uses for lidocaine?

A
  • Intravenous drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmias due to general anesthetics, surgery, ischemia and trauma.
  • Digitalis-induced arrhythmias.
79
Q

What is a therapeutic use for Phenytoin?

A

Digitalis-induced arrhythmias in dogs only.

80
Q

What are 3 therapeutic uses for propranolol?

A
  • Paroxysmal supra-ventricular tachycardia
  • Digitalis-induced tachyarrhythmias
  • Arrhythmias due to inhalation anesthesia
81
Q

What is a therapeutic use for Bretylium?

A

Refractory and recurrent tachyarrhythmias

82
Q

What are 2 therapeutic uses for verapamil and diltiazem?

A
  • Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias

- Myocardial hypertrophy

83
Q

What are 3 forms of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias?

A
  • Atrial tachycardia
  • Atrial flutter
  • Atrial fibrillation
84
Q

What are 5 drugs that can be used to treat atrial tachycardia in dogs?

A
  • Digoxin
  • Procainamide
  • Propranolol
  • Quinidine
  • Phenytoin
85
Q

What are 4 drugs that can be used to treat atrial flutter in dogs?

A
  • Digoxin
  • Quinidine
  • Procainamide
  • Propranolol
86
Q

What are 4 drugs that can be used to treat atrial fibrillation in dogs?

A
  • Digoxin
  • Propranolol
  • Quinidine
  • Procainamide
87
Q

What are 2 types of ventricular tachyarrhythmias?

A
  • Ventricular premature complexes

- Ventricular tachycardia

88
Q

What are 5 examples of drugs that can be used to treat ventricular premature complexes in dogs?

A
  • Quinidine
  • Procainamide
  • Lidocaine
  • Phenytoin
  • Propranolol
89
Q

What are 5 examples of drugs used for ventricular tachycardia in dogs?

A
  • Procainamide
  • Lidocaine
  • Quinidine
  • Phenytoin
  • Propranolol
90
Q

What type of drug is the drug of choice for both supraventricular and ventricular tachyarrhythmias?

A

Beta blockers

91
Q

What are 3 examples of antiarrhythmic drugs that can be used for bradyarrhythmias?

A
  • Atropine
  • Isoproterenol
  • Epinephrine
92
Q

What are 2 examples of drugs used to treat sinus bradycardia?

A
  • Atropine

- Isoproterenol

93
Q

What are 3 drugs that can be used with a second-degree AV block?

A
  • Atropine
  • Isoproterenol
  • Glucagon
94
Q

What is an example of a drug that can be used with cardiac asystole (cardiac resuscitation)?

A

Epinephrine

95
Q

Which type of a vasoconstrictor is epinephrine?

A

Non-selective alpha-agonist

96
Q

Which type of a vasoconstrictor is Norepinephrine?

A

Non-selective alpha-agonist

97
Q

Which type of vasoconstrictor is Phenylephrine?

A

Selective alpha 1-agonist

98
Q

What are 3 examples of direct and indirect sympathomimetics that cause vasoconstriction?

A
  • Ephedrine
  • Pseudo-ephedrine
  • Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)
99
Q

What are 5 categories of vasodilators?

A
  • Sympatholytic drugs
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Angiotensin II antagonists
  • Direct-acting vasodilators
  • Calcium channel blockers
100
Q

Phentolamine is what type of sympatholytic vasodilator?

A

Non-selective alpha-blocker

101
Q

Phenoxybenzamine is what type of sympatholytic vasodilator?

A

Non-selective alpha-blocker

102
Q

Prazosin is what type of sympatholytic vasodilator?

A

Selective alpha 1-blocker

103
Q

Terazosin is what type of sympatholytic vasodilator?

A

Selective alpha 1-blocker

104
Q

Doxazosin is what type of a sympatholytic vasodilator?

A

Selective alpha 1-blocker

105
Q

Clonidine is what type of sympatholytic vasodilator?

A

Presynaptic alpha 2-agonist

106
Q

Propranolol is what type of sympatholytic vasodilator?

A

Non-selective beta-blocker

107
Q

Atenolol is what type of sympatholytic vasodilator?

A

Selective beta 1-blocker

108
Q

Carvedilol is what type of sympatholytic vasodilator?

A

Beta and alpha 1-blocker

109
Q

Bretylium is what type of sympatholytic vasodilator?

A

Indirect sympatholytic

110
Q

What are 4 examples of ACE inhibitors?

A
  • Captopril
  • Enalapril
  • Benazepril
  • Lisinopril
111
Q

What are 3 things that ACE inhibitors inhibit?

A
  • Angiotensin-converting enzyme (kininase)
  • Angiotensin II synthesis
  • Aldosterone
112
Q

A reflex increase in renin can be seen with what category of drug?

A

ACE inhibitors

113
Q

Increased bradykinin levels can be seen with which category of drug?

A

ACE inhibitors

114
Q

Where in the body are there local tissue specific renin-angiotensin systems (RASs)?

A

Heart, kidney, brain, adrenal and other tissues.

115
Q

T/F: The local RASs in these tissues may be more important than the systemic RAS.

A

True

116
Q

What are 3 therapeutic uses for ACE inhibitors?

A
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Hypertension
  • Chronic renal insufficiency in cats
117
Q

Which ACE inhibitor is available both orally and parenterally?
In which form are the others available?

A
  • Enalapril

- Oral only

118
Q

Food reduces intestinal absorption of which ACE inhibitor?

A

Captopril

119
Q

Enalapril has a slower onset and longer duration of actin than which other ACE inhibitor in the dog?

A

Captopril

120
Q

Which 2 ACE inhibitors are long-acting and can be administered once daily?

A
  • Benazepril

- Lisinopril

121
Q

Which 2 ACE inhibitors are activated in the liver?

A
  • Enalapril

- Benazepril

122
Q

Which ACE inhibitor is least likely to require dosage modification in renal failure patients because of significant excretion in bile (50%)?

A

Benazepril

123
Q

What are 2 examples of adverse effects that can be seen in ACE inhibitors in general?

A
  • Hypotension

- May lower intraglomerular pressure decreasing GFR in animals with systemic hypertension and azotemia.

124
Q

What are 3 examples of adverse effects seen specifically with Captopril?

A
  • May cause idiosyncratic glomerular disease in some dogs.
  • Has more GI side effects than enalapril.
  • (-SH group) may cause neutropenia, proteinuria and skin rash in some humans.
125
Q

Which drugs in an angiotensin II antagonist?

A

Losartan

126
Q

What is the mechanism of action for angiotensin II antagonists?

A

Competitive antagonist of angiotensin II receptors.

127
Q

What is a clinical use for an angiotensin II antagonist?

A

Anti-hypertensive

128
Q

What are 2 examples of direct-acting vasodilators?

A
  • Hydralazine (arteriolar vasodilator)

- Nitrates

129
Q

What are 3 examples of nitrates?

A
  • Sodium nitroprusside
  • Nitroglycerin
  • Isosorbide dinitrate
130
Q

What does Hydralazine increase?

A

Local concentrations of PGI2

131
Q

What might Hydralazine inhibit?

A

Calcium influx into smooth muscles of arteries.

132
Q

Nitrates cause the formation of what that activates what?

A

Formation of the reactive radical nitric oxide (NO) which activates guanylyl cyclase.

133
Q

What do nitrates increase?

A

Cyclic GMP

134
Q

What do nitrates stimulate?

A

GMP-dependent protein kinase

135
Q

What do nitrates cause the alteration of?

A

Phosphorylation of proteins in smooth muscle and dephosphorylation of myosin light chain.

136
Q

What do nitrates cause the relaxation of?

A

Smooth muscle of blood vessels.

137
Q

What are 3 classifications of calcium channel blockers (CCBs)?

A
  • Diphenyl alkylamines
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Dihydropyridines
138
Q

What is an example of a diphenyl alkylamine?

A

Verapamil

139
Q

What is an example of a Benzodiazepine?

A

Diltiazem

140
Q

What are 2 examples of Dihydropyridines?

A
  • Amlodipine

- Nifedipine

141
Q

What do calcium channel blockers inhibit?

A

The influx of extracellular calcium across myocardial and smooth muscle cell membranes.

142
Q

A decrease in intracellular calcium inhibits what?

A

Myocardial contraction and results in dilation of the coronary and systemic arteries.

143
Q

What are 4 effects calcium channel blockers have on the heart?

A
  • Negative inotropic effect
  • Negative chronotropic effect
  • Increase oxygen delivery to the myocardial tissue
  • Decrease afterload
144
Q

What are 2 effects calcium channel blockers have on blood vessels?

A
  • Decrease peripheral resistance

- Decrease systemic blood pressure

145
Q

What are 4 therapeutic uses of calcium channel blockers?

A
  • Anti-arrhythmic (ClassIV)
  • Antihypertensive
  • Myocardial hypertrophy
  • Antianginal (ischemic heart disease)
146
Q

What are 2 examples of calcium channel blockers that are used in the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias?

A
  • Verapamil

- Diltiazem

147
Q

Which calcium channel blocker is recommended as the first-line antihypertensive in cats unless the cause is hyperthyroidism, in that cause which drug is used?

A
  • Amlopdipine

- Beta-blocker

148
Q

What is the drug of choice for cats with myocardial hypertrophy?

A

Diltiazem

149
Q

What are 4 adverse effects that can be seen with calcium channel blockers?

A
  • Bradycardia and AV block
  • Hypotension
  • GI side effects
  • Elevated liver enzymes (temporary)
150
Q

What are 4 categories of antihypertensive drugs?

A
  • Diuretics
  • Beta blockers
  • Vasodilators
  • Calcium channel blockers
151
Q

What are 2 examples of diuretics that can be used as antihypertensive drugs?

A
  • Hydrochlorothiazide

- Furosemide

152
Q

What are 4 examples of vasodilators that can be used as antihyhpesensitive drugs?

A
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Angiotensin II antagonists
  • Hydralazine
  • Alpha blockers
153
Q

What are 4 types of drugs that can be used in the emergency treatment of hypertension?

A
  • Hydralazine or sodium nitroprusside IV
  • Propranolol or acepromazine IV
  • Phentolamine IV
  • Oral calcium channel blockers, prazosin or ACE inhibitors
154
Q

What is the drug of choice form pheochromocytoma-induced hypertension?

A

Phenoxybenzamine

Pharmacology 2 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions