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SBO5 > Doug's MCQ > Flashcards

Doug's MCQ Flashcards

All class and practice mcq

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is derived from the intermediate mesoderm?
    a) Epithelial lining of the mouth
    b) Kidney
    c) Parietal peritoneum
    d) Epithelial lining of the intestines
A

b) Kidney

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2
Q
  1. In embryological development, the intermediate mesoderm gives rise to the:
    a) Gonads
    b) Adrenal gland
    c) Parenchyme of the liver
    d) Spleen
A

a) Gonads

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3
Q
  1. Insulin is a hormone that promotes
    a) Gluconeogenesis
    b) Glycogen breakdown
    c) Glucagon release
    d) glycolisis
A

d) glycolisis

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4
Q
  1. Where does lymph from the thoracic duct drain into the venous system?
    a) Into the cisterna chyli, before entering the common iliac veins
    b) At the junction of the subclavian and internal jugular veins
    c) Into the portal vein before it enters the portal fissure
    d) Into the azygous vein, before entering the superior vena cava
A

b) At the junction of the subclavian and internal jugular veins

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5
Q
  1. A substance that is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tube is ?
    a) Water
    b) Sodium
    c) Calcium
    d) urea
A

b) Sodium

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6
Q
  1. In addition to the release of antidiuretic hormone, the posterior pituitary is responsible for the release of:
    a) Vasopressin
    b) Prolactin
    c) Oxytocin
    d) Pituitary hormone
A

c) Oxytocin

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7
Q
  1. The primary target for the hormone glucagon is:
    a) Adipose tissue
    b) The liver
    c) The pancreas
    d) Skeletal muscle
A

b) The liver

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following STI attacks cells bearing the CD4 glycoprotein
    a) Herpes simplex virus
    b) Human papilloma virus
    c) Human immunodeficiency virus
    d) Hepatitis C virus
A

c) Human immunodeficiency virus

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9
Q
  1. Which enzyme catalyses the conversion of testosterone dihydrotestosterone
    a) Finasteride
    b) Aromatase
    c) 5 alpha reductase
    d) Tamsulosin
A

c) 5 alpha reductase

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10
Q
  1. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is defined as the volume of:
    a) Filtrate produced by the kidneys per minute
    b) Filtrate produced by the kidneys per hour
    c) Urine produced by the kidneys per minute
    d) Urine produced by the kidneys per hour
A

a) Filtrate produced by the kidneys per minute

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11
Q
  1. The pathogen responsible for genital warts:
    a) May be carried without the production of symptoms
    b) Is usually Herpes Simplex Virus (Type 1) but is occasionally Herpes Simplex (Type 2)
    c) Can be removed through regular Pap smears
    d) May infect the dorsal root ganglion and cause dermatomal pain (shingles)
A

a) May be carried without the production of symptoms

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12
Q
  1. A serious complication of inflammatory bowel disease is the development of a dilated, atonic section of bowel called:
    a) Cathartic colon – too many laxative
    b) Toxic megacolon
    c) Diverticulosis –
    d) Bowel perforation - herniation
A

b) Toxic megacolon

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following lymphatic trunks is unpaired?
    a) Jugular
    b) Intestinal
    c) Lumbar
    d) Bronchomediastinal
A

b) Intestinal

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14
Q
  1. The target cells for antidiuretic hormone are which region of the nephron
    a) Proximal convoluted tubule
    b) Descending limb of the nephron loop
    c) Ascending limb of the nephron loop
    d) Distal convoluted tubule
A

d) Distal convoluted tubule

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15
Q
  1. The parietal cells of the gastric glands secrete hydrochloric acid and:
    a) Gastrin
    b) Histamine
    c) Acetylcholine
    d) Intrinsic Factor
A

d) Intrinsic Factor

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16
Q
  1. How does Prostaglandin E2 exert a paracrine function in the kidney?
    a) It induces vasodilation of afferent arterioles
    b) It prevents glomerulosclerosis by limiting GFR
    c) It increases the permeability of tubular cells to sodium
    d) It increases the permeability of tubular cells to water
A

a) It induces vasodilation of afferent arterioles

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17
Q
  1. Physiologically, menopause is the result of:
    a) Atrophy of the germinal epithelium of the ovary
    b) Atrophy and hyposecretion from the zona glomerulosa
    c) A deficiency of follicle stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone
    d) A reduced number of primary follicles
A

d) A reduced number of primary follicles

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18
Q
  1. Which hormone converts a ruptured ovarian follicle to the corpus luteum?
    a) Follicle stimulating hormone
    b) Luteinising hormone
    c) Oestradiol
    d) Progesterone
A

b) Luteinising hormone

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered a first-line intervention for constipation?
    a) Stool softeners
    b) Bowel stimulants
    c) Gentle exercise
    d) Moderate red wine consumption
A

c) Gentle exercise

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20
Q
  1. Impaction of a gallstone in the bile duct is referred to as:
    a) Cholecystitis
    b) Cholangitis
    c) Choledocholithiasis
    d) Empyema
A

c) Choledocholithiasis

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21
Q
  1. Insulin acts on target cells by:
    a) Binding to a cytosolic receptor
    b) Binding to an intranuclear receptor
    c) Activating tyrosine kinase
    d) Activating cyclic AMP
A

c) Activating tyrosine kinase

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22
Q
  1. The sensory supply to the scrotum is mediated by nerves from the:
    a) Lumbar plexus only
    b) Sacral plexus only
    c) Lumbosacral plexus
    d) Sacral plexus and coccygeal plexus
A

c) Lumbosacral plexus

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23
Q
  1. When it is present and patent, the accessory pancreatic duct drains the:
    a) Head of the pancreas
    b) Neck and body of the pancreas
    c) Body and tail of the pancreas
    d) Tail of the pancreas
A

a) Head of the pancreas

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24
Q
  1. Prostatic interstitial cells:
    a) Possess alpha-1 adrenergic receptors
    b) Regulate the tone of prostatic smooth muscle
    c) Secrete seminal fluid to nourish sperm cells
    d) Secrete androgen binding protein
A

b) Regulate the tone of prostatic smooth muscle

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following clinical features is consistent with hyperparathyroidism?
    a) Bone pain
    b) Bradycardia
    c) Hyperreflexia
    d) Hypotension
A

a) Bone pain

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26
Q
  1. The organism responsible for cervical cancer is?
    a) Herpes simplex virus
    b) Human papilloma virus
    c) Human immunodeficiency virus
    d) Epstein barr virus
A

b) Human papilloma virus

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27
Q
  1. In Australia, cholelithiasis is most commonly associated with:
    a) Calcium oxalate stones
    b) Uric acid stones
    c) Pigment stones
    d) Cholesterol stones
A

d) Cholesterol stones

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28
Q
  1. Lower urinary tract infections are most commonly caused by which organism?
    a) Staphylococcus aureus
    b) E. Coli
    c) Chlamydia trachomatis
    d) Human papilloma virus
A

b) E. Coli

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29
Q
  1. In male embryological development, the outpouching of peritoneum that precedes testicular descent is referred to as the:
    a) Tunica vaginalis
    b) Gubernaculum
    c) Tunica albuginea
    d) Vaginal process
A

d) Vaginal process

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30
Q
  1. The portal vein is formed through the union of the:
    a) Superior mesenteric vein and inferior mesenteric vein
    b) Superior mesenteric vein and splenic vein
    c) Splenic vein and hepatic vein
    d) Hepatic vein and gastric vein
A

b) Superior mesenteric vein and splenic vein

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31
Q
  1. Uterine glands are located in which aspect of the uterus?
    a) The endometrium
    b) The endometrium and myometrium
    c) The myometrium
    d) The perimetrium
A

a) The endometrium

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32
Q
  1. A uterine fibroid may also be referred to as:
    a) A uterine sarcoma
    b) A uterine leiomyoma
    c) A low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion – cervical cancer
    d) A uterine adenocarcinoma
A

b) A uterine leiomyoma

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for polycystic ovarian syndrome?
    a) Menstrual irregularity
    b) Laparoscopic evidence of endometrial deposits
    c) Clinical hyperoestrogenism
    d) Clinical hypoandrogenism
A

a) Menstrual irregularity

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34
Q
  1. A varicocele is a varicosity of the:
    a) Oesophageal veins
    b) Anorectal veins
    c) Pampiniform plexus
    d) Prostatic veins
A

c) Pampiniform plexus

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35
Q
  1. In embryological development, the cloaca is closely related to the:
    a) Foregut
    b) Midgut
    c) Hindgut
    d) Neural tube
A

c) Hindgut

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36
Q
  1. The Rete Testis:
    a) Carries sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the efferent ducts of the epididymis
    b) Carries sperm from the efferent ducts of the epididymis to the seminiferous tubules
    c) Carries sperm from the efferent ducts of the epididymis to the vas deferens
    d) Unites with the vas deferens to form the ejaculatory duct
A

a) Carries sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the efferent ducts of the epididymis

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following nervous structures are responsible for increasing gastric secretion?
    a) Fibres of the Vagus Nerve
    b) Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves (T5-T9)
    c) Pelvic splanchnic nerves
    d) Thoracoabdominal nerves (55th to 9th)
A

a) Fibres of the Vagus Nerve

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38
Q
  1. Phaeochromocytoma is a tumour affecting the:
    a) Zona glomerulosa
    b) Adrenal medulla
    c) Zona reticularis
    d) Zona fasiculata
A

b) Adrenal medulla

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39
Q
  1. At the hilum of the kidney, the order of structures from anterior to posterior is:
    a) Renal vein, renal artery, nerves & lymphatics, renal pelvis
    b) Renal artery, renal vein, renal pelvis, nerves & lymphatics
    c) Renal pelvis, renal artery, nerves & lymphatics, renal vein
    d) Renal vein, nerves & lymphatics, renal pelvis, renal artery
A

a) Renal vein, renal artery, nerves & lymphatics, renal pelvis

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40
Q
  1. Androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) are produced in the:
    a) Zona glomerulosa
    b) Adrenal medulla
    c) Zona reticularis
    d) Zona fasiculata
A

c) Zona reticularis

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following hormones acts on target cells by using a second messenger system?
    a) Thyroxine
    b) Cortisol
    c) Aldosterone
    d) Thyroid stimulating hormone
A

c) Aldosterone

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42
Q
  1. In which region of the nephron do cells possess microvilli and abundant mitochondria
    a) Proximal convoluted tubule
    b) Descending limb of the nephron loop
    c) Ascending limb of the nephron loop
    d) Distal convoluted tubule
A

a) Proximal convoluted tubule

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43
Q
  1. What condition is characterised by the uncontrolled proliferation of immunoglobulin-secreting cells?
    a) Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia – immature cells of lymphoid lineage in circulation
    b) Multiple myeloma
    c) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
    d) Chronic lymphoid leukaemia -
A

b) Multiple myeloma

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44
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions would most likely be associated with tenderness at McBurney’s Point?
    a) Cholecystitis
    b) Appendicitis
    c) Acute cystitis
    d) Acute proctitis
A

b) Appendicitis

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45
Q
  1. The broad ligament is continuous laterally with the:
    a) Round ligament
    b) Suspensory ligament
    c) Ovarian ligament
    d) Lateral cervical ligament
A

b) Suspensory ligament

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46
Q
  1. The myenteric nerve plexus is located in which aspect of the GIT wall?
    a) Between the mucosa and submucosa
    b) Within the submucosa
    c) Between the layers of the muscularis externa
    d) Between the muscularis externa and the serosa
A

c) Between the layers of the muscularis externa

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47
Q
  1. In the condition Barrett’s Mucosa, the normal lining of the:
    a) Oesophagus is replaced by stratified squamous epithelium
    b) Oesophagus is replaced by simple columnar epithelium
    c) Duodenum is replaced by stratified squamous epithelium
    d) Duodenum is replaced by simple columnar epithelium
A

b) Oesophagus is replaced by simple columnar epithelium

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48
Q
  1. Glandular fever:
    a) Is the most common malignancy in young adults
    b) Is a common complication of influenza
    c) Usually begins as a generalised lymphadenopathy
    d) Is associated with a long incubation period
A

d) Is associated with a long incubation period

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49
Q
  1. The cremaster muscle plays a significant role in:
    a) Urinary continence
    b) Erection
    c) Thermoregulation
    d) Ejaculation
A

c) Thermoregulation

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50
Q
  1. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma is a malignancy of white blood cells characterised by:
    a) Discrete tumour masses featuring the Reed- Sternberg cell
    b) Formation of aberrant antibodies and plasmacytomas
    c) Cancerous blast cells in the circulation
    d) Discrete tumour with aberrant natural killer cells
A

a) Discrete tumour masses featuring the Reed- Sternberg cell

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51
Q
  1. Endometriosis is a condition:
    a) Characterised by inflammation of the innermost layer of the uterine wall
    b) That can cause reduced fertility, but is otherwise non-painful
    c) That can be managed by using the combined oral contraceptive pill
    d) Preceded by approximately 5 years of increasingly anovulatory cycles (referred to as the climacteric)
A

c) That can be managed by using the combined oral contraceptive pill

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52
Q
  1. The first line intervention for Type 1 diabetes is:
    a) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
    b) Metformin
    c) Sulphonylureas
    d) Insulin
A

d) Insulin

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53
Q
  1. In menopausal women, hormone replacement therapy:
    a) Reduces the risk for breast cancer
    b) May reduce the risk for osteoporotic fracture
    c) Is recommended for the prevention of cognitive decline
    d) Reduces the risk for thromboembolic disease
A

b) May reduce the risk for osteoporotic fracture

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54
Q
  1. In cases of pituitary gland hypersecretion, the hormones most commonly produced in excess are prolactin and:
    a) Oxytocin
    b) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
    c) Antidiuretic hormone
    d) Growth hormone
A

d) Growth hormone

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55
Q
  1. Bacille Camette Guerin is used in the pharmacological management of:
    a) Kidney cancer
    b) Vulval or penile cancer
    c) Cervical cancer
    d) Bladder cancer
A

d) Bladder cancer

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56
Q
  1. The left renal vein receives blood from the:
    a) Left adrenal vein
    b) Left internal iliac vein
    c) Left gastric vein
    d) Prostatic venous plexus
A

a) Left adrenal vein

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57
Q
  1. Which of the following situations would lead to the secretion of parathyroid hormone?
    a) Thyroid carcinoma
    b) Hypocalcaemia
    c) Inadequate dietary intake of iodine
    d) Increased osteoclastic activity
A

b) Hypocalcaemia

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58
Q
  1. Which of the following situations would open the external urethral sphincter?
    a) Outflow via the pelvic splanchnic nerves
    b) Outflow via the abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves
    c) Inhibition of the pelvic splanchnic nerves
    d) Inhibition of the pudendal nerve
A

d) Inhibition of the pudendal nerve

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59
Q
  1. The primary stimulus for the release of mineralocorticoids is?
    a) Decrease renal perfusion
    b) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
    c) Elevated systolic blood pressure
    d) Long term stressors
A

a) Decrease renal perfusion

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60
Q
  1. The pathogen responsible for glandular fever is
    a) Huma immunodeficiency virus
    b) Epsian Barr virus
    c) Cytomegalovirus
    d) Herpes simplex virus
A

b) Epsian Barr virus

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61
Q
  1. The enzymes of the brush border are involved in the:
    a) Activation of pancreatic proteases
    b) Breakdown of polysaccharides to disaccharides
    c) Conversion of pepsinogen to pepsin
    d) Conjugation of bilirubin with glucouronic acid
A

a) Activation of pancreatic proteases

62
Q
  1. Which of the following situations would result in contraction of the spleen? Nervous outflow via the:
    a) Vagus nerve
    b) Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves (T6-10)
    c) Thoracoabdominal nerves (T6-10)
    d) Pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-4)
A

b) Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves (T6-10)

63
Q
  1. The average age for the onset of menopause is:
    a) 40-41 years
    b) 44-45 years
    c) 50-51 years
    d) 54-55 years
A

c) 50-51 years

64
Q
  1. Which of the following cells functions as a mechanoreceptor?
    a) Extraglomerular mesangial cell
    b) Macular densa cell
    c) Juxtaglomerular cell
    d) Glomerular podocyte
A

c) Juxtaglomerular cell

65
Q
  1. Graves Disease is associated with the production of antibodies that target
    a) TSH receptors
    b) Thyroglobulin
    c) Thyroid stimulating hormone
    d) Thyroid peroxidase
A

a) TSH receptors

66
Q
  1. Which of the following situations would cause the smooth muscle of the prostate gland to contract?
    a) Sympathetic outflow (T12-L2)
    b) Parasympathetic outflow (S2-4)
    c) Parasympathetic outflow (CNX)
    d) Outflow via the pudendal nerve (S2-4)
A

a) Sympathetic outflow (T12-L2)

67
Q
  1. The distal attachments of the external oblique muscle include the linea alba, iliac crest and:
    a) Pectineal line
    b) Thoracolumbar fascia
    c) Pubic tubercle
    d) Ribs 5-12
A

c) Pubic tubercle

68
Q
  1. Neonatal jaundice is an example of:
    a) Haemolytic jaundice
    b) Hepatic jaundice
    c) Intrahepatic cholestatic jaundice
    d) Extrahepatic cholestatic jaundice
A

b) Hepatic jaundice

69
Q
  1. Where do the secretions of the liver and gall bladder enter the duodenum?
    a) Descending part
    b) Ascending part
    c) Superior part
    d) Horizontal part
A

a) Descending part

70
Q
  1. Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome is a condition:
    a) Triggered by the inappropriate secretion of oestrogens
    b) Thought to be caused by retrograde menstrual flow
    c) That can be managed by using the combined oral contraceptive pill
    d) That is diagnosed in a process of exclusion
A

c) That can be managed by using the combined oral contraceptive pill

71
Q
  1. Which hormone binds to receptors within the cytosol of its target cell?
    a) Adrenaline
    b) Antidiuretic hormone
    c) Cortisol
    d) Prolactin
A

c) Cortisol

72
Q
  1. At the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, aldosterone drives the secretion of:
    a) Water
    b) Sodium
    c) Urea
    d) Potassium
A

d) Potassium

73
Q
  1. The crypts of the large intestine features large numbers of:
    a) Goblet cells
    b) Parietal cells
    c) Enteroendocrine cells
    d) Chief cells
A

a) Goblet cells

74
Q
  1. Another name for the cardiac sphincter is the:
    a) Pyloric sphincter
    b) Lower oesophageal sphincter
    c) Hepatopancreatic sphincter
    d) Ileocaecal sphincter
A

b) Lower oesophageal sphincter

75
Q
  1. Hyperinsulinaemia can exacerbate polycystic ovarian syndrome because it:
    a) Promotes ovarian androgen production
    b) Induces hyperplasia of the germinal epithelium
    c) Increases the number of primordial follicles
    d) Induces inflammation of the ovary
A

a) Promotes ovarian androgen production

76
Q
  1. A patient suffering from gout has a higher risk of developing what type of kidney stone?
    a) Uric acid stone
    b) Cholesterol stone
    c) Calcium oxalate stone
    d) Struvite stone
A

a) Uric acid stone

77
Q
  1. The arrest of a testis in its path of descent is referred to as:
    a) Cremasteric spasm
    b) Cryptorchidism
    c) Orchiopexy
    d) Epididymoorchitis
A

b) Cryptorchidism

78
Q
  1. CNX provides parasympathetic nerve supply to the GIT down to the:
    a) Splenic flexure
    b) Hepatic flexure
    c) Duodenojejunal flexure
    d) Ileocecal junction
A

a) Splenic flexure

79
Q
  1. In the menstrual cycle, spasm of the spiral arteries is the result of a decline in:
    a) Progesterone
    b) Oestradiol
    c) Luteinising hormone
    d) Follicle stimulating hormone
A

a) Progesterone

80
Q
  1. The metabolic functions of the kidney include:
    a) Regulation of blood pressure and blood glucose
    b) Synthesis and release of aldosterone
    c) Acting as a site for erythrocyte and leucocyte production
    d) Deactivation and excretion of Vitamin D
A

a) Regulation of blood pressure and blood glucose

81
Q
  1. Gonorrhoeal infection:
    a) Is characterised by the development of a chancre - most commonly on the penis, vagina or anus
    b) Is associated with an increased risk for malignancy if contracted during puberty
    c) Is viral in origin and, thus, should not be treated by antibiotics
    d) Has the potential to cause oligoarthritis and enthesopathy
A

d) Has the potential to cause oligoarthritis and enthesopathy

82
Q
  1. A manifestation of diabetic autonomic neuropathy is:
    a) Limb girdle amyotrophy
    b) Deviation of gaze
    c) Glove-and-stocking sensory loss
    d) Postural hypotension
A

d) Postural hypotension

83
Q
  1. Autoimmune gastritis can lead to:
    a) Vitamin D deficiency
    b) Vitamin B12 deficiency
    c) Vitamin K deficiency
    d) Vitamin C deficiency
A

b) Vitamin B12 deficiency

84
Q
  1. From the embryological perspective, the kidney is derived from the?
    a) Somite
    b) Intermediate mesoderm
    c) Somatic mesoderm
    d) Splanchnic mesoderm
A

b) Intermediate mesoderm

85
Q
  1. Another name for the Pouch of Douglas is the:
    a) Hepatorenal recess
    b) Vesicouterine pouch
    c) Rectovesical pouch
    d) Rectouterine pouch
A

d) Rectouterine pouch

86
Q
  1. An example of an irritative urinary tract syndrome is
    a) Hesitancy
    b) Poor calibre of urinary system
    c) Terminal dribbling
    d) Urgency
A

d) Urgency

87
Q
  1. Glandular fever is characterised by the acute, symptomatic infection of:
    a) Myeloma cells
    b) B lymphocytes
    c) Macrophages
    d) CD4-bearing cells
A

b) B lymphocytes

88
Q
  1. Dysbiosis is defined as:
    a) A form of symbiosis where one organism benefits and the other is neither harmed or helped
    b) A relationship between two organisms, from which both species benefit
    c) A form of symbiosis where one organism lives inside another organism and causes it harm
    d) A loss of balance within a microbial community
A

d) A loss of balance within a microbial community

89
Q
  1. The organism responsible for syphilis:
    a) Can cause neurodegenerative changes in the primary stage of infection
    b) Is classified as a bacterium but acts as an obligate intracellular parasite that lives and multiplies within cells
    c) Is usually Trichomonas vaginalis
    d) Can cause bony destruction by producing gummatous lesions
A

d) Can cause bony destruction by producing gummatous lesions

90
Q
  1. The bulbourethral glands drain into the:
    a) Spongy urethra
    b) Intermediate urethra
    c) Ejaculatory duct
    d) Prostatic urethra
A

a) Spongy urethra

91
Q
  1. The pelvic splanchnic nerves:
    a) Are formed by presynaptic sympathetic nerves
    b) Are formed by postsynaptic sympathetic nerves
    c) Contain both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibres
    d) Contain parasympathetic fibres
A

d) Contain parasympathetic fibres

92
Q
  1. What type of neurons form the abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves?
    a) Pre-ganglionic sympathetic neurons
    b) Post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons
    c) Pre-ganglionic parasympathetic neurons
    d) Post ganglionic parasympathetic neurons
A

a) Pre-ganglionic sympathetic neurons

93
Q
  1. Odynophagia is defined as:
    a) Noisy swallowing
    b) Difficulty swallowing
    c) Pain with swallowing
    d) Reflux after swallowing
A

c) Pain with swallowing

94
Q
  1. Which structure passes through the inguinal canal?
    a) Round ligament
    b) Inguinal ligament
    c) Broad ligament
    d) Suspensory ligament
A

a) Round ligament

95
Q
  1. Which of the following structures keeps the internal anal sphincter tonically contracted?
    a) Fibres of the vagus nerve (CNX)
    b) Sympathetic nerves
    c) Pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-4)
    d) Pudendal nerve (S2-4)
A

b) Sympathetic nerves

96
Q
  1. The attachments of the iliococcygeus muscle include the coccyx, fascia of obturator internus and the:
    a) Iliac spine
    b) Ischial spine
    c) Pectineal line
    d) Iliac crest
A

b) Ischial spine

97
Q
  1. The components of the lesser omentum are the hepatogastric ligament and the:
    a) Hepatoduodenal ligament
    b) Gastrosplenic ligament
    c) Gastrocolic ligament
    d) Gastrophrenic ligament
A

a) Hepatoduodenal ligament

98
Q
  1. In Australia, the current screening program for cervical cancer involves:
    a) A pap smear, every 2 years
    b) A pap smear, every 5 years
    c) An HPV test, every 2 years
    d) An HPV test, every 5 years
A

d) An HPV test, every 5 years

99
Q
  1. Pelvic inflammatory disease:
    a) Is uncommon in young women
    b) Is usually the result of untreated E.coli infection
    c) May lead to infertility
    d) Is considered a precursor to cervical cancer
A

c) May lead to infertility

100
Q
  1. Asterixis is a form of:
    a) Visual disturbance
    b) Tremor
    c) Intestinal cramp
    d) Aphasia
A

b) Tremor

101
Q
  1. Which of the following changes is associated with Coeliac disease?
    a) Production of antibodies directed against the parietal cells of the stomach
    b) Ulcer development in the superior duodenum
    c) Damage to the intestinal mucosa and atrophy of villi
    d) Production of antibodies directed against intrinsic factor
A

c) Damage to the intestinal mucosa and atrophy of villi

102
Q
  1. Pain signals originating from the gall bladder:
    a) Are conveyed by CNX neurons to the vagal nucleus (medulla)
    b) Enter the dorsal horn at the spinal cord levels C3 to C5
    c) Are conveyed by sympathetic neurons to cord levels T5 to T9
    d) Are often referred to the left shoulder
A

b) Enter the dorsal horn at the spinal cord levels C3 to C5

103
Q
  1. A patient with a simple goitre:
    a) Has a normal sized thyroid that is producing excess thyroid hormones
    b) Has an enlarged thyroid that is deficient in function
    c) Has an enlarged thyroid that is normal in function
    d) Has an enlarged thyroid that is producing excess thyroid hormones
A

c) Has an enlarged thyroid that is normal in function

104
Q
  1. Compensatory hyperinsulinaemia is typically seen in the:
    a) Initial stages of Type 1 diabetes
    b) Later stages of Type 1 diabetes
    c) Initial stages of Type 2 diabetes
    d) Later stages of Type 2 diabetes
A

c) Initial stages of Type 2 diabetes

105
Q
  1. The hormone insulin promotes:
    a) Cellular release of glucose
    b) Glycolysis
    c) Glycogenolysis
    d) Gluconeogensis
A

b) Glycolysis

106
Q
  1. The attachments of the greater omentum include the proximal duodenum and the:
    a) Liver
    b) Pubic symphysis
    c) Transverse colon
    d) Lesser curvature of the stomach
A

c) Transverse colon

107
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is retroperitoneal?
    a) Stomach
    b) Appendix
    c) Kidney
    d) Spleen
A

c) Kidney

108
Q
  1. The Paneth cells of the small intestine:
    a) Play a large role in absorption
    b) Produce alkaline mucous
    c) Contribute to innate immunity
    d) Secrete hormones (enterogastrones)
A

c) Contribute to innate immunity

109
Q
  1. Features that are unique to the large intestine include:
    a) Teniae coli and villi
    b) A brush border and haustra
    c) Omental appendices and circular folds
    d) Haustra and teniae coli
A

d) Haustra and teniae coli

110
Q
  1. Parathyroid hormone:
    a) Promotes osteoblastic activity
    b) Increases the gastrointestinal absorption of Vitamin B12
    c) Increases the tubular secretion of calcium
    d) Activates Vitamin D
A

d) Activates Vitamin D

111
Q
  1. Which of the following is a risk factor for nephrolithiasis?
    a) Living in a cold climate
    b) Excessive fluid intake
    c) Increased dietary cholesterol
    d) An enlarged prostate
A

d) An enlarged prostate

112
Q
  1. What is the nerve supply to the anal canal, inferior to the pectinate line?
    a) Pudendal nerve
    b) Visceral afferent fibres
    c) Pelvic splanchnic nerves
    d) Genitofemoral nerve
A

a) Pudendal nerve

113
Q
  1. Which of the following hormone act on target cells via secondary messenger?
    a) Adrenaline
    b) Cortisol
    c) Aldosterone
    d) Oestregen
A

a) Adrenaline

114
Q
  1. Which structure transmits the portal triad?
    a) Falciform ligament
    b) Round ligament
    c) Hepatotactic ligament
    d) Hepatoduodenal ligament
A

d) Hepatoduodenal ligament

115
Q
  1. The fibrous remnant of the umbilical vein is the:
    a) Falciform ligament
    b) Ligamentum teres
    c) Coronary ligament
    d) Ligamentum venosum
A

b) Ligamentum teres

116
Q
  1. The most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is:
    a) An iatrogenic cause
    b) A pituitary adenoma
    c) A tumour of the adrenal cortex
    d) A small cell lung carcinoma
A

a) An iatrogenic cause

117
Q
  1. The most consistent clinical feature of phaechromocytoma is:
    a) Hypertension
    b) Bradycardia
    c) Hirsutism
    d) Hyperreflexia
A

a) Hypertension

118
Q
  1. At target cells, thyroxine acts on receptors located in the:
    a) Cytosol
    b) Plasma membrane
    c) Mitochondria
    d) Nucleus
A

d) Nucleus

119
Q
  1. The standard management of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis involves administering:
    a) Thyroid stimulating hormone
    b) Levothyroxine
    c) Thyroid peroxidase
    d) Propylthiouracil
A

b) Levothyroxine

120
Q
  1. The most common form of cervical cancer is
    a) Squamus cell carcinoma
    b) Adenocarcinoma
    c) Urothelial carcinoma
    d) Leiomyosarcoma
A

b) Adenocarcinoma

121
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is intraperitoneal?
    a) Appendix
    b) Ascending colon
    c) Descending colon
    d) Rectum
A

a) Appendix

122
Q
  1. Which of the following situations would result in gall bladder contraction? Nervous outflow via the:
    a) Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves
    b) Pelvic splanchnic nerves
    c) Phrenic nerve
    d) Vagus nerve
A

d) Vagus nerve

123
Q
  1. Which of the following is consistent with the features of thyrotoxicosis?
    a) Constipation
    b) Cold intolerance
    c) Weight loss
    d) Bradycardia
A

c) Weight loss

124
Q
  1. At the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, atrial natriuretic peptide increases the amount of:
    a) Sodium reabsorption, with minimal effect on potassium
    b) Sodium secretion, with increased potassium reabsorption
    c) Sodium reabsorption, with increased potassium secretion
    d) Sodium secretion, with minimal effect on potassium
A

d) Sodium secretion, with minimal effect on potassium

125
Q
  1. Prostatic carcinoma is predominantly associated with the:
    a) Central zone of the prostate
    b) Peripheral zone of the prostate
    c) Transition zone of the prostate
    d) Anterior stroma of the prostate
A

b) Peripheral zone of the prostate

126
Q
  1. Thyrotropin releasing hormone stimulates the synthesis and secretion of:
    a) Thyroid stimulating hormone
    b) Thyroglobulin
    c) Thyroxine
    d) Thyroid hormone and parathyroid hormone
A

a) Thyroid stimulating hormone

127
Q

In which part of the uterine tube does fertilisation usually take place?

a) Infundibulum
b) Ampulla
c) Isthmus
d) Uterine portion

A

b) Ampulla

128
Q
  1. Neonatal jaundice is a form of
    a) Haemolytic jaundice
    b) Hepatic Jaundice
    c) Cholestatic jaundice
    d) Infective jaundice
A

b) Hepatic Jaundice

129
Q
  1. Contraction of the detrusor muscle is triggered by: (located in bladder) transitional epithileal has the ability to change shape
    a) The pudendal nerve
    b) The vagus nerve
    c) The pelvic splanchnic nerves
    d) The sacral splanchnic nerves
A

c) The pelvic splanchnic nerves

130
Q
  1. Which ligament connects the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm?
    a) Coronary ligament
    b) Falciform ligament
    c) Ligamentum teres
    d) Ligamentum venosum
A

a) Coronary ligament

131
Q
  1. The release of hormones from the adrenal medulla is stimulated by the:
    a) Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves
    b) Pelvic splanchnic nerves
    c) Phrenic nerve
    d) Thoracoabdominal nerves
A

a) Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves

132
Q
  1. Dysuria is defined as:
    a) Frequent urination
    b) Blood in the urine
    c) Foul smelling urine
    d) Pain with urination
A

d) Pain with urination

133
Q
  1. What is the most common type of bladder cancer?
    a) Squamous cell carcinoma
    b) Adenocarcinoma
    c) Transitional cell carcinoma
    d) Renal cell carcinoma
A

c) Transitional cell carcinoma

134
Q
  1. Which of the following is from the myeloid line of blood cells?
    a) Plasma cell
    b) Natural killer cell
    c) T helper cell
    d) Macrophage
A

d) Macrophage

135
Q
  1. An abnormal connection between two hollow organs is referred to as:
    a) An empyema – puss filled hollow organ – gall bladder complication
    b) A fistula
    c) An abscess
    d) A mucocele
A

b) A fistula

136
Q
  1. The most common cause of hyperparathyroidism is:
    a) A parathyroid adenoma
    b) Inadvertent damage during thyroid surgery
    c) Autoimmune disease
    d) Rickets
A

a) A parathyroid adenoma

137
Q
  1. The functions of the appendix include:
    a) Absorption of bile salts and Vitamin B12
    b) Storage of immune cells and probiotics
    c) Destruction of senescent erythrocytes
    d) Hormonal regulation of appetite
A

b) Storage of immune cells and probiotics

138
Q 
71.	The abdomen may be divided into nine regions by two horizontal and two vertical planes. 
The two horizontal planes are the: 
a)	Transumbilical and median
b)	Subcostal and transumbilical
c)	Transtubercular and transumbilical 
d)	Subcostal and transtubercular
A

d) Subcostal and transtubercular

139
Q
  1. Typically, the changes associated with Coeliac disease are most severe at the:
    a) Gastrooesophageal junction
    b) Duodenal-jejunal flexure
    c) Ileocaecal junction
    d) Rectoanal junction
A

b) Duodenal-jejunal flexure

140
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true? Lymphatic vessels:
    a) Rely on cardiac output for the circulation of lymph
    b) Lack backflow valves
    c) Transport protein-rich fluid
    d) Possess thick muscular walls
A

c) Transport protein-rich fluid

141
Q
  1. Which enzyme is required for the production of dihydrotestosterone?
    a) Aromatase
    b) 5-alpha reductase
    c) Cyclooxygenase
    d) Phospholipase
A

b) 5-alpha reductase

142
Q
  1. The most common sites for bowel cancer are the:
    a) Caecum and ascending colon
    b) Ascending colon and transverse colon
    c) Descending colon and sigmoid colon
    d) Rectum and sigmoid colon
A

d) Rectum and sigmoid colon

143
Q
  1. The chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla
    a) Release acetylcholine
    b) Are involved in long term stress response
    c) Synapse with pre ganglionic sympathetic neuron
    d) Is the source of oestrogen in post-menopausal women
A

c) Synapse with pre ganglionic sympathetic neuron

144
Q
  1. A haemorrhoid that prolapses, but spontaneously reduces after defecation is a:
    a) First degree haemorrhoid
    b) Second degree haemorrhoid
    c) Third degree haemorrhoid
    d) Fourth degree haemorrhoid
A

b) Second degree haemorrhoid

145
Q
  1. Which of the following bile components assists in the process of digestion?
    a) Bicarbonate
    b) Bile pigments
    c) Bile salts
    d) Cholesterol
A

c) Bile salts

146
Q
  1. Which muscle is responsible for compressing the crura of the penis or clitoris?
    a) Ischiocavernosus
    b) Bulbospongiosus
    c) Superficial transverse perineal muscle
    d) Iliococcygeus
A

a) Ischiocavernosus

147
Q
  1. Which of the following situations would lead to juxtaglomerular cell activation and secretion?
    a) Increased systolic blood pressure
    b) Increased osmolarity of filtrate in the distal convoluted tubule
    c) Decreased renal perfusion
    d) Hypokalaemia
A

c) Decreased renal perfusion

148
Q
  1. Antibiotic therapy is an appropriate treatment for which STI?
    a) Syphilis
    b) Genital herpes
    c) Genital warts
    d) All of the above
A

a) Syphilis

149
Q
  1. Pernicious anaemia is the result of an autoimmune condition, in which antibodies are produced against:
    a) Chief cells and pepsinogen
    b) Chief cells and intrinsic factor
    c) Parietal cells and pepsinogen
    d) Parietal cells and intrinsic factor
A

d) Parietal cells and intrinsic factor

150
Q
  1. Which of the following belongs to the lymphoid cell lineage?
    a) Mast cell
    b) Neutrophil
    c) Macrophage
    d) Natural killer cell
A

d) Natural killer cell

151
Q
  1. The inferior margin of the external oblique aponeurosis forms the:
    a) Inguinal ligament
    b) Conjoint tendon
    c) Linea alba
    d) Rectus sheath
A

a) Inguinal ligament

152
Q
  1. Which of the following organs possesses a mesentery?
    a) Kidney
    b) Ascending colon
    c) Spleen
    d) Bladder
A

c) Spleen

SBO5 (16 decks)

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