Drug Class Flashcards

1
Q

Acetylcholine

A

Direct acting cholinergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Bethanacol

A

Direct acting cholinergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Methacholine

A

Direct acting cholinergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Carbachol

A

Direct acting cholinergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pilocarpine

A

Direct acting cholinergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Nicotine

A

Direct acting cholinergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Edrophonium

A

AChE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Physostigmine

A

AChE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neostigmine

A

AChE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Echothiophate

A

AChE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Malathion

A

AChE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Parathion

A

AChE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tabun

A

AChE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Sarin

A

AChE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Soman

A

AChE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Donepezil

A

AChE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rivastigmine

A

AChE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Galantamine

A

AChE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pralidoxime

A

Reactivator of AChE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Atropine

A

Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Scopolamine

A

Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ipratropium

A

Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tiotropium

A

Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Homatropine

A

Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tropicamide

A

Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Benztropine

A

Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Trihexyphenidyl

A

Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Glycopyrrolate

A

Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tolterodine

A

Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hexamethonium

A

Ganglion blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Mecamylamine

A

Ganglion blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Tubocurarine

A

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Succinylcholine

A

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hemicholinium

A

Presynaptic cholinergic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Vesamicol

A

Presynaptic cholinergic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Botulinum Toxin

A

Presynaptic cholinergic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Epinephrine

A

Adrenergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Adrenergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Dopamine

A

Adrenergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Fenoldopam

A

D1 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Isoproterenol

A

Beta agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Dobutamine

A

B1 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Albuterol

A

B2 agonist SABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Terbutaline

A

B2 agonist SABA

Uses: asthma, tocolytic* (SC, IV)

*Black Box Warning - should be limited to a max of 72 hrs to treat preterm labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Formoterol

A

B2 agonist LABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Salmeterol

A

B2 agonist LABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Phenylephrine

A

Alpha 1 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Clonidine

A

Alpha 2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Methyldopa

A

Alpha 2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Brimonidine

A

Alpha 2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Mecasermin

A

IGF-1 analog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Somatropin

A

GH recombinant analog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Somatrem

A

GH analog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Octreotide

A

Somastatin analog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Bromicriptine

A

Dopamine agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Carbegoline

A

Dopamine agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Pegvisomant

A

GH receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Gonadorelin

A

Synthetic native GnRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Leuprolide

A

GnRH analog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Nafarelin

A

GnRH analog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Goserelin

A

GnRH analog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Cetorelix

A

GnRH antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Ganirelix

A

GnRH antagonist

64
Q

Corticotropin

A

ACTH

65
Q

Cosyntropin

A

ACTH

66
Q

Menotropins

A

Gonadotropin: purified FSH and LH

67
Q

Follitropin, urofollitropin

A

FSH

68
Q

hCG

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin

69
Q

Oxytocin agonist

A

Oxytocin

70
Q

Vasopressin, Desmopressin

A

Vasopressin analogs

71
Q

Conivaptan

A

ADH antagonist

V1 and V2

SIADH-induced hyponatremia

72
Q

Beclethasone

A

Glucocorticoid

73
Q

Dexamethasone

A

Glucocorticoid

74
Q

Hydrocortisone

A

Glucocorticoid

75
Q

Prednisone

A

Glucocorticoid

76
Q

Prednisolone

A

Glucocorticoid

77
Q

Triamcinolone

A

Glucocorticoid

78
Q

Aldosterone

A

Mineralocorticoid

79
Q

Fludrocortisone

A

Mineralocorticoid

80
Q

Mifepristone

A

Glucocorticoid receptor antagonist

+

Progestin receptor antagonist

Use: Abortifacient

81
Q

Spironolactone

A

Corticosteroid receptor antagonist

Androgen receptor antagonist

82
Q

Ketoconazole

A

Inhibitor of adrenal and gonadal steroid synthesis

Clinical use: Cushing’s syndrome (non-operable), prostate cancer (resistant to other drugs)

CYP450 inhibitor

83
Q

Aminoglutethimide

A

Corticosteroid receptor antagonist

84
Q

Metyrapone

A

Corticosteroid receptor antagonist

85
Q

Diethylstillbestrol

A

Estrogen

86
Q

Ethinyl estradiol

A

Estrogen

Contraceptive

87
Q

Conjugated estrogen

A

Estrogen

88
Q

Estrone

A

Estrogen

Dominant type after menopause

89
Q

Estriol

A

Estrogen

Dominant type during pregnancy

90
Q

Mestranol

A

Estrogen

Contraceptive

91
Q

Medoxyprogesterone

A

Progestin

Contraceptive

92
Q

Norgestrel

A

Progestin

Contraceptive

93
Q

Progesterone

A

Progestin

94
Q

Norethindrone

A

Progestin

Contraceptive

95
Q

Norgestimate

A

Progestin

Contraceptive

96
Q

Desogestrel

A

Progestin

Contraceptive

97
Q

Drospirenone

A

Progestin

Contraceptive

98
Q

Testosterone

A

Androgen

99
Q

Methyltestosterone

A

Androgen

100
Q

Danazol

A

Androgen

101
Q

Tamoxifen

A

Selective estrogen receptor modulator

Antagonist: breast tissue, CNS

Agonist: endometrium, bone, liver

AE: hot flashes, thromboembolism, endometrial hyperplasia ➡️ inc risk of endometrial CA

102
Q

Raloxifene

A

SERM

Antagonist: breast, CNS and endometrium

Agonist: bone, liver

103
Q

Clomiphene

A

SERM

Antagonist: ER in hypothalamus ➡️ inc gonadotropin release ➡️ induces ovulation (ie: treatment of anovulatory cycles in PCOS)

104
Q

Letrozole

A

Aromatase inhibitor (steroidal)

Competitive, reversible

105
Q

Anastrozole

A

Aromatase inhibitors (steroidal)

Competitive, reversible

106
Q

Exemestane

A

Aromatase inhibitors (non-steroidal)

Irreversible

107
Q

Flutamide

A

Androgen receptor antagonist

108
Q

Finasteride

A

5-alpha reductase inhibitor

Clinical use: BPH and male-pattern baldness

109
Q

Levonorgestrel

A

Progestin

Contraceptive

110
Q

Ulipristal

A

Antiprogestin

111
Q

Dinoprostone

A

PGE2

Cervical ripening, stimulate uterine contractions

Use: labor induction

Contractions —> obviates the need for oxytocin, hence is an oxytocic

112
Q

Misoprostol

A

PGE1

Can be used as an abortifacient ➡️ stimulates uterine contractions

Contractions —> obviates the need for oxytocin, hence is an oxytocic

113
Q

Methylergonovine

A

Ergot alkaloid

Acts in uterine smooth muscle ➡️ inc tone, rate and amplitude of rhythmic contractions

Used for controlling postpartum bleeding

114
Q

Indomethacin

A

NSAID

Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis ➡️ delays preterm labor

Aka a tocolytic (uterine relaxant)

115
Q

Magnesium sulfate

A

Primary tocolytic agent

Via inhibition of cellular APs = uncoupling of excitation- contraction in my one trial cells

116
Q

Nifedipine

A

Calcium channel blocker

Uses: tocolytic (⬇️ calcium entry into myometrium, ⬇️ MLCK = ⬇️ contractility), antihypertensive, angina

117
Q

Atosiban

A

Oxytocin analog

Competitive inhibitor at oxytocin receptors

Tocolytic

118
Q

Methotrexate

A

Folic acid antagonist

Used off label for early abortion

119
Q

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

A

Antithyroid

PTU for first trimester (more stringly protein-bound than methimazole, thus crosses placenta less readily)

120
Q

Levothyroxine

A

T4

121
Q

Triiodothyronine

A

T3

122
Q

Liotrix

A

Mixture of T4 & T3

123
Q

Methimazole

A

Antithyroid, thioamine

Preferred over PTU except for in first trimester and in thyroid storm

Also has less side effects, lower risk of serious liver injury, longer half life, long duration of action (admin once daily)

124
Q

Iodide

A

Antithyroid

Inhibit thyroid hormone release and inhibit organification of iodine (Wolff-Chaikoff effect)

Clinical use: thyroid storm sxs improvement

125
Q

Propranolol, Esmolol

A

Beta blockers used in the treatment of thyrotoxicosis and thyroid storm (thyroid hormones inc the expression of beta receptors)

Propranolol- inhibits conversion of T4 to T3

126
Q

Glucocorticoids

A

Used in thyroid storm as they inhibit peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

127
Q

Chlorpropamide

A

Sulfonylurea

Antidiabetic

128
Q

Glyburide

A

Sulfonylurea

Antidiabetic

129
Q

Glipizide

A

Sulfonylurea

Antidiabetic

130
Q

Glimepiride

A

Sulfonylurea

Antidiabetic

131
Q

Metformin

A

Biguanide

Antidiabetic

132
Q

Repaglinide

A

Meglitinide

Antidiabetic

133
Q

Nateglinide

A

Meglitinide

Antidiabetic

134
Q

Pioglitazone

A

Thiazolidinedione

Antidiabetic

135
Q

Rosiglitazone

A

Thiazolidinediones

136
Q

Acarbose

A

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor

137
Q

Exenatide

A

Incretin analog

Antidiabetic

138
Q

Teriparatide

A

PTH analog

139
Q

Cholecalciferol

A

Vitamin D

140
Q

Ergocalciferol

A

Vitamin D

141
Q

Calcitriol

A

Vitamin D

142
Q

Doxercalciferol

A

Vitamin D

143
Q

Paricalcol

A

Vitamin D

144
Q

Calcipotriol

A

Vitamin D

145
Q

Calcitonin

A

PTH Antagonist

146
Q

Calcium salts

A

PTH Antagonist

147
Q

Etidronate

A

Bisphosphonate - First generation

Not a preferred bisphosphonate for treatment

AE of bisphosphonates: ONJ (osteonecrosis of the jaw) (rare at therapeutic doses), subtrochanteric femur fracture (atypical fracture)(long term use = over suppression of bone)

148
Q

Alendronate

A

Bisphosphonate - 2nd generation

AE: erosive esophagitis

Other AE of bisphosphonates: ONJ (osteonecrosis of the jaw) (rare at therapeutic doses), subtrochanteric femur fracture (atypical fracture)(long term use = over suppression of bone)

149
Q

Pamidronate

A

Bisphosphonate-2nd generation

AE: flushing, N/V, flu-like sxs, joint pain and aches, abd pain and discomfort

Other AE of bisphosphonates: ONJ (osteonecrosis of the jaw) (rare at therapeutic doses), subtrochanteric femur fracture (atypical fracture)(long term use = over suppression of bone)

150
Q

Risedronate

A

Bisphosphonate -3rd generation

151
Q

Zoledronate

A

Bisphosphonate - 3rd generation

IV once yearly

Can cause severe hypocalcemia. Also associated with renal toxicity.

Other AE of bisphosphonates: ONJ (osteonecrosis of the jaw) (rare at therapeutic doses), subtrochanteric femur fracture (atypical fracture)(long term use = over suppression of bone)

152
Q

Cinacalcet

A

Calcium receptor agonist

Enhances sensitivity of the parathyroid calcium sensing receptor (CaSR) to extracellular calcium

Major AE: hypocalcemia

Contraindications: pts w/ seizure hx, as hypocalcemia lowers the seizure threshold

153
Q

Sevelamer

A

Phosphate binder

Sevelamer hydrochloride is associated w/ high rate of metabolic acidosis while sevelamer carbonate is not

154
Q

Denosumab

A

Monoclonal antibody RANKL inhibitor

Treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis:
RANKL antagonism inhibits osteoclast formation and activity to suppress bone resorption

155
Q

Fluoride

A

Enhances osteoblastic activity and increase bone volume

Optimal benefits obtained before the eruption and formation and permanent teeth

Toothpaste: sodium fluoride and stannous fluoride

156
Q

Spironolactone

A

Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (use: primary hyperaldosteronism, diuretic in CHF)

+

Androgen receptor antagonist (hirsutism)

157
Q

Ketoconazole

A

Corticosteroid synthesis inhibitor

Inhibits Desmolase which fxs to concert cholesterol to androgens in theca interns cells