drishti Flashcards
1
Q
- Who conducted the first Linguistic Survey of India (LSI), and when was it published?
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Answer: The first Linguistic Survey of India (LSI) was conducted by Sir George Abraham Grierson and published in 1928.
2
Q
- When was the ASHA program launched, and under which mission?
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Answer: The ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) program was launched in 2005-06 under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM).
3
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Answer: The 1961 Census of India recorded 1,554 languages spoken in the country.
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Answer: The 1961 Census of India recorded 1,554 languages spoken in the country.
4
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- How many languages were recorded in the 1961 Census of India?
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Answer: The 1961 Census of India recorded 1,554 languages spoken in the country.
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A
6
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- How many languages does India officially recognize, and where are they listed?
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Answer: India officially recognizes 22 languages, which are listed in Schedule 8 of the Indian Constitution.
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6
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- What does the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution list?
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Answer: The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages of India.
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7
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- What percentage of India’s population speaks one of the officially recognized languages according to the 2011 Census?
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Answer: According to the 2011 Census, 97% of India’s population speaks one of the officially recognized languages.
8
Q
- How many languages are currently recognized as official in the Eighth Schedule?
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Answer: There are 22 languages recognized as official in the Eighth Schedule.
8
Q
- Which six languages are recognized as classical languages in India?
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Answer: The six classical languages are Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).
9
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- Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with official languages?
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Answer: Part XVII of the Indian Constitution deals with official languages, from Articles 343 to 351.
9
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Answer: Article 120 specifies the language to be used in Parliament.
9
Q
- What does Article 210 of the Indian Constitution specify?
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Answer: Article 210 specifies the language to be used in the State Legislature, similar to Article 120.
10
Q
- What does Article 343 declare?
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Answer: Article 343 declares Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union.
11
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- What is established under Article 344?
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Answer: Article 344 establishes a Commission and Committee of Parliament on the official language.
11
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- What does Article 345 allow states to do?
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Answer: Article 345 allows the state legislature to adopt any official language for the state.
11
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- What does Article 346 specify?
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Answer: Article 346 specifies the official language for communication between states and between states and the Union.
12
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- What is the significance of Article 347?
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Answer: Article 347 allows the President to recognize any language spoken by a section of the population of a state if demanded.
12
Q
- Which article protects the interests of minorities regarding language?
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Answer: Article 29 protects the interests of minorities by giving them the right to preserve their distinct language, script, or culture.
12
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- What does Article 350A direct the states to do?
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Answer: Article 350A directs states to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.
12
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- What does Article 350 ensure?
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Answer: Article 350 ensures that every person has the right to submit a representation for redressal of any grievance in any language used in the Union or the State.
12
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- What is established under Article 350B?
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Answer: Article 350B establishes a Special Officer for linguistic minorities, appointed by the President, to investigate matters relating to safeguards for linguistic minorities under the Constitution.
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5. Which authority collects Aadhaar data, and when was it established as a statutory authority?
Answer: The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) collects Aadhaar data, and it was established as a statutory authority in January 2016.
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6. When did the UIDAI begin functioning, and under which office?
Answer: The UIDAI began functioning on January 28, 2009, as an attached office of the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog).
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10. What is NPCI, and when was it founded?
Answer: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is a public sector company that operates retail payments and settlement systems in India. It was founded on December 19, 2008.
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11. Under which provisions was NPCI created, and what is its objective?
Answer: NPCI was created under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, as an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) to create a robust payment and settlement infrastructure in India.
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12. Who were the key people involved in NPCI as of 2024?
Answer: Ajay Kumar Chaudhary is the Non-Executive Chairman, and Dilip Asbe is the Managing Director & CEO of NPCI.
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13. Who was the first person to receive an Aadhaar card, and when?
Answer: Ranjana Sonawane was the first person to receive an Aadhaar card on September 29, 2010, at the launch of the program by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and Sonia Gandhi.
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4. How many clans does the Maratha caste comprise?
Answer: The Maratha caste is composed of 96 clans.
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5. Which commission provided the report that formed the basis of the 10% reservation for the Maratha community?
Answer: The report was provided by the Maharashtra State Backward Class Commission (MSBCC), led by Justice (retired) Sunil B Shukre.
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2. Which article allows states to prepare a list of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs) distinct from the Central List?
Answer: Article 342A(3) allows states or union territories to prepare and maintain a list of SEBCs, which can differ from the Central List.
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3. What does Article 15(4) of the Indian Constitution empower the state to do?
Answer: Article 15(4) empowers the state to make special provisions for the advancement of SEBCs, as well as Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
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4. What does Article 15(5) enable the state to do concerning educational institutions?
Answer: Article 15(5) enables the state to provide reservations for SEBCs, SCs, and STs in admissions to educational institutions, except minority institutions.
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5. How does Article 16(4) relate to state appointments or posts?
Answer: Article 16(4) authorizes the state to reserve appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens that, in the state's opinion, is inadequately represented in state services.
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1. What did the x Committee recommend in 2014 for the Maratha community?
Answer: The Narayan Rane-led committee recommended 16% reservation for the Maratha community ahead of the 2014 elections.
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3. What is the Gaikwad Commission, and what did it recommend in 2018?
Answer: The Gaikwad Commission was tasked with studying the Maratha community, and in 2018, it recommended 16% reservation for Marathas under the Socially and Educationally Backward Class (SEBC) Act.
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Answer: The Shukre Commission found that Marathas constitute x% of Maharashtra's population, and y% of them are not advanced. The commission noted that such a large backward community cannot be included in the Other Backward Classes (OBC) category.
x= 28% y=84%
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2. When did the Election Commission start using EVMs extensively?
Answer: Since 1998, the Election Commission began replacing ballot boxes with EVMs, and in 2003, all state elections and by-elections were held using EVMs.
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Answer: An EVM is a device used to record votes electronically. They were first used in the x Assembly Constituency in Kerala in y.
Answer: An EVM is a device used to record votes electronically. They were first used in the Paravur Assembly Constituency in Kerala in 1982.
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3. When were EVMs first used exclusively for Lok Sabha elections?
Answer: EVMs were used exclusively for the first time in the 2004 Lok Sabha elections.
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7. What is the maximum number of votes that an EVM can record?
Answer: An EVM can record a maximum of 2,000 votes.
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2. When and where was VVPAT first introduced?
Answer: VVPAT was first introduced in the bye-election of the Noksen Assembly Constituency in Nagaland in 2013.
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3. In which major election were VVPATs used in all constituencies for the first time?
Answer: VVPATs were used in all constituencies for the first time during the 2019 Lok Sabha elections.
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7. What model of EVM and VVPAT is currently used by the Election Commission of India (ECI)?
Answer: The ECI currently uses the M3 Model of EVMs and VVPAT.
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Answer: Article 142 is supported by Article x (right to constitutional remedies), Article x (mandating that all courts must abide by the Supreme Court’s decisions), and Article x (allowing for Special Leave Petition).
Answer: Article 142 is supported by Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies), Article 141 (mandating that all courts must abide by the Supreme Court’s decisions), and Article 136 (allowing for Special Leave Petition).
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Answer: On June 17, x , the President promulgated the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Ordinance to prevent unlawful activities of individuals and associations. However, it sparked uproar in Parliament and was subsequently retracted.
Answer: On June 17, 1966, the President promulgated the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Ordinance to prevent unlawful activities of individuals and associations. However, it sparked uproar in Parliament and was subsequently retracted.
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2. When was the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) enacted?
Answer: The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) was enacted in 1967 after the ordinance was retracted.
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Answer: The UAPA has undergone amendments in x, x, x, and x, expanding provisions related to terrorist financing, cyberterrorism, individual designation, and property seizure.
Answer: The UAPA has undergone amendments in 2004, 2008, 2012, and 2019, expanding provisions related to terrorist financing, cyberterrorism, individual designation, and property seizure.
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1. What significant provision was introduced in the UAPA Amendment Act of 2008?
Answer: The UAPA Amendment Act of 2008 introduced Section 43D (5), which requires a court to deny bail if there are reasonable grounds to believe that the case against the accused is prima facie true.
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1. What is Green Hydrogen?
Answer: Green Hydrogen is hydrogen produced through the process of electrolysis, where water is split into hydrogen and oxygen using electricity generated from renewable sources, such as wind or solar power.
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This process separates water into elemental hydrogen (H₂) and oxygen (O₂). The electricity used must come from renewable sources for the hydrogen to be classified as "green."
electrolysis
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2. What is Grey Hydrogen?
Answer: The most common type of hydrogen, produced by steam methane reforming (SMR) using natural gas or fossil fuels, resulting in high carbon dioxide emissions.
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3. What is Blue Hydrogen?
Answer: Hydrogen similar to grey hydrogen, but it employs carbon capture, utilization, and storage (CCS or CCUS) to trap greenhouse gas emissions.
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4. What is Brown Hydrogen?
Answer: Hydrogen derived from fossil fuels like coal and oil without carbon capture, making it the least environmentally friendly type of hydrogen.
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5. What is Turquoise Hydrogen?
Answer: A new type of hydrogen produced in a lab through methane pyrolysis, yielding hydrogen and solid carbon as end products.
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6. What is Pink Hydrogen?
Answer: Hydrogen generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy, also known as purple or red hydrogen.
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7. What is White Hydrogen?
Answer: Naturally occurring hydrogen found in geological formations such as continental and oceanic crust layers, volcanic gases, geysers, and hydrothermal systems.
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8. What is Yellow Hydrogen?
Answer: An emerging form of hydrogen production created through solar power electrolysis.
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2. Which laws were declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court?
Answer: The Supreme Court declared the amendments to the Finance Act, 2017, the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the Income Tax Act, 1961, and the Companies Act, 2013 as unconstitutional.
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3. What requirements were political parties subject to before the amendments?
Answer: Political parties were required to declare contributions above Rs 20,000 and faced a cap on corporate donations prior to the amendments.
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5. What was Section 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951?
Answer: Section 29C mandated political parties to disclose donations exceeding Rs 20,000, balancing donor privacy with the right to information.
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6. What did the Finance Act, 2017, change regarding political donations?
Answer: The Finance Act, 2017, introduced an exception that exempted donations made via Electoral Bonds from disclosure requirements.
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8. What was Section 182 of the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer: Section 182 restricted corporate donations, imposing a cap of 7.5% of average profits from the preceding three fiscal years, along with disclosure requirements.
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9. What amendment did the Finance Act, 2017, make to the Companies Act?
Answer: The Finance Act, 2017, removed the cap and disclosure obligations for corporate donations.
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11. What was Section 13A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961?
Answer: Section 13A(b) mandated the maintenance of records for contributions exceeding Rs 20,000.
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1. What is the purpose of the proportionality test?
Answer: The proportionality test examines whether state action violates individual fundamental rights, specifically the right to information of voters and the transparency of the electoral process.
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7. In which landmark ruling did the proportionality test gain prominence?
Answer: The proportionality test gained prominence in the K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India ruling in 2017, which affirmed privacy as a fundamental right.
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3. What is the eligibility criterion for political parties to receive electoral bonds?
Answer: Political parties must be registered under Section 29A of the RPA, 1951, and secure at least 1% of votes in the last Lok Sabha or state assembly elections.
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5. Which acts were amended to enable the EBS?
Answer: The Finance Act of 2017, Representation of the People Act of 1951, Income Tax Act of 1961, and Companies Act of 2013.
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Endorsed state funding of elections to create a fair playing field for parties with fewer financial resources.
Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998)
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4. What are the entry routes for FDI in space activities under the amended policy?
Up to 74% under Automatic Route: Satellites manufacturing & operation, satellite data products, ground segment & user segment.
Beyond 74%: Government route applies.
Up to 49% under Automatic Route: Launch vehicles, associated systems or subsystems, creation of spaceports.
Beyond 49%: Government route applies.
Up to 100% under Automatic Route: Manufacturing components and systems/subsystems for satellites, ground segment, and user segment.
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5. How much FDI is allowed for satellite manufacturing and operation?
Answer: Up to 74% under the Automatic Route.
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6. What is the FDI limit for launch vehicles and their associated systems?
Answer: Up to 49% under the Automatic Route.
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8. What components can attract 100% FDI under the amended policy?
Answer: Manufacturing of components and systems/subsystems for satellites, ground segment, and user segment.
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1. What percentage of the global space economy does India currently constitute?
Answer: India constitutes 2-3% of the global space economy.
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2. What is India's expected share of the global space economy by 2030?
Answer: More than 10%.
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3. How does India's share compare to that of the US and UK in the global space economy?
Answer: The US has 40%, and the UK has 7%.
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ISRO is the x largest space agencies in the world?
6th
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11. How many space start-ups were there in India in 2023?
Answer: 189 space start-ups.
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4. What are the forms of FDI investment in India?
Answer:
Investment in an unlisted Indian company.
Investment of 10% or more of the post-issue paid-up equity capital of a listed Indian company.
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What is the definition of FDI by x Committee?
Arvind Mayaram, 2014
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3. What is India's target for non-fossil fuels-based electric generation capacity by 2030?
Answer: To increase it to 50% from the current 42%.
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12. What is the target for green hydrogen production in India by 2030?
Answer: To produce 5 million tonnes of green hydrogen.
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1. What is the current total installed power capacity in India?
AnswerAnswer: 428 GW.
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2. What is India's target for total installed power capacity by 2030?
Answer: 810 GW.
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3. What percentage does nuclear power contribute to India's energy mix?
Answer: Approximately 3%.
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4. How many nuclear power reactors are currently operational in India?
Answer: 22 nuclear power reactors.
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5. What is the total capacity of India's operational nuclear power reactors?
Answer: 6.8 GW.
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6. How much additional capacity is expected from the 11 nuclear power plants under construction?
Answer: 8,700 MW.
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1. What is India's rank in the production of fruits and vegetables?
Answer: 2nd largest producer.
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2. What percentage does the horticulture sector contribute to India's agriculture Gross Value Added (GVA)?
Answer: About 33%.
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12. What is India's rank in the global export of vegetables?
Answer: 14th.
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13. What is India's rank in the global export of fruits?
Answer: 23rd.
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14. What is India's share in the global horticultural market?
Answer: About 1%.
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2. How many islands comprise Lakshadweep?
Answer: 36 islands.
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3. What is the total area of Lakshadweep?
Answer: 32 sq km.
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5. How many atolls are in Lakshadweep?
Answer: 12 atolls.
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6. How many inhabited islands are there in Lakshadweep?
Answer: 10 inhabited islands.
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8. In which sea are the Lakshadweep islands located?
Answer: Arabian Sea.
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10. What are the three main groups of islands in Lakshadweep?
Answer: Amindivi Islands, Laccadive Islands, and Minicoy Island.
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11. What is the southernmost island of Lakshadweep?
Answer: Minicoy Island.
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15. Which two beaches in Lakshadweep received the Blue Flag Certification?
Answer: Minicoy Thundi Beach and Kadmat Beach.
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19. How many submerged banks are there in Lakshadweep?
Answer: Three submerged banks.
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18. Which group of islands is the northernmost in Lakshadweep?
Answer: Amindivi Islands.
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16. What type of reefs surround the Lakshadweep islands?
Answer: Fringing reefs.
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12. What type of islands are all the Lakshadweep islands?
Answer: Coral origin (Atoll).
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16. What are the x thematic pillars for discussions at the Raisina Dialogue 2024?
What are the six thematic pillars for discussions at the Raisina Dialogue 2024?
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3. What does "Xiaokang" mean?
3. What does "Xiaokang" mean?
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6. How many Xiaokang villages has China constructed along the Indian border?
Answer: 628 villages.
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9. What is the Vibrant Villages Program?
Answer: An initiative to modernize 663 border villages, including 17 along the China-India border.
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10. What areas are included in the Vibrant Villages Program?
Answer: Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh.
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12. What is the total worth of projects completed by BRO?
Answer: Rs 2,941 crore.
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20. What are the three sectors of the LAC?
Answer:
Eastern sector: Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim
Middle sector: Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh
Western sector: Ladakh.
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18. What is the length of the LAC as asserted by India?
Answer: 3,488 km.
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19. How long does China contend the LAC to be?
Answer: Approximately 2,000 km.
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2. What line does the LAC in the eastern sector follow?
Answer: The 1914 McMahon Line, with minor disputes about ground positions.
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