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PHARMACOLOGY > Drugs-Acting-on-the-Cardiovascular-System (midterms) > Flashcards

Drugs-Acting-on-the-Cardiovascular-System (midterms) Flashcards

1
Q

It work by altering the normal reflexes that control blood pressure. It does not cure the
disease but is aimed at maintaining the blood
pressure within normal limits to prevent the damage that hypertension can cause.

A

Antihypertensive
drugs

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2
Q

ANGIOTENSIN-CONVERTING-ENZYME (ACE) INHIBITORS also used in conjunction with digoxin the treatment of ____ and _______

A
  1. heart failure
  2. left ventricular
    dysfunction.
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2
Q

act in the lungs to prevent ACE from converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a powerful vasoconstrictor and stimulator
of aldosterone release. This action leads to a decrease in BP an in aldosterone secretion, with a resultant slight increase in serum potassium and a loss of serum sodium and fluid.

A

ANGIOTENSIN-CONVERTING-ENZYME (ACE) INHIBITORS

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2
Q

ANGIOTENSIN-CONVERTING-ENZYME (ACE) INHIBITORS act in the lungs to prevent ACE from converting angiotensin I to ________

A

angiotensin II

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3
Q

it inhibit the movement of calcium ions across the membranes of myocardial and arterial muscle cells, altering the action potential and blocking muscle cell contraction.

A

Calcium-channel blockers

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3
Q

They are also used in conjunction with digoxin
the treatment of heart failure and left ventricular
dysfunction. They are also approved for the treatment of diabetic and diuretics for
nephropathy

A

ANGIOTENSIN-CONVERTING-ENZYME (ACE) INHIBITORS

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3
Q

a powerful vasoconstrictor and stimulator of aldosterone release.

A

angiotensin II

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3
Q

selectively bind with the angiotensin II receptors in vascular smooth muscle and in the adrenal cortex to block vasoconstriction and the release of aldosterone. These actions block the BP-raising effects of the renin-angiotensin system and lower BP.

A

Angiotensin II receptor blockers - ARBs

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3
Q

______ also has the advantage of parenteral use (enalaprilat [Vasotec IV]) if oral use is not feasible or rapid onset is desirable.

A

Enalapril

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3
Q

These drugs are indicated to be used alone or in combination therapy for the treatment of hypertension and for the treatment of heart failure in
patients who are intolerant to ACE inhibitors. They also slow the progression of renal disease in patients with hypertension and type 2 diabetes.

A

Angiotensin II receptor blockers - ARBs

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3
Q

All of the ACE inhibitors are administered ______.

A

orally

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3
Q

The effect of Calcium-channel blockers depresses _____, _________, and _____ causing a fall in BP and a decrease in venous
return.

A
  1. myocardial contractility
  2. slows cardiac impulse formation in the conductive tissues
  3. relaxes and dilates arteries,
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3
Q

These drugs are indicated for the treatment of severe hypertension that has
not responded to other therapy

A

Vasodilators

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3
Q

______ can produce additive hypotensive effects when given with adrenergic or other anti-hypertensive drugs.

A

Hydralazine

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4
Q

Angiotensin II receptor blockers - ARBs agents are all given orally. They are well
absorbed and undergo metabolism in the liver by
the ___________.

A

cytochrome P450 system

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4
Q

A potentially serious effect of the calcium-channel blockers to note is an increase in serum levels and toxicity of cyclosporine if
taken with ______.

A

diltiazem

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4
Q

act directly on vascular smooth muscle to cause muscle
relaxation, leading to vasodilation and drop in BP.

A

Vasodilators

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4
Q

_____ are also sometimes
used in the treatment of Raynaud’s disease and migraine headache.

A

Calcium-channel blockers

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4
Q

_______ must be used with extreme caution in
patients with functional hypoglycemia - because this
drug increases blood glucose levels by blocking insulin
release.

A

Diazoxide

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4
Q

Diazoxide must be used with extreme caution in
patients with ______ - because this drug increases blood glucose levels by blocking insulin release.

A

functional hypoglycemia

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5
Q

drug that blocks ACE, the
enzyme responsible for converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II in the lungs; this
blocking prevents the vasoconstriction and aldosterone release related to
angiotensin II.

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

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5
Q

specific receptors found in blood vessels and in the adrenal gland that react with angiotensin II to cause
vasoconstriction and release of aldosterone.

A

angiotensin II receptors

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6
Q

______ are drugs used to increase the contractility of the heart muscle for patients
experiencing heart failure.

A

Cardiotonic agents

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6
Q

a common, often asymptomatic disorder in which systolic blood
pressure persistently exceeds 140 mm Hg and/or diastolic pressure exceeds 90
mm Hg

A

Hypertension

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7
Q

sustained blood pressure that is lower than that required to
adequately perfuse all of the body’s tissues.

A

Hypotension

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8
Q

sustained blood pressure above normal limits with no
discernible underlying cause

A

Essential hypertension

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9
Q

force that resists the flow of blood through the vessels,
mostly determined by the arterioles, which contract to increase resistance;
important in determining overall blood pressure

A

Peripheral resistance

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10
Q

The _______ were originally derived from the foxglove or digitalis plant. These plants were once ground up to make digitalis leaf

A

cardiac glycosides

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10
Q

The cardiac glycosides were originally derived from
the _______. These plants were once ground up to make digitalis leaf

A

foxglove or digitalis plant

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10
Q

is a cardiac glycoside used for the treatment of heart failure and certain kinds of heart
arrhythmia. It is a phytosteroid and is similar in structure and effects to digoxin.

A

Digitoxin

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10
Q

it has a brand name called Lanoxin. Most frequently it is used for atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and heart failure. It is one of the oldest medications used in the field of cardiology

A

Digoxin-

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11
Q

is indicated for treating heart
failure and irregular heartbeats.

A

cardiac glycoside

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11
Q

Cardiac glycosides are contraindicated in the presence of allergy to any
component of the ______

A

digitalis preparation.

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11
Q

There is a risk of increased therapeutic effects and toxic effects of cardiac glycosides if it is taken with:

A

verapamil
amiodarone,
quinidine
quinine,
erythromycin,
tetracycline, or
cyclosporine

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11
Q

Cardiac glycosides drugs may be less effective if it is combined with:

A

thyroid hormones, metoclopramide, or penicillamine.

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11
Q

Absorption of oral cardiac glycosides may be decreased if it is taken with:

A

cholestyramine, charcoal, colestipol, antacids,
bleomycin, cyclophosphamide, or methotrexate.

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11
Q

cardiac glycoside has a rapid onset of action and rapid absorption, _____ minutes when taken orally and __minutes
when given intravenously

A

orally: 30-120 minutes
intravenously: 5 to 30 minutes

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12
Q

_____ belong to a second class
of drugs that act as cardiotonic (inotropic) agents. These
include inamrinone (Inocor) and milrinone (Primacor).

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitors

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12
Q

phosphodiesterase inhibitors are approved only for use in patients with _____ who does not have been responsive to digoxin, diuretics, or
vasodilators.

A

HF

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12
Q

enlargement of the heart, commonly seen with chronic
hypertension, valvular disease, and heart failure

A

Cardiomegaly

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12
Q

second class of drugs that act as cardiotonic (_____) agents

A

inotropic

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13
Q

a disease of the heart muscle that leads to an enlarged heart
and eventually to complete heart muscle failure and death

A

Cardiomyopathy

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13
Q

blood-tinged sputum, seen in left-sided heart failure when blood backs up into the lungs and fluid leaks out into the lung tissue

A

Hemoptysis

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13
Q

getting up to void at night, reflecting increased renal perfusion with fluid shifts in the supine position when person has gravity-dependent edema related to heart failure; other medical conditions, including urinary tract infection, increase
the need to get up and void

A

Nocturia

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13
Q

discomfort with respirations, often with a feeling of anxiety and inability to breathe, seen with left-sided heart failure.

A

Dyspnea

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13
Q

difficulty breathing when lying down, often referred to by the
number of pillows required to allow a person to breath comfortably

A

Orthopnea

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13
Q

are fast sodium channel blockers.

A

CLASS I Antiarrhythmics

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13
Q

effect resulting in an increased force of contraction

A

Positive inotropic

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13
Q

a condition in which the heart muscle fails to adequately pump blood around the cardiovascular system, leading to a backup or congestion of
blood in the system

A

Heart failure (HF)

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13
Q

rapid and shallow respirations, seen with left sided heart failure

A

Tachypnea

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13
Q

severe left-sided heart failure with backup of blood into the
lungs, leading to loss of fluid into the lung tissue

A

Pulmonary edema

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14
Q

Antiarrhythmic agents, also known as cardiac dysrhythmia medications, are a
group of pharmaceuticals that are used to suppress abnormal rhythms of the heart (cardiac arrhythmias), such as:

A
  1. atrial flutter
  2. ventricular tachycardia
  3. ventricular fibrillation
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14
Q

______ also known as cardiac dysrhythmia medications, are a
group of pharmaceuticals that are used to suppress abnormal rhythms of the heart (cardiac arrhythmias), such as atrial
fibrillation, atrial flutter, ventricular tachycardia, and ventricular fibrillation.

A

Antiarrhythmic agents,

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14
Q

These drugs preferable in conditions such as tachycardia,
in which the sodium gates are open frequently

A

CLASS I ANTIARRHYTHMICS

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14
Q

Also for the treatment of potentially life-threatening
ventricular arrhythmias and should not be used to treat
other arrhythmias because of the risk of a proarrhythmic
effect.

A

CLASS I ANTIARRHYTHMICS

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14
Q

are conventional beta blockers

A

CLASS II ANTIARRHYTHMICS

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15
Q

The _______ competitively block
beta-receptor sites in the heart and kidneys. These drugs are indicated for the treatment of
supraventricular tachycardias and PVCs.

A

class II antiarrhythmics

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16
Q

____ is indicated for initiation of treatment and prophylaxis of frequently recurring ventricular fibrillation and hemodynamically unstable ventricular tachycardia in patients refractory to
other therapy.

A

Amiodarone HCl injection

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16
Q

act by blocking depolarizing currents and thereby prolonging the effective refractory period of the myocardium

A

CLASS III ANTIARRHYTHMICS

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17
Q

drugs that affect the action potential of cardiac cells and are used to treat arrhythmias and restore normal rate and rhythm

A

antiarrhythmics

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17
Q

the amount of blood the heart can pump per beat; influenced by the
coordination of cardiac muscle contraction, heart rate, and blood return to the heart

A

cardiac output

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18
Q

_____ has been associated with a potentially fatal liver toxicity, ocular abnormalities, and the development of very serious cardiac arrhythmias

A

Amiodarone

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18
Q

The _____ block potassium channels and slow the outward
movement of potassium during phase 3 of the action potential, prolonging it. All of these drugs are proarrhythmic and have the potential of inducing
arrhythmias.

A

class III antiarrhythmics

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19
Q

are slow non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

A

CLASS IV ANTIARRHYTHMICS

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20
Q

The ______block the movement of calcium ions across the cell membrane, depressing the generation of action potentials and delaying phases 1and 2 of repolarization, which slows automaticity and conduction.

A

class IV antiarrhythmics

20
Q

the study of the forces moving blood throughout the cardiovascular.

A

hemodynamics

20
Q

slower-than-normal heart rate (usually less than60 beats/min)

A

bradycardia

20
Q

a large research study run by the National
Heart and Lung Institute that found that long-term treatment of arrhythmias may have a questionable effect on mortality, and in some cases actually lead to increased cardiac death; basis for the current indication for antiarrhythmics (short-term use to treat life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias).

A

Cardiac Arrhythmia Suppression Test (CAST)

21
Q

The ____ are used to treat stable, unstable, and vasospastic (Prinzmetal) angina. Long-acting dosage forms are used more for
prevention of anginal episodes.

A

nitrates

21
Q

blocks to conduction of an impulse through the cardiac conduction
system; can occur at the atrioventricular node, interrupting conduction from the
atria into the ventricles, or in the bundle branches within the ventricles, preventing
the normal conduction of the impulse.

A

heart blocks

22
Q

_______work mainly by decreasing venous return to the heart (preload) and decreasing systemic vascular resistance
(afterload).

A

Nitrates and nitrites

22
Q

______ are used to reduce ischemia by increasing the delivery of oxygen-rich blood to cardiac tissues or by
reducing oxygen consumption by the coronary vessels. Either of these mechanisms can reduce ischemia and
lead to a decrease in anginal pain.

A

Antianginal drugs

23
Q

Any one of the abnormal conditions that can affect the arteries of the heart and produce various pathological effects,
especially a reduced supply of oxygen and nutrients to the myocardium.

A

Coronary artery disease (CAD)

23
Q

_______ decrease calcium influx into the smooth muscle, causing vascular relaxation. This either reverses or prevents the spasms of coronary vessels that cause the anginal pain
associated with Prinzmetal or chronic angina.

A

Calcium channel blockers

23
Q

______ help by slowing the heart rate and decreasing contractility, thereby decreasing oxygen demands.

A

Beta blockers

24
Q

they are considered first-line
drugs for the treatment of such conditions as angina, hypertension, and
supraventricular tachycardia. They are often effective for the treatment of
coronary artery spasms (vasospastic or Prinzmetal angina).

A

Calcium channel blockers

24
Q

The _____ are most effective in the treatment of exertional angina (i.e., that caused by exercise). This is because the usual physiologic effects of an increase in the heart rate and systolic blood pressure that occurs during exercise or stress are blunted by the beta blockers, thereby decreasing the myocardial oxygen demand.

A

beta blockers

25
Q

Chest pain that occurs when the heart’s supply of blood carrying oxygen is insufficient to meet the demands of the heart

A

Angina pectoris

25
Q

common form of arteriosclerosis involving deposits of fatty, cholesterol-containing material (plaques) within arterial walls.

A

Atherosclerosis A

25
Q

Arteries that deliver oxygen to the heart muscle

A

Coronary arteries

25
Q

Chest pain that is primarily caused by atherosclerosis, which results in a long-term but relatively stable level of obstruction in one or
more coronary arteries

A

Chronic stable angina

26
Q

Necrosis of the myocardium following interruption of blood supply; it is almost always caused by atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries and is commonly called a heart attack

A

Myocardial infarction (MI)

26
Q

Poor blood supply to the heart via the coronary arteries

A

Ischemic heart disease

26
Q

Poor blood supply to an organ.

A

Ischemia

26
Q

A rapid heartbeat caused by a variety of autonomic nervous system effects, such as blood pressure changes, fever, or emotional stress.

A

Reflex tachycardia

27
Q

Ischemia-induced myocardial chest pain caused by spasms of the coronary arteries; also referred to as Prinzmetal or variant angina

A

Vasospastic angina

27
Q

Early stage of progressive coronary artery disease.

A

Unstable angina

28
Q

lower serum levels of cholesterol and various lipids. These include bile acid
sequestrants, HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, and a cholesterol absorption inhibitor. Other drugs that are used to affect lipid levels do not fall into any of the
classes but are approved for use in combination with changes in diet and exercise

A

Lipid-lowering agents

29
Q

prevent the reabsorption of bile salts, which are very high in cholesterol. Consequently, the liver will pull
cholesterol from the blood to make new bile acids, lowering the
serum cholesterol level.

A

Bile acid sequestrants

29
Q

bind with bile acids in the intestine to form an insoluble complex that is then excreted in the feces. Bile acids contain
high levels of cholesterol. As a result, the liver must use cholesterol to
make more bile acids.

A

Bile Acid sequestrants

29
Q

Bile Acid sequestrants bind with bile acids in the intestine to form an ____ that is then excreted in the feces. Bile acids contain
high levels of cholesterol. As a result, the liver must use cholesterol to make more bile acids.

A

insoluble complex

30
Q

block the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, resulting in lower serum cholesterol levels, a resultant breakdown of LDLs, and a slight increase in HDLs.

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, or statins

30
Q

works in the brush border of the small intestine to decrease the absorption of dietary cholesterol from the small intestine

A

Ezetimibe

31
Q

_____ is a power that must be mixed with liquids and taken up to six times a day.

A

Cholestyramine

31
Q

These drugs are used to reduce serum cholesterol in patients with primary hypercholesterolemia. Cholestyramine is also used to treat pruritus associated with partial biliary obstruction.

A

Bile Acid sequestrants

32
Q

Increased serum levels and resultant toxicity can occur if these drugs are combined with digoxin or warfarin; if this combination is used, serum digoxin levels and/or clotting times should be monitored carefully and the prescriber consulted for appropriate dose changes.

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, or statins

32
Q

The risk of rhabdomyolysis increases if any of these drugs is combined with erythromycin, cyclosporine, gemfibrozil, niacin, or antifungal drugs; such combinations should be avoided.

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, or statins

32
Q

block HMG-CoA reductase from completing the synthesis of cholesterol.

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

32
Q

Increased estrogen levels can occur if these drugs are taken with
oral contraceptives; the patient should be monitored carefully if
this combination is used.

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, or statins

33
Q

The ______ are all absorbed from the GI tract and undergo first-pass metabolism in the liver. They are excreted through
feces and urine. The peak effect of these drugs is usually seen within 2 to 4 weeks. These drugs are most effective when taken at night when the liver is processing the most lipids.

A

statins

34
Q

works in the brush border of the small intestine to prevent the absorption of dietary cholesterol, which leads to increased clearance of cholesterol by
the liver and a resultant fall in serum cholesterol.

A

cholesterol absorption inhibitor ezetimibe

35
Q

is absorbed well after oral administration, reaching peak levels in 4 to 6 hours. It is metabolized in the liver and the
small intestine, with a half-life of 22 hours.

A

Ezetimibe

36
Q

_____ levels increase in a patient who is also taking ezetimibe; if this combination is used, the patient should be monitored very closely.

A

Warfarin

36
Q

If ezetimibe is combined with any _____, the risk of cholethiasis increases.

A

fibrate

36
Q

necessary component of human cells that is produced and processed in the liver, then stored in the bile until stimulus causes the gallbladder to contract and send the bile into the duodenum via the common bile duct; a fat that is essential for the formation of steroid hormones and cell membranes; it is produced in cells and taken in by dietary sources.

A

Cholesterol

36
Q

general term used for drugs used to lower lipid levels
in the blood.

A

Antihyperlipidemic agents

36
Q

cholesterol-containing acids found in the bile that act like detergents
to break up fats in the small intestine

A

Bile acids

36
Q

factors that have been identified as increasing the risk of the development of a disease; for coronary artery disease, risk factors include genetic predisposition, gender, age, high-fat diet, sedentary lifestyle, gout, hypertension, diabetes, and estrogen deficiency

A

risk factors

36
Q

carrier for lipids in the bloodstream, consisting of proteins, lipids,
cholesterol, and so forth.

A

Chylomicron

36
Q

enzyme that
regulates the last step in cellular cholesterol synthesis

A

hydroxymethylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase

36
Q

tightly packed fats that are thought to contribute to the development of coronary artery disease when remnants left over from the LDL are processed in the arterial lining

A

low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

36
Q

a collection of factors, including insulin resistance, abdominal obesity, low high-density lipoprotein and high triglyceride levels, hypertension, and proinflammatory and prothrombotic states, that increase the incidence of coronary artery disease.

A

metabolic syndrome

36
Q

loosely packed chylomicron containing fats, able to absorb fats and fat remnants in the periphery; thought to have a protective effect, decreasing the development of coronary artery disease.

A

high-density lipoprotein (HDL)

36
Q

endogenous substances that activate nervous system receptors that are important in the regulation of appetite, food intake, and
metabolism.

A

Endocannabinoids

36
Q

increased levels of lipids in the serum, associated with increased
risk of coronary artery disease development

A

hyperlipidemia

36
Q

inhibit platelet adhesion and aggregation by blocking receptor sites on the platelet membrane, preventing platelet–platelet interaction or the interaction of platelets with other clotting chemicals.

A

Antiplatelet agents

37
Q

_____, _____, and ________
block the formation of thrombin from prothrombin

A

Heparin, argatroban, and bivalirudin

37
Q

are some of the most dangerous drugs used today, and numerous factors
can affect their action. These drugs are among the most commonly associated with adverse drug reactions.

A

Drugs affecting coagulation

37
Q

Adverse effects of anticoagulants can range from ______ to ________. Periodic blood tests will be needed to assess the effects of the drug on the body. Warfarin has been associated with alopecia,
dermatitis and bone marrow depression.

A

bleeding gums with tooth brushing to severe internal hemorrhage.

37
Q

These agents are used effectively to treat cardiovascular diseases that are prone to produce occluded vessels; for the maintenance of venous and arterial grafts; to prevent cerebrovascular occlusion; and as adjuncts to thrombolytic therapy in the
treatment of myocardial infarction (MI) and the prevention of reinfarction after
MI.

A

Antiplatelet agents

37
Q

are drugs that interfere with the normal coagulation process by interfering with the clotting cascade and thrombin formation.

A

Anticoagulants

37
Q

The ________ are contraindicated in the presence of known allergy to the drugs to avoid hypersensitivity reactions. They also
should not be used with any conditions that could be compromised by increased bleeding tendencies, including hemorrhagic disorders, recent trauma, spinal puncture, GI ulcers, recent surgery, intrauterine device placement, tuberculosis, presence of indwelling catheters, and threatened abortion

A

anticoagulants

37
Q

The risk of excessive bleeding increases if any of these drugs is combined with another drug that affects blood clotting

A

Antiplatelet agents

37
Q

break down the thrombus that has been formed by stimulating the plasmin system

A

Thrombolytic agents

37
Q

The most common adverse effect seen with Antiplatelet drugs is ________, which often occurs as increased bruising and bleeding while brushing the teeth.

A

bleeding

37
Q

decrease the formation of the platelet plug by decreasing the responsiveness of the platelets to stimuli that would cause them to stick and aggregate on a vessel wall.

A

Antiplatelet agents

37
Q

One drug, ______, blocks the production of platelets in the bone marrow

A

anagrelide

38
Q

If a thrombus has already formed in a vessel (e.g., during an acute MI), it may be necessary to dissolve that clot to open the
vessel and restore blood flow to the dependent tissue. All of the
drugs that are available for this purpose work to activate the ______ —conversion of plasminogen to plasmin.

A

natural anticlotting system

38
Q

The thrombolytics are effective only if
the patient has ________ in the plasma.

A

plasminogen

38
Q

The most common adverse effect associated with the
use of thrombolytic agents is bleeding. Patients should be monitored closely for the occurrence of ______ and _________

A

cardiac arrhythmias (with coronary reperfusion) and hypotension.

38
Q

drugs that interfere with the aggregation or clumping of
platelets to form the platelet plug

A

antiplatelet agents

38
Q

The risk of hemorrhage increases if ______ agents are
used with any anticoagulant or antiplatelet drug.

A

thrombolytic

39
Q

drugs that block or inhibit any step of the coagulation process,
preventing or slowing clot formation

A

anticoagulants

39
Q

the process of blood’s changing from a fluid state to a solid state
to plug injuries to the vascular system

A

coagulation

39
Q

Is a man-made form of a protein that helps your body produce red blood-cells. It is used to treat anemia caused by chemotherapy or chronic kidney disease.

A

Darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp)

39
Q

drugs that lyse, or break down, a clot that has formed;
these drugs activate the plasminogen mechanism to dissolve fibrin threads

A

thrombolytic agents

39
Q

A substance that stimulates the bone marrow to
make more red blood cells. These are used to treat anemia caused by chronic kidney failure, some anticancer drugs, and certain
treatments for HIV. They may also be used to lower the
number of blood transfusions needed during and after
certain major surgeries.

A

Erythropoiesis-stimulating
agents

40
Q

Generally indicated in conditions where there is impaired red blood
cell production.

A

Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents

40
Q

The two primary FDA approved indications for ESAs
are ______________ and ________–

A
  1. anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease
  2. chemotherapy-induced anemia in patients with cancer
40
Q

Used to treat anemia associated with chronic renal failure, including in
dialysis patient

A

Methoxy polyethylene glycol-epoetin beta (Mircera)

40
Q

All three of these drugs(Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents) are contraindicated in the presence of______ because of the risk of even further hypertension when RBC numbers increase and the pressure within the vascular system increases; with known hypersensitivity to any component of the drug to avoid hypersensitivity reactions; and
with lactation because of the potential for allergic-type reactions
with the neonate.

A

uncontrolled hypertension

40
Q

This medicine is used to treat anemia
associated with renal failure and patients on dialysis; reduction in
need for transfusions in surgical patients; treatment of anemia
associated with AIDS therapy; treatment of anemia associated
with cancer chemotherapy.

A

Epoetin alfa (Epogen)

40
Q

are used to treat iron deficiency anemia (a lack of red blood cells caused by having too little iron in the body)

A

Iron dextran (InFeD)

40
Q

Treatment of iron deficiency in patients undergoing chronic hemodialysis or nondialysis patients with renal failure who are also
receiving supplemental erythropoietin therapy

A

Iron sucrose (Venofer)

40
Q

Treatment of iron deficiency in patients undergoing chronic
hemodialysis who are also receiving supplemental
erythropoietin therapy

A

Sodium ferric gluconate complex (Ferrlecit)

40
Q

It can take ______weeks to see improvement and up to _______months for a return to a stable iron level once a deficiency exists.

A

2 to 3 weeks;
6 to 10 months

40
Q

The most common adverse effects associated with oral iron
are related to _________; these include GI upset,
anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dark stools, and
constipation. With increasing serum levels, iron can be
directly toxic to the CNS, causing coma and even death.

A

direct GI irritation

41
Q

a synthetic form of folate, a B vitamin, used
to treat or prevent low folate levels, which can lead to certain
types of anemia or birth defects.

A

Folic acid (Folvite)

42
Q

used in adults and children to prevent harmful effects
of methotrexate (Trexall) when methotrexate is used to treat osteosarcoma (cancer that forms in bones)

A

Levoleucovorin

42
Q

a man-made form of vitamin B12 used
to prevent and treat low blood levels of this vitamin.

A

Cyanocobalamin (Nascobal)

42
Q

used as “leucovorin rescue” after chemotherapy, allowing non cancerous cells to survive the chemotherapy; used with fluorouracil for palliative treatment of colorectal cancer

A

Leucovorin (Wellcovorin)

42
Q

a manufactured version of the vitamin B12. It is used to treat and prevent vitamin B12 deficiency anemia.

A

Hydroxocobalamin (Hydro-Crysti-12)

43
Q

______and_____- are essential for cell growth and division and for the production of a strong stroma in RBCs.

A

Folic acid and vitamin B12

43
Q

_________- is treated with folic acid and vitamin B12 tissue.

A

Megaloblastic anemia

44
Q

a cytotoxic antineoplastic drug that is also used to treat
leukemia, ovarian cancer and melanoma. It interferes with the growth of cancer cells, which are eventually destroyed by the body

A

Hydroxyurea

44
Q

RBCs, responsible for carrying oxygen to the tissues and removing
carbon dioxide; they have no nucleus and live approximately 120 days

A

erythrocytes

44
Q

process of RBC production and life cycle; formed by megaloblastic
cells in the bone marrow, using iron, folic acid, carbohydrates, vitamin B12, and amino acids; they circulate in the vascular system for about 120 days and then are lysed and recycled

A

erythropoiesis

44
Q

disorder involving too few red blood cells (RBCs) or ineffective RBCs that can alter the blood’s ability to carry oxygen

A

anemia

45
Q

glycoprotein produced by the kidneys, released in response to
decreased blood flow or oxygen tension in the kidney; controls the rate of RBC production in the bone marrow

A

erythropoietin

45
Q

anemia caused by lack of vitamin B12 and/or folic acid, in which
RBCs are fewer in number and have a weak stroma and a short lifespan; treated by replacement of folic acid and vitamin B12

A

megaloblastic anemia

45
Q

low RBC count with low iron available because of high
demand, poor diet, or poor absorption; treated with iron replacement

A

iron-deficiency anemia

PHARMACOLOGY (6 decks)

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