drug list Flashcards

1
Q

what’s the first antisense drug to be approved by FDA?

A

vitravene

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2
Q

what’s used in the treatment of CMV retinitis?

A

vitravene

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3
Q

what is only effective in about 20% of patients that overexposes HER2 receptor?

A

Herceptin

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4
Q

Herceptin aka

A

trastuzamab

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5
Q

what is a metastatic breast cancer treatment ?

A

Herceptin

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6
Q

what drug may lead to cardio toxicity and ADRs?

A

Herceptin

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7
Q

following patient testing what’s one of the first drugs to be prescribed for patients with breast cancer?

A

Herceptin

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8
Q

what are the two MOA of Herceptin?

A

1 prevent HER2 receptor from releasing growth signals

2 it will tell your immune cells to target cells with HER@ receptor

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9
Q

what happens in the absence of Herceptin?

A

HER2 cancer cells release excess growth signals for proliferation

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10
Q

what drug is metabolized by isoenzyme CYP2D6?

A

debrisoquine

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11
Q

what kind of drug is debrisoquine?

A

antihypertensive

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12
Q

what alter metabolism of debrisoquine?

A

SNPs in the isoenzyme

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13
Q

what drugs follow zero order kinetics?

A

ethanol and aspirin

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14
Q

ethanol is excreted in …

A

sweat

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15
Q

what’s penicillin?

A

an acidic antibiotic

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16
Q

how are penicillin and aspirin excreted?

A

via proximal tubular secretion (renal excretion)

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17
Q

what is used in the excretion of penicillin and aspirin?

A

anion transport system

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18
Q

what may prolong effects of penicillin?

A

competition for secretion with probenecid

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19
Q

what is aspirin?

A

acidic salicylate

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20
Q

what is given to prevent gout?

A

aspirin is given to compete with uric acid during distal tubular active reabsorption

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21
Q

what drugs are alkylating agents ?

A

cyclophosphamide and thio-TEPA

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22
Q

cyclophosphamide and thio-TEPA MOA

A

creates highly reactive carbonium ion which alkylates guanine at N-7 position

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23
Q

what prodrug is acts on S/G2 phase and G2/M phase?

A

cyclophosphamide

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24
Q

what activates cyclophosphamide?

A

CYTP450

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25
Q

what drug is used for treatment of chronic lymphatic leukemia?

A

cyclophosphamide

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26
Q

what drug is used for treatment of breast and ovarian cancer?

A

cyclophosphamide

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27
Q

what drug is used in the management of rheumatic disorders and autoimmune nephritis?

A

cyclophosphamide

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28
Q

what are the adverse effects associated with cyclophosphamide and thio-TEPA ?

A

myelosuppression
nausea and vomitting
teratogenesis
gonadal atrophy

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29
Q

what drugs carry risk of leukomegenesis and resistance?

A

cyclophosphamide and thio-TEPA

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30
Q

what drug is aka as ethyleneammonium?

A

thio-TEPA

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31
Q

how is thio-TEPA activated?

A

its converted into its active metabolite try ethylene phosphor amide by liver MFO

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32
Q

what’s used in the treatment of bladder cancer?

A

thio-TEPA

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33
Q

what are antimetabolites used to treat cancer?

A

methotrexate (MTX) and 5-fluorouracil (5-FU)

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34
Q

what drug is a folic acid antagonist?

A

methotrexate (MTX)

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35
Q

what does methotrexate (MTX) do?

A

irreversibly inhibits DHFR which is needed for thymidine and purine synthesis

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36
Q

what drug is a prymidine antagonist?

A

5-fluorouracil (5-FU)

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37
Q

what drug is a thymine analogue that has a fluorine group instead of a methyl group?

A

5-fluorouracil (5-FU)

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38
Q

what does 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) do?

A

its active metabolite 5-dUMP inhibits DNA synthesis and 5-dUTP when incorporated into RNA prevents its function

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39
Q

what’s used in treatment of solid tumors?

A

5-fluorouracil (5-FU)

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40
Q

what’s used in treatment of breast tumors?

A

5-fluorouracil (5-FU)

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41
Q

what’s used in collateral tumors and gastric tumors?

A

5-fluorouracil (5-FU)

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42
Q

what’s used in the treatment of squamous cell tumors of the head and neck?

A

5-fluorouracil (5-FU)

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43
Q

what are adverse effects of methotrexate (MTX) and 5-fluorouracil (5-FU)?

A
myelosuppresion 
severe leukopenia 
bone marrow aplasia 
hepatotoxicity 
thrombocytopenia 
gi disturbances 
crystal urea
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44
Q

what drugs are G1/S and S/G2 specific?

A

methotrexate (MTX) and 5-fluorouracil (5-FU)

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45
Q

what drugs intercalate btwn bps –> topoismoerase ii inhibited and free radicals fare formed –> inhibition of. dna synthesis and cause strand incision?

A

Doxorubicin and Actinomycin D

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46
Q

what drug is an anthracycline?

A

Doxorubicin

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47
Q

how does Doxorubicin work?

A
It gets reduced by CYTP450
reductase into a reduced
metabolite and a
superoxide ion hydrogen
peroxide, which breaks the
strands in DNA
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48
Q

what drugs may lead to severe cardiac toxicity and serious pulmonary and mucocutaneous reactions because of their free radical formation?

A

Doxorubicin and Actinomycin D

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49
Q

what are the adverse effects of Doxorubicin and Actinomycin D?

A

Cardiac toxicity

Severe pulmonary and mucocutaneous reactions

Bone marrow depression

Severe and prolonged Myelosuppression

Total alopecia

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50
Q

It is a cell cycle specific

drug: G1/S and G2/M

A

Actinomycin D

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51
Q

It’s used to treat
gestational and pediatric
tumors (Ewing Sarcoma
and Wilms Tumor)

A

Actinomycin D

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52
Q

It intercalates DNA and
inhibits DNA and mRNA
synthesis.

A

Actinomycin D

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53
Q

what drug causes excess hypotension in poor metabolizers ?

A

Debrisoquine

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54
Q

what drug is an antidepressant?

A

paroxetine

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55
Q

what affects response of paroxetine?

A

Its response is affected by
SNPs in the Serotonin 2A
receptor.

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56
Q

whats the purpose of paroxetine?

A

It is a serotonin reuptake

inhibitor.

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57
Q

what was found in patients taking paroxetine?

A
They found that depressed
patients with the C/C
genotype for the serotonin
2A receptor were more
likely to discontinue the
use of Paroxetine then the
T/C and T/T genotype.
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58
Q

name an endogenous adrenergic

agonist

A

nora

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59
Q

what are the Direct-acting adrenergic

agonist?

A
Nora 
phenylephrine 
clonidine 
isoprenaline 
dobutamine 
salbutamol
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60
Q

what receptors does NA act on?

A

alpha 1 and alpha 2

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61
Q

NA is a catecholamine what does that mean?

A

can’t be ingested orally bc it will be digested by MAO and COMT before it reaches systemic circulation ( short DOA)
cannot pass the BBB so minimal effect on CNS

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62
Q

what blocks release of NA from presynaptic neuron?

A

guanthedine

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63
Q

what direct acting adrenergic agonists are sympathomimetic?

A

phenylephrine
clonidine
dobutamine
salbutamol

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64
Q

true or false phenylephrine can be given orally.

A

true

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65
Q

what drug is a selective alpha 1 adrenergic agonist?

A

phenylephrine

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66
Q

what drug causes vasoconstriction?

A

phenylephrine

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67
Q

what drug is used as a nasal decongestant?

A

phenylephrine

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68
Q

why is phenylephrine used as a nasal decongestant?

A

acts on alpha 1 receptors on bvs of nasal mucosa to relieve congestion by inducing vasoconstriction

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69
Q

what is a selective alpha 2 adrenergic agonist ?

A

clonidine

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70
Q

what is used to treat hypertension by inhibiting sympathetic outflow leading to decreased blood pressure?

A

clonidine

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71
Q

what inhibits NA release ?

A

clonidine

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72
Q

what drugs are catecholamines ?

A

NA

isoprenaline

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73
Q

what drug is a nonselective beta agonist?

A

isoprenaline

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74
Q

what is the effect when isoprenaline acts on B1 receptors?

A

increase renin release and contractility and rate of heart

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75
Q

what is the effect when isoprenaline acts on B2 receptors?

A

bronchodilation and peripheral vasodilation

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76
Q

what drug is a selective b1 adrenergic agonist?

A

dobutamine

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77
Q

what drug increases cardiac output and contractility of heart?

A

dobutamine

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78
Q

whats useful in Tx of CHF by increasing cardiac output?

A

dobutamine

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79
Q

how does dobutamine indirectly increase heart rate?

A

increase release of renin from kidneys promoting release of angiotensin II which brings up heart rate

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80
Q

what drug is a selective B2 adrenergic agonist?

A

salbutamol

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81
Q

whats used in the treatment of asthma for its bronchodilator effect?

A

salbutamol

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82
Q

whats used in the treatment of premature labor because it relaxes the smooth muscles of the uterus?

A

salbutamol

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83
Q

what drug is a nonselective alpha adrenergic blocker?

A

phentolamine

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84
Q

whats used to treat hypertensive crisis cause by phaeochromocytoma?

A

phentolamine

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85
Q

phentolamine …… until tumor ( phaeochromocytoma) is removed.

A

release of catecholamines

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86
Q

whats a selective alpha 1 adrenergic antagonist ?

A

prazosin

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87
Q

whats used in treatment of primary hypertension?

A

prazosin

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88
Q

what is used to treat benign symptoms of prostatic hyperplasia?

A

prazosin

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89
Q

how does prazosin treat benign symptoms of prostatic hyperplasia?

A

prevents contraction of urinary smooth muscles and bladder neck allowing urine to pass easily and reducing lower UT symptoms

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90
Q

what drug is a nonselective beta antagonists?

A

propranolol

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91
Q

It is a selective B1

adrenergic agonist

A

Dobutamine

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92
Q

It increases the cardiac
output and contractility of
the heart.

A

Dobutamine

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93
Q

• It is useful in the
treatment of CHF by
increasing the CO.

A

Dobutamine

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94
Q
It also can increase the
release of renin from the
kidneys promoting the
release of angiotensin II
which brings up the heart
rate.
A

Dobutamine

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95
Q

It is a selective B2

adrenergic agonist

A

Salbutamol

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96
Q
Used in the treatment of
Asthma for its
bronchodilator effect and
in the treatment of
premature labor (relaxes
the smooth muscles of the
uterus).
A

Salbutamol

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97
Q
Non
-selective alpha
-
adrenergic blocker (Acts
on both alpha 1 and alpha
2)
A

Phentolamine

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98
Q
It is used to treat
hypertensive crises caused
by phaeochromocytoma
(which is a tumor of the
adrenal glands that
secretes excess
catecholamines)
A

Phentolamine

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99
Q

__________ prevents
the release of
catecholamines until the
tumor is removed.

A

Phentolamine

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100
Q

Selective alpha 1

adrenergic antagonist

A

Prazosin

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101
Q

It is useful in the
treatment of primary
hypertension.

A

Prazosin

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102
Q
It is used to treat
symptoms of benign
prostatic hyperplasia. It
prevents contractions of
the urinary smooth
muscles and bladder neck
allowing the urine to pass
easily and reducing lower
UT symptoms.
A

Prazosin

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103
Q
Non
-selective beta
-
adrenergic antagonist
(blocks beta 1 and beta 2).
A

Propranolol

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104
Q

• It blocks the effects of
catecholamines on the
heart and blood vessels.

A

Propranolol

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105
Q
Is used to treat angina
pectoris
- chest pain caused
by lack of O2 to the heart
(because of increased
blood flow). \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
decreases the CO and BP
allowing time for the blood
to pass through the heart.
A

Propranolol

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106
Q
Considered as a first line
treatment for
hypertension and can be
used in combination with
other blood pressure
lowering drugs to
maximize the affect.
A

Propranolol

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107
Q
It is also proven to have a
protective affect in
patients who have had a
MI (prevents them from
getting it a second time so
its protective on the heart)
A

Propranolol

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108
Q
It is also used in the
treatment of
hyperthyroidism (which
can cause tachycardia and
anxiety)
A

Propranolol

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109
Q

It can also decrease the bp
by decreasing the CO and
renin release.

A

Propranolol

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110
Q

AE: Since it is non
-selective

it may cause
bronchospasm in patients
who have asthma.

A

Propranolol

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111
Q

AE: It may also lead to
cardiac depression and
signs of HF.

A

Propranolol

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112
Q
It is used in the treatment
of hypertension and may
be used in combo with
other blood pressure
lowering drugs.
A

Atenolol

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113
Q

used in the
treatment of angina
pectoris.

A

Atenolol

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114
Q

It is used to treat MI

protective effect

A

Atenolol

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115
Q

used to treat

hyperthyroidism

A

Atenolol

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116
Q

AE : cardiac depression and HF

A

Atenolol

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117
Q

• It also decreases bp by
decreasing the CO and
renin release.

A

Atenolol

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118
Q

It blocks the effect of
catecholamines on the
heart and blood vessels.

A

Atenolol

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119
Q

Indirect acting adrenergic agonists

A
cocaine
tricyclic antidepressants 
amphetamine 
tyramine 
MAO inhibitors
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120
Q

direct acting adrenergic agonists

A

dopamine
epinephrine
isoproterenol

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121
Q

mixed action adrenergic agonists

A

ephedrine

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122
Q

It inhibits neuronal uptake

uptake 1

A

cocaine

tricyclic antidepressant

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123
Q
It increases the amount of
NA in synaptic gap and
thus promotes increased
activation of adrenergic
receptors (both
A

cocaine

tricyclic antidepressant

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124
Q

tricyclic antidepressant

A

Imiprimane

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125
Q

It blocks the release of NA

into synaptic space.

A

Guanethidine

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126
Q

Noradrenergic neuron

blocking drug

A

Guanethidine

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127
Q

Drugs that act on
noradrenergic nerve
terminals

A

Reserpine

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128
Q

It blocks the transport of
NA into synaptic vesicles,
thus depleting the stores.

A

Reserpine

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129
Q

It is not used clinically.

A

Reserpine

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130
Q
It does not bind to a
receptor instead it
displaces NA from the
vesicles to cause NA
release.
A

Amphetamine

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131
Q
MOA: it enters the nerve
terminal via uptake 1 and
enters the synaptic vesicle
in exchange for NA. This
causes NA to accumulate
presynaptically and some
of it will be broken down
by MAO, while the rest of
it will be released into the
synaptic cleft to act on
adrenergic receptors.
A

Amphetamine

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132
Q

It acts in a similar way to
amphetamine (ya3ny it
displaces NA from its
vesicle)

A

Tyramine

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133
Q

It can cause severe
hypertension in patients
who take MAO inhibitors.

A

Tyramine

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134
Q

It is naturally broken down
by MAO (you can see why
MAO inhibitors are a
problem)

A

Tyramine

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135
Q

A protein found in cheese

products

A

Tyramine

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136
Q

It is involved in the cheese

reaction.

A

Tyramine

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137
Q
Mixed acting adrenergic
agonist (ya3ny it can
increase the amount of NA
released or it can bind to
the receptors and activate
them directly)
A

Ephedrine

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138
Q

Non-catecholamine

A

Ephedrine

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139
Q

It is the major
neurotransmitter of the
PSNS

A

Acetylcholine

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140
Q

It is an endogenous and direct acting

cholinergic agonist

A

Acetylcholine

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141
Q

It is involved in the PSNS and
acts on nicotinic or
muscarinic receptors.

A

Acetylcholine

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142
Q

Typically acts on skeletal
muscles in the somatic
efferent pathway

A

Acetylcholine

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143
Q
It is the major
neurotransmitter in all
presynaptic neurons of the
PNS and is only active in the
PSNS post-synaptically.
A

Acetylcholine

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144
Q

Heart: decreases CO
and rate of the heart

Blood vessels:
vasodilation and
decreased blood
pressure

A

Acetylcholine

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145
Q

GI: stimulates
salivary and
intestinal secretion
and gastric motility

A

Acetylcholine

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146
Q

Lungs: it induces
bronchiolar
secretion and
bronchoconstriction.

A

Acetylcholine

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147
Q
Genitourinary tract:
it increases the
detrusor urinae
muscle tone for
expulsion of urine.
A

Acetylcholine

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148
Q

Eye: muscle
contraction for near
vision and pupil
constriction (miosis)

A

Acetylcholine

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149
Q

It is broken down by

acetylcholinesterase

A

Acetylcholine

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150
Q

It activates all cholinergic
receptors (muscarinic and
nicotinic receptors)

A

Acetylcholine

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151
Q
It is not used therapeutically
because of its multiplicity of
action and its rapid
degradation by
acetylcholinesterase.
A

Acetylcholine

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152
Q

It is a type of choline ester
(direct
-acting cholinergic
agonist)

A

Acetylcholine

153
Q

It is only clinically used for its
miotic effects in cataract
surgery.

A

Acetylcholine

154
Q

It is contraindicated in: People with coronary
insufficiency because it causes hypotension
and people with Hyperthyroidism
(atrial arrythmias)

A

Acetylcholine

155
Q

It is contraindicated in: People with Asthma or Peptic ulcers

A

Acetylcholine

156
Q

It is an alkaloid found in

Atropa Belladona

A

Atropine

157
Q
It blocks all types of
muscarinic receptors (It does
not affect nicotinic receptors)
A

Atropine

158
Q

At low doses it has no effect

on the CNS

A

Atropine

159
Q
At high doses it causes
excitation effects on the CNS
(hallucinations,
disorientation, and
restlessness)
A

Atropine

160
Q

It is a cholinergic
antagonist –> binds competitively and
reversibly

A

Atropine

161
Q
Eye: mydriasis
(persistent)
 Antispasmodic:
relaxes GIT and
bladder
A

Atropine

162
Q
Antisecretory: it
prevents secretion
from upper and
lower respiratory
tract prior to
surgery
A

Atropine

163
Q

surgery
o Used to treat
anticholinesterase

A

Atropine

164
Q
Adverse effects: 
Dry mouth 
Blurred vision 
Tachycardia 
Constipation 
Confusion (CNS)
A

Atropine

165
Q

in surgery its used as a pre anesthetic to prevent salivary and bronchiolar secretions

A

Atropine

166
Q
Ophthalmology: It is
used to induce
mydriasis, to dilate
the pupil, and
paralyze the eye
lens for examination
(long
-lasting effects)
A

Atropine

167
Q

Antidote: treatment
of
anticholinesterase
poisoning

A

Atropine

168
Q

Treatment of GIT

cramps

A

Atropine

169
Q

Treatment of
Parkinson’s disease
and tardive
dyskinesia

A

Atropine

170
Q

Treatment of sinus
bradycardia after an
MI

A

Atropine

171
Q

Its use is contraindicated in
children because it increases
their body temperature.

A

Atropine

172
Q

It can be used in conjunction
with pralidoxime to treat
organophosphate poisoning.

A

Atropine

173
Q

It is used in the treatment of
Parkinsonism and tardive
dyskinesia

A

Benztropine

174
Q

It is a cholinergic
antagonist that only acts on muscarinic
receptors

A

Benztropine

175
Q

It blocks the release of
acetylcholine from the
presynaptic cholinergic
neurons.

A

Botulinum Toxin

176
Q

A bacterial toxin

A

Botulinum Toxin

177
Q

It is an indirect

-acting cholinergic agonist and anticholinesterase

A

Echothiophate

178
Q

It is an organophosphate

A

Echothiophate

179
Q

It is irreversible and long

-acting

A

Echothiophate

180
Q

Typically used in the
preparation of war gases and
pesticides

A

Echothiophate

181
Q

It may be used to treat
glaucoma (but not as a first
choice).

A

Echothiophate

182
Q
what causes these side effects? 
 Respiratory
depression (very
dangerous)
 Agitation 
 Confusion 
 Vomiting, colic, and
diarrhea
A

Echothiophate

183
Q
what causes these side effects? 
Constricted pupils
that are unresponsive to light
Sweating and salivation
Bronchoconstriction
A

Echothiophate

184
Q
what causes this side effects? 
CNS: It may cause
demyelination,
which causes
sensory loss and
respiratory
paralysis.
A

Echothiophate

185
Q

When used in combo with a
NMB it may lead to
prolonged and excessive
muscular (skeletal) paralysis

A

Gentamicin

186
Q

It prevents the release of

acetylcholine

A

Gentamicin

187
Q

It may be used in combo with
vecuronium= blocks nicotinic
receptors

A

Gentamicin

188
Q

its an Aminoglycoside

A

Gentamicin

189
Q
Blocks the choline uptake
(rate limiting step) (prevents
the entry of choline to the
presynaptic membrane via
choline carrier) → inhibits
acetylcholine synthesis →
Blocks cholinergic
transmission.
A

Hemicholinum

190
Q

Blocker of Cholinergic

transmission

A

Hemicholinum

191
Q

Cholinergic antagonist acts on muscarinic

receptors

A

Ipratropium

192
Q

It is a quaternary nitrogen

compound

A

Ipratropium

193
Q

Used to treat chronic
bronchitis and asthma; it
relaxes smooth muscles.

A

Ipratropium

194
Q

It binds competitively and
reversibly
It is inhaled

A

Ipratropium

195
Q
It inhibits plasma
cholinesterases from
metabolizing another NMB=
Suxamethonium (prolonging
its duration of action)
A

Neostigmine

196
Q

Reversible and long
-acting
anticholinesterase

A

Neostigmine

197
Q

It is used to reverse

competitive NMB

A

Neostigmine

198
Q

Used in the treatment of
paralytic ileus and bladder
atony

A

Neostigmine

199
Q

It is also used in the
treatment of myasthenia
gravis

A

Neostigmine

200
Q
It leads to the AE mentioned
earlier for
anticholinesterases (all
except confusion, agitation,
and respiratory depression)
A

Neostigmine

201
Q

Used to treat glaucoma
because it’s only
administered on the eyes

A

Physostigmine

202
Q

Used as an antidote for

atropine poisoning

A

Physostigmine

203
Q

Used in the treatment of

Alzheimer’s disease

A

Physostigmine

204
Q
It may cause agitation,
confusion and respiratory
depression (along with the
other side effects on
anticholinesterases)
A

Physostigmine

205
Q

It is a naturally occurring

alkaloid

A

Pilocarpine

206
Q

It has a longer DOA than
acetylcholine
It specifically acts on
muscarinic receptors

A

Pilocarpine

207
Q

used to treat glaucoma

A

Pilocarpine

208
Q
contraindicated in the following : - 
Coronary insufficiency (hypotension)
 Hyperthyroidism
(atrial arrythmias)
 Peptic ulcer 
 Asthma
A

Pilocarpine

209
Q

At therapeutic dose it is a
depressant in the CNS: it
leads to sedation, drowsiness
and amnesia

A

Scopolamine

210
Q

It is also an antiemetic • It has a longer DOA than

acetylcholine

A

Scopolamine

211
Q

It also has a greater overall
effect on the CNS than
acetylcholine

A

Scopolamine

212
Q
AKA: Hyoscine 
It’s another type of plant
product
 It is a muscarinic
antagonist
A

Scopolamine

213
Q

It is used in the treatment of motion sickness

A

Scopolamine

214
Q

It is uses as a
adjunct with
anesthesia

A

Scopolamine

215
Q
It also blocks short
term memory
(useful so that the
patient can’t
remember the
surgery)
A

Scopolamine

216
Q

AE: very similar to Atropine

dry mouth 
blurred vusuin
constipation 
tachycardia 
confusion
A

Scopolamine

217
Q

in Surgery: it is used as a pre-anesthetic to prevent salivary and bronchiolar secretions

A

Scopolamine

218
Q

It is also used in the
treatment of GIT
cramps.

A

Scopolamine

219
Q

Blocks the storage of

acetylcholine

A

Vesamicol

220
Q

Blocker of cholinergic

transmission

A

Vesamicol

221
Q
It has a longer DOA than
acetylcholine
It is selective to muscarinic
receptors
It is used to treat paralytic
ileus and urinary retention
A

Bethanechol

222
Q

Direct-acting cholinergic agonist
It is a choline ester
(synthetic ester of
choline)

A

Bethanechol

223
Q

It increases the release of
acetylcholine from
presynaptic cholinergic
neurons

A

Latrotoxin

224
Q

It is also found in spider

venom
• Typically known as Black
Widow Toxin

A

Latrotoxin

225
Q

It is used in the treatment of

organophosphate poisoning

A

Pralidoxime

226
Q

May be used in conjugation
with Atropine
• It reactivates cholinesterases

A

Pralidoxime

227
Q

• Oxime compound

A

Pralidoxime

228
Q

Reactivates enzymes
inactivated by
phosphorylation.

A

Pralidoxime

229
Q

It is a competitive NMB

It is non-depolarizing

A
Suxamethonium
Rocuronium
Mivacurium
Tubocurarine
 Vecuronium
230
Q
It competes with
acetylcholine to bind to
nicotinic receptors
• It is clinically important
• It is an active drug
A

Mivacurium

231
Q

It is useful in patients
suffering from kidney
disease because it cannot
be excreted by the kidneys

A

Mivacurium

232
Q

It is rapidly hydrolyzed by
plasma cholinesterase
(short acting)

A

Mivacurium

233
Q
Only causes mild or
transient histamine
release and hypotension
 No effect on muscarinic
receptors
A

Mivacurium

234
Q
It is of clinically important
use
• It has an intermediate
duration of action (30-40
minutes).
A

Rocuronium

235
Q

It has no ganglionic block
or histamine release
• It does not act on
muscarinic receptors

A

Rocuronium

236
Q

No tachycardia

• Its onset is rapid (1 -2 minutes)

A

Rocuronium

237
Q
It is used in
electroconvulsive therapy
to reduce trauma
• It is also used in rapid
endotracheal intubation.
A

Suxamethonium

238
Q
It is used in
electroconvulsive therapy
to reduce trauma
• It is also used in rapid
endotracheal intubation.
A

Suxamethonium

239
Q

It is the only depolarizing
NMB used clinically.
Its onset of action is rapid
(1 minute).

A

Suxamethonium

240
Q
MOA: It behaves like
acetylcholine; it binds to
the nicotinic receptor and
induces contraction.
However, it is not
susceptible to
acetylcholinesterases. This
means that it persists for a
longer period of time on
the receptor leading to
sustained muscular
contraction and
depolarization that leads
to inactivation of the
receptor and relaxation of
the muscle. It actually
produces transient
twitching (fasciculation)
before causing the block.
A

Suxamethonium

241
Q
It is short acting in its
nature (5 minutes) as it is
digested rapidly by plasma
cholinesterases. However,
at the NMJ it must be
redistributed to the
plasma (no plasma
cholinesterases at the
NMJ)
A

Suxamethonium

242
Q
Its use is contraindicated
in people with a deficiency
or defective plasma
cholinesterases because its
duration of action is
prolonged (prolonged
neuromuscular paralysis)
A

Suxamethonium

243
Q
AE associated with
o Depression of
respiration
o Post -operative pain
o Hyperkalemia which can cause cardiac arrythmias
o Malignant hyperthermia
o Prolonged muscle paralysis and apnea (in plasma
cholinesterase deficient
patients= paralyzes diaphragm)
A

Suxamethonium

244
Q
side effects = Bradycardia
(muscarinic
agonist effect)
o Increased
intraocular
pressure
(nicotinic agonist
effect on
extraocular
muscles)
A

Suxamethonium

245
Q
Its effect can be enhanced
by neostigmine blocking
the plasma cholinesterases
as it is a an
anticholinesterase
A

Suxamethonium

246
Q

Non -competitive NMB
• It is depolarizing in its
nature
• AKA: succinylcholine

A

Suxamethonium

247
Q

Competitive NMB • Non-depolarizing • Alkaloid

A

Tubocurarine

248
Q

It is a prototype • It is not clinically used
because of its lack of
selectivity and multiple
side effects

A

Tubocurarine

249
Q
It leads to histamine
release, which causes
bronchoconstriction and
and hypotension
• It also leads to ganglionic
block
A

Tubocurarine

250
Q

It is only important
because it was one of the
first NMB to ever be
introduced to medicine

A

Tubocurarine

251
Q

It is clinically important
It has an intermediate duration of action (30-40 minutes)
It has a rapid onset ( 1-2 minutes)

A

Vecuronium

252
Q

It does not promote
histamine release
It does not cause ganglionic block (so it doesn’t act on muscarinic receptors= no tachycardia)

A

Vecuronium

253
Q

It may lead to prolonged
muscle paralysis when
administered with
gentamicin.

A

Vecuronium

254
Q
It is used against gram -ve
bacteria.
It is bactericidal against
streptococci but
bacteriostatic against
enterococci.
A

Penicillins

255
Q

Some bacteria produce B-
lactamase and are

resistant to it

A

Penicillins

256
Q

Closely related to penicillin
• Some bacteria that
produce B-lactamase are
also resistant

A

Cephalosporins

257
Q

If a patient has an allergy
towards penicillin= he
should not take it

A

Cephalosporins

258
Q

It may cause kidney

damage.

A

Cephalosporins

259
Q

They inhibit folic acid
synthesis
They cause kernicterus in
neonates

A

Sulfonamides

260
Q

During pregnancy, they
lead to neonatal jaundice
and hemolytic anemia

A

Sulfonamides

261
Q

They prevent bacterial
DNA synthesis (since they
need folic acid for
synthesis)

A

Sulfonamides

262
Q

It interferes with cell
division (selective toxicity
to bacteria and not
humans)

A

Sulfonamides

263
Q

It is prototypic of
Sulfonamides

• It is active against gram
\+ve and
-ve bacteria
• It helped overcome an
outbreak of meningitis
• It also inhibits folic acid
synthesis in bacteria
A

Sulfanilamide

264
Q
Prototypic of an
aminoglycoside
• It was especially designed
against the penicillin
resistant gram-ve bacteria
A

Streptomycin

265
Q

It inhibits the 30s
ribosomal subunit in
bacterial species= inhibits
protein synthesis

A

Streptomycin

266
Q
Since its an
aminoglycoside, it requires
an oxygen dependent
transport mechanism=
anaerobes are inherently
resistant to it
A

Streptomycin

267
Q
Some bacteria, becomes
resistant to it
because their DNA is
altered= Ribosome
altered.
• It may lead to kidney
damage in the fetus and
hearing problems.
A

Streptomycin

268
Q
Their uptake may be
reduced by bacterial
mechanisms which
promote the outflux of
antibiotics.
• They are used as a
bacteriostatic agent in
pneumococcal infections
A

Tetracyclines

269
Q

In pregnancy and
breastfeeding= weak bone
and teeth formation

A

Tetracyclines

270
Q
Isolated from
streptomyces organism
• It is active against gram
\+ve and
-ve bacteria,
ricketssia, and some
protozoa
A

Chlortetracycline

271
Q
It is active against gram
-ve and gram +ve bacteria
• It was found to cause
aplastic anemia, so it is not
widely used anymore
(unless person is resistant
to other drugs)
A

Chloramphenicol

272
Q
It inhibits the 50s
ribosomal subunit of
bacteria (inhibiting protein
synthesis)
• It may cause gray baby
syndrome
• It is metabolized by the
liver (may lead to toxicity
in those patients who have
liver damage)
A

Chloramphenicol

273
Q

Metabolized by liver
enzymes and may lead to
toxicity if liver function is
impaired

A

Erythromycin
Clarithromycin
Rifampin

274
Q
Leads to kidney damage
and hearing problems
when taken in pregnancy
and breast feeding
• Anaerobes are resistant to
it because it requires an
oxygen dependent
transport mechanism
A

Aminoglycosides

275
Q

Vinka Alkaloids (Taxens= have the

same MOA= prevent
polymerization)
MOA: They are tubulin
-binding agents
- arrest the cell in G2/M
phase by preventing the formation
of the mitotic filament for nuclear
and cell division
A

Vinblastine

276
Q

It is obtained from the
Vinca Rosa
• It’s mostly used in combo
with other drugs

A

Vinblastine

277
Q

It’s used with cisplatin and
bleomycin = to treat
metastatic testicular and
prostate cancer.

A

Vinblastine

278
Q

AE:
Severe neurotoxicity
Foot drop
Ataxia

A

Vinblastine

Vincristine

279
Q
It is obtained from the
Vinca Rosa
• It is often used in combo
with other drugs
• It is used with prednisone=
treats childhood leukemia
A

Vincristine

280
Q

It is used against a wide
range of neoplasms.
• It’s a cell cycle non-specific drug

A

Cisplatin

281
Q

MOA: They bind to guanine in DNA

and RNA and the interaction is stabilized by hydrogen bonding, which causes unwinding and shortening of the DNA helix.

A

Cisplatin

Carboplatin

282
Q
It is given intravenously as
a first line treatment for:
o Testicular cancer
o Ovarian cancer
o Bladder cancer
o Melanoma
o And a number of
other solid tumors
A

Cisplatin

283
Q
AE:
o Severe nausea
o Nephrotoxicity
o Vomiting
o Little
myelosuppression.
A

Cisplatin

Carboplatin

284
Q
Used in the treatment of a
wide variety of neoplasms
• It has a similar spectrum of
action to cisplatin.
However, it is only used as
a second-line drug for
ovarian cancer.
A

Carboplatin

285
Q
Estrogen
• It inhibits the effects of
endogenous androgens
• It is used in the treatment
of androgen-dependent
metastatic prostatic
carcinoma
A

Diethylstilbestrol

286
Q

Hormone

MOA: Several types of hormone-
dependent cancers respond to their antagonist hormones as treatment.

A

Diethylstilbestrol
Fluoxymesterone
Tamoxifen
Anastrozole

287
Q
AE:
o CVD=
cerebrovascular
and cardiac
complications
o Male breast
carcinoma
A

Diethylstilbestrol

288
Q
Androgen
• It’s MOA in breast cancer is
very similar to estrogens
• AE:
o Hepatic toxicity
o Virilizing effects
A

Fluoxymesterone

289
Q

Sex hormone antagonist
• It antagonizes the ERs of
estrogen sensitive cancer
cells

A

Tamoxifen

290
Q
It is used in the treatment
of ER sensitive breast
carcinomas and progestin
resistant endometrial
cancer
A

Tamoxifen

291
Q
AE:
o Hot flushes
o Venous
thrombosis
o Vaginal bleeding
A

Tamoxifen

292
Q
Aromatase inhibitor
• The aromatase reaction is
responsible for the extra-
adrenal estrogen synthesis
from androstenedione in
post-menstrual women.
A

Anastrozole

293
Q
It is used as a first line
treatment for breast cancer
in post-menopausal women
to decrease estrogen
production.
A

Anastrozole

294
Q

AE:
o Bone pain
o Peripheral edema

A

Anastrozole

295
Q
There are many neoplastic
cells that require
asparagine to grow faster.
• L-asparaginase catalyzes
the deamination of
Asparagine to aspartate
and ammonia.
A

Asparaginase

296
Q
It is used in the treatment
of childhood acute
lymphatic leukemia (in
combo therapy)
• AE: Acute Pancreatitis
A

Asparaginase

297
Q
It is used as an inhibitor of
the tyrosine kinase activity
of the protein product
produced by the BCR-Abl
oncogene.
• Used in the treatment of
chronic myeloid leukemia.
A

Imatinib

298
Q

Half life in neonates= 2.2-5
hours

• Half life in adults= 0.9-2.2
hrs
• Due to the lack of
development in fetal liver
metabolizing enzymes, its
half life is prolonged.
A

Acetaminophen

299
Q
Its hazardous in cases of
low blood flow because its
distribution relies on
increased blood flow
• Its elimination is slower in
neonates because their
GFR and tubular secretion
is very low.
A

Gentamicin

300
Q
It is a hydrophilic drug, so
its volume of distribution
is high in neonates
(because neonates have a
greater water: body fat
ratio)
A

Gentamicin

301
Q
Its renal clearance is low
• Its half life is prolonged in
geriatric age due to
impaired renal function
and clearance= could be
very toxic if not adjusted.
A

Gentamicin

302
Q
It is highly bound to
plasma proteins
• It should bind to serum
albumin, but because of
lower serum
concentrations of
albumin= its free fraction
in plasma will go up (in old
age)
• The loading dose=
decreases in elderly
A

Warfarin

303
Q

It is less effective in old
people because of the
reduced number of
receptors and affinity.

A

B1- agonists

304
Q
Uses:
o In the treatment
of anaphylactic
shock
o Severe
hypertension
o Atrioventricular
blockage
o Refractory HF
A

B1- agonists

305
Q
It increases the myocardial
O2 demand= Elderly may
suffer from cardiac
arrythmias and angina,
especially if they have
CAD.
A

B1- agonists

306
Q
These are substances which
activate receptors on the heart and
kidney to allow increased heart rate
and contractility and increased
secretion of renin.
A

B1- agonists

307
Q
These drugs are used in
the treatment of:
o Cardiac
arrythmias
o CHF
o Angina
o HTN
o MI
A

B- blockers

308
Q
In elderly, it may lead to an
undue-blockade of
sympathetic influences on
the heart= bradycardia,
hypotension, and Heat
failure
• In elderly, it may also lead
to an AV-nodule
conduction block
A

B- blockers

309
Q
They are CVS drugs that
can lead to (especially in
those patients suffering
from arryythmia, type 2
DM, and gout):
o Hyperglycemia
o Hyperuricemia
o Hypokalemia
A

B- blockers

310
Q
It should not be used in
elderly patients suffering
from any obstructive
airway disease (it will lead
to bronchoconstriction)
A

B- blockers

311
Q

These substances block the actions of adrenergic agonists on the heart,
smooth muscles of the lungs, and fat cells.

A

B- blockers

312
Q
It is hazardous in neonates
because of decreased
blood flow to the site of
administration
• Half life in neonates= 60-
70 hrs
• Half life in adults= 30-60
hrs
A

Digoxin

313
Q
It is rapidly eliminated in
toddlerhood because of
increased GFR
• Absorption of it is delayed
by increased gastric
emptying
• It’s renal clearance is low
A

Digoxin

314
Q

Its vd in geriatrics is low
because of decreased lean
body mass in old age (this

is because digoxin needs
to bind to the muscles in
order to exert its action).
• Digoxin’s half
-life is
prolonged in elderly
patients because of
decreased renal
clearance= dose needs to
be adjusted.
A

Digoxin

315
Q
It is a CVS drug and it can
lead to toxic
arrhythmogenic action=
you need to decrease the
dose to decrease the
effect in elderly.
A

Digoxin

316
Q
It’s ability to bind to
plasma proteins in
neonates is low.
• Reduced by MFO (mixed
function oxidases) and has
a long elimination half life
in neonates (their liver
enzymes are not as
developed)
• Half-life in neonates: 25-100 hrs
• Half-life in adults= 40-50hrs
A

Diazepam

317
Q
It’s a hydrophobic drug so
its vd is decreased in
neonates (because they
have a high water: body
fat ratio)
• In elderly, due to increased
fat stores, its volume of
distribution is high
(because it’s a lipophilic
drug)
A

Diazepam

318
Q
Due to decreased amount
of albumin in elderly, the
percentage of unbound or
free drugs increase (its Vd
is increased and so is its
action)
• Because of decreased liver
enzyme function in the
elderly, their half life is
prolonged (phase I
reactions are altered)
A

Diazepam

319
Q

Because it’s a CNS drug=
ataxia (especially in elderly

because its half life is
prolonged)

A

Diazepam

320
Q
Can only be given as a
treatment if the toxicant
was ingested less than an
hour ago
• It works against
hydrophobic toxicants
A

Activated charcoal

321
Q
Can only be given as a
treatment if the toxicant
was ingested less than an
hour ago
• It works against
hydrophobic toxicants
A

Activated charcoal

322
Q
It is not used for corrosives
MDAC can be used to
enhance the elimination of
a toxicant, but this is
mainly used if the patient
took a life threatening
amount of drug that can
be removed well by
charcoal.
A

Activated charcoal

323
Q
Used in decontamination
from a toxicant
• Used in enhancing the
elimination of a toxicant
by metabolism
A

Activated charcoal

324
Q
Toxicodynamic effect: It
causes antimuscarinic
syndrome, which is
characterized by
hypertension, tachycardia,
hyperthermia, and
mydriasis, and urinary
retention (toxic
syndrome).
A

Atropine

325
Q
It can be used as an
antidote in
anticholinesterase
poisoning. It acts as this by
blocking the receptors
preventing acetylcholine
from binding (if there’s too
much of it).
A

Atropine

326
Q

It is also used as an

antidote for OP’s.

A

Atropine

327
Q
It produces a very toxic
metabolite that is
metabolized by N-acetylcysteine
• Its antidote is N
-acetylcysteine.
A

Acetaminophen

328
Q
Since it is an alcohol, the
general agreement is that
as its dosage increase, its
response increases and
causes an elevated anion
gap.
A

Ethanol

Methanol

329
Q
It completes with
methanol to bind to ADH.
It does this to prevent the
formation of methanol’s
toxic metabolite.
A

Ethanol

330
Q
The mechanism is
competitive inhibition
• It acts as an antidote
against methanol and
ethylene glycol
A

Ethanol

331
Q
It produces a toxic
metabolite when it binds
to ADH
• Its actions are terminated
by ethanol (its antidote)
A

Methanol

332
Q
Given to comatose
patients mainly
Used in stabilization and
supportive care of the
intoxicated patient
A

Dextrose

333
Q
In its poisoning state it
causes an elevated anion
gap
• It is treated using sodium
bicarbonate, which
enhances its elimination
through the kidneys
A

Salicylates

334
Q

Hemodialysis may also

enhance its elimination

A

Salicylates

335
Q

It induces emesis
(although apomorphine is
parenterally preferred)

It is used to
decontaminate the GI

A

Syrup of Ipecac

336
Q

It is contraindicated in
people who are:

o Unconscious
patients or
experiencing
convulsions
o Corrosives
o Drugs that induce
A

Syrup of Ipecac

337
Q

It treats patients suffering
from poisoning by
acetaminophen’s toxic

A

N-acetylcystine

338
Q
It enhances urinary
excretion of acidic drugs
mainly by altering the pH
of the urine (makes it
more alkaline to ionize
acidic drugs like aspirin,
enhancing its excretion).
A

Sodium bicarbonate

339
Q

AKA: NaHCO3
• It is used as a measure to
enhance drug elimination

A

Sodium bicarbonate

340
Q
It leads to an augmented
adverse drug reaction
• Leads to bradycardia
• It can also lead to chest
pain if abruptly stopped.
A

Atenolol

341
Q
It causes an augmented
adverse drug reaction
• It causes dry skin and
constipation and
tachycardia.
A

Atropine

342
Q
It leads to an immunogenic
bizarre adverse drug
reaction
• Immunogenic= allergic
reactions
• It causes pulmonary
reactions
• It causes skin reactions
A

aspirin

343
Q
It can lead to an
augmented adverse drug
reaction when given in the
form of an injection
• Hypoglycemia (since it
brings down blood
glucose)
A

Insulin

344
Q

Result in bizarre adverse
drug reactions

• These reactions are
immunogenic in nature.
• They bind to tissue
proteins forming
immunogens
• They also cause allergic
reactions: skin reactions
and anaphylactic shock.
A

Pencillins

345
Q
It leads to a bizarre
adverse drug reaction
• The reaction is genetic in
nature.
• It leads to prolonged
paralysis and apnea in
patients who are deficient
in plasma cholinesterases.
A

Suxamethonium

346
Q
It results in a bizarre
adverse drug reaction
• The reaction is genetic in
nature
• It’s been shown that it may
lead to hemolytic anemia
in those patients who are
deficient in G6PD.
• It typically affects black
males (10%) and
Mediterraneans.
A

Primiquine

347
Q
It leads to bizarre adverse
drug reactions
• These reactions are also
genetic in their nature
• It tends to affect people
who are slow-acetylators
(so they have a
polymorphism in
metabolism of acetyaltors)
A

Isoniazid

348
Q

It induces peripheral
neuropathy in people who
are deficient in N-acetyltransferase

A

Isoniazid

349
Q
It causes delayed adverse
drug reactions
• These reactions are
typically congenital in
nature and can be severe
A

Warfarin

350
Q

It causes a craniofacial

abnormality- nasal hypoplasia

A

Warfarin

351
Q

It causes delayed adverse
drug reactions

• It is mainly congenital in
nature and is very severe
• It causes deformed limbs
in the infant

A

Thalidomide

352
Q

It is susceptible to drug interactions
because it has a low therapeutic
range.

A

Digoxin

353
Q

Its absorption is altered by an increase in the gastric pH caused by
antacids.

A

Ketoconazole

354
Q
If the antacids contain
aluminum or calcium, they
can chelate tetracycline
and reduce its absorption
and effectiveness.
A

Antacids

355
Q

It can be displaced from plasma
binding proteins causing an
increase in its effect= you would
see excess bleeding.

A

Aspirin

356
Q
In cases of aspirin toxicity,
you would want to
increase the renal
excretion. To prevent
tubular reabsorption, you
make the urine more
alkaline to increase the
chances of aspirin being
ionized.
A

Aspirin

357
Q
When administered with
Warfarin, it poses an
increased risk of bleeding
(additivism=
pharmacodynamic affect)
• When administered with
garlic or ginkgo will cause
increased bleeding.
A

Aspirin

358
Q

It can be displaced from the plasma
binding protein leading to an
increase in its effect= you would
see excess bleeding.

A

Warfarin

359
Q

In the presence of
phenobarbital, it becomes
rapidly metabolized
reducing its effectiveness.

A

Warfarin

360
Q
When administered with
aspirin, it increases the risk
of bleeding
(pharmacodynamic
effect=additivism)
• When administered with
garlic or ginkgo may lead
to increased bleeding.
A

Warfarin

361
Q

In the presence of
phenobarbital, it becomes
rapidly metabolized
reducing its effectiveness.

A

Cimetidine

362
Q

Cytochrome p450 isoenzyme

inhibitor

A

Cimetidine

363
Q

Cytochrome p450 isoenzyme inhibitor

A

Cimetidine

364
Q

If iron contains aluminum or
calcium it will form a complex with
tetracycline reducing its

A

Iron

365
Q
It is an inducer of the
cytochrome p450 phase 1
reaction enzymes
• When administered it
accelerates the
metabolism of many other
drugs.
• Warfarin’s effectiveness is
reduced in the presence of
phenobarbital because of
its increased metabolism.
A

Phenobarbital

366
Q

When administered with Penicillin,
it inhibits its active secretion
allowing it to stay longer in the
circulation (beneficial)

A

Probenecid

367
Q
Normally administered to
treat asthma by relaxing
the smooth muscles in the
bronchioles
• When administered with a
b-blocker (antagonist), its
effects are reduced.
A

Salbutamol

368
Q
Its excretion is increased
by making the urine more
alkaline
• Aspirin is an example of a
salicylate

• When administered with
garlic and ginkgo it may
lead to excess bleeding

A

Salicylates

369
Q
Drugs like iron and
antacids that contain
calcium or aluminum can
form chelates with
tetracycline reducing its
absorption and
effectiveness.
A

Tetracyclines

370
Q
When administered with
milk products, which are
high in calcium, it results in
decreased absorption of
tetracycline (because it is
chelated)
A

Tetracyclines

371
Q
When administered with
aminoglycosides it will inhibit cell
wall synthesis allowing for
increased penetration of the cell
wall by aminoglycosides.
(syngergistic)
• Administered to treat
against Staph. Aureus
infections.
A

Penicillin

372
Q

When administered with NA, it
inhibits the reuptake of NA allowing
NA to persist longer in the synaptic
cleft (potentiating its affect)

A

Cocaine

373
Q

When administered with
acetylcholinesterases, its affect is
potentiated, as it will persist longer
in the synaptic cleft.

A

Acetylcholine

374
Q
Tyramine is an important
dietary protein that is
needed for the formation
of NA
• When a person consumes
a tyramine rich diet and is
taking monoamine oxidase
inhibitors (phenelzine), the
chances of developing
hypertensive crisis are
high.
A

Tyramine

375
Q
It is involved in dietary
drug interactions
• It is very important in
those patients who
consume high amounts of
cheese, particularly
because of the presence of

Tyramine within these
cheese products

A

Phenelzine

376
Q

When tyramine is
consumed in the presence
of phenelzine it may lead
to a hypertensive crisis.

A

Phenelzine

377
Q
It has a pharmacodynamic
drug interaction affect
• The effect is potentiation
• It allows for prolonged
action of acetylcholine by
inhibition of
acetylcholinesterases.
A

Physostigmine

378
Q
It causes increased gastric
emptying= increased
absorption of drugs (not
sure about this).
• Thus, it can lead to
pharmacokinetic drug
interactions
• It does so by altering the
gastrointestinal absorption
of drugs.
A

Bethanecol

379
Q
It inhibits the metabolism
of some drugs like calcium
channel blockers
(antihypertensives).
• This leads to hypotension
because the calcium
channel blockers cannot
be metabolized due to the
blockage of the intestinal
CYP3A4.
A

Grapefruit juice