Domain 2: Exercise Prescription And Implementation Flashcards
Which of the following is recommended to assess perceived exertion in children?
OMNI scale
Explanation:
The child-friendly OMNI scale is 0-10, and has illustrations to describe exertion levels.
Which muscles function to rotate the lumbar spine?
Internal and external obliques
Explanation:
The internal oblique (same side rotator) and external oblique (opposite side rotator) are agonists for lumbar spine rotation.
Which of the following is considered the prime mover for both shoulder flexion and shoulder horizontal adduction?
Pectoralis major
Explanation:
Examples of exercises that utilize the action of the pectoralis major are the chest fly, pec deck, cable crossover (horizontal adduction), incline bench press, and dumbbell front raise (flexion).
Which rotator cuff muscle internally rotates the shoulder joint?
Subscapularis
Explanation:
The subscapularis internally rotates the glenohumeral joint.
A client has a winging scapula at the end of the push phase of a push-up. Weakness in which of the following muscles is the MOST likely cause?
Serratus anterior
Explanation:
During the final push phase of a push-up, the serratus anterior must be strong to complete the movement and prevent the scapula from winging.
Using the estimate of HRmax method, what is the MOST appropriate heart rate range for an apparently healthy, 20-year-old client?
140 to 170 bpm
Explanation:
For apparently healthy individuals, the range is often narrowed to 70% to 85% of maximal heart rate.Therefore, for the 20-year-old, moderately active client, the target heart rate range will be 140 to 170 bpm.
The MOST important principle regarding core training is to:
Maintain cocontraction of the deep stabilizers.
Explanation:
Regardless of the stage of core training, it is critical for the client to maintain cocontraction of the deep stabilizers. When stabilization can no longer be maintained, the exercise should be stopped.
Your hypertensive client has been cleared to exercise by a physician. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate program?
Moderate cardiovascular and low-intensity resistance training
Explanation:
Resistance training is considered a supplement to aerobic exercise and should not be prescribed as the primary form of activity for clients with hypertension. When supplementing with resistance training, intensity should be kept at 60% to 80% 1 RM.
When exercising in the heat, which material works best to keep the body cool?
CoolMax
Explanation:
Clothing made from dry-wick fibers maximize evaporation and minimize sweat absoprtion (ACSM’s Primary Care Sports Medicine, 2007 p. 139).
The term metabolic rate is defined as:
The rate at which calories are expended.
Explanation:
The rate at which calories are expended is called the metabolic rate.
Which of the following is NOT a food group and yet provides essential nutrients?
Oils
Explanation:
Oils are not a food group, but they do provide essential nutrients and are therefore included in USDA recommendations for what to eat.
Which of the following activities relies primarily on the creatine phosphate energy system?
golf swing
Explanation:
Exercises that require explosive, short-duration movements such as a golf swing primarily utilize the creatine phosphate system.
How many days are required to become acclimated to the heat?
10
Explanation:
In general, exercise should be performed in the heat for 10 consecutive days to become acclimated.
Weight loss after exercise indicates less than optimal hydration. Athletes should consume ________ of fluid per pound of weight lost during activity.
1 pint (approximately 600 mL)
Explanation:
Within 2 hours of exercise, people should drink at least 20 oz (600 mL or 1 pint) of fluid per pound of body weight that was lost during the exercise session.
Deborah recently went through menopause and is finding that maintaining her weight isn’t as easy as it used to be and she would like to lose weight. Her husband is not supportive of exercise, and Deborah is not motivated without his support. What is the best exercise self-regulation strategy for helping Deborah begin a successful exercise program?
Revisit Deborah’s motivations for exercise, and encourage her to replace her weight-loss goals with goals related to meeting new people, relieving stress, and feeling good.
Explanation:
Deborah’s self-esteem and poor body image may be discouraging her from exercise. Use the strategy for exercise self-regulation: revisit Deborah’s motivations for exercise and encourage her to replace her weight-loss goals with goals related to meeting new people, relieving stress, and feeling good.
Your client has set a goal of running 3 times per week for 2 months to increase his fitness level and lose weight. What is the BEST way to measure this goal?
Track the duration and intensity of each workout in a daily log.
Explanation:
It is important for clients to track their specific short-term goals relative to their long-term goal;in this case, the client needs to track duration and frequency daily.
To stretch the latissimus dorsi, the position of the arm should be placed in maximal ________ in the frontal plane with slight trunk lateral flexion to the opposite side.
Abduction
Explanation:
The latissimus dorsi is stretched when elongated in a position that is opposite to the muscle action. Since the latissimus dorsi mainly extends and adducts the shoulder joint, a stretch would occur when the shoulder is placed in maximal abduction with lateral flexion to the contralateral side.
Which of the following muscles is BEST suited to prevent scapular winging?
Serratus anterior
Explanation:
Winging of the scapula results from weakness or dysfunction of the serratus anterior.
Overweight or obese clients who are seeking to lose weight should perform a minimum of ________ minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week.
240
Explanation:
For obese clients, weight loss and enhanced prevention of regaining weight will likely require approximately 250 to 300 minutes or 2,000 kcal of moderate-intensity physical activity per week.
What does a partial squat create when done prior to a vertical jump?
Prestretch
Explanation:
Individuals can perform a jump reach test for vertical height. Performing a partial squat position prior to a vertical jump causes a prestretch of the jumping muscles.
Which of the following concepts, if applied, makes resistance training easier to perform?
F = ma
Explanation:
The law of acceleration (F = ma) is Newton’s second law of motion and states that force is proportional to the product of an object’s mass multiplied by its acceleration.
Which muscles act as agonist muscles during a lateral cable leg lift?
Gluteus medius and minimus
Explanation:
The gluteus medius and minimus lie deep to the gluteus maximus and are abductors and medial rotators of the hip.
Increased mitochondrial density is a result of:
Chronic cardiorespiratory activity.
Explanation:
The mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell; therefore, increased mitochondrial density is a result of chronic cardiorespiratory activity.
Which type of movement of the lumbar spine creates the MOST harmful stress?
Rotation
Explanation:
The anatomical design of the articulations of the spine is well suited for compressive forces, whereas rotational movements create potentially harmful stresses to these same structures.
Which of the following would MOST likely lead to impingement syndrome?
Over-developed anterior deltoid
Explanation:
The anterior deltoid is often more developed than the posterior deltoid in most individuals, which may lead to postural abnormalities (shoulder forward and internally rotated) and may be related to impingement.
Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position?
Erector spinae
Explanation:
The erector spinae are agonists in spinal extension. When strong, these muscles will also exert an upward pull of the posterior surface to counteract an anteverted pelvis, resulting in a neutral spine.
Which of the following cardiac variables will increase as a result of regular aerobic training at a submaximal effort?
Arteriovenous oxygen difference
Explanation:
In response to training, the amount of oxygen extracted by the active muscles increases. This reflects the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood and the oxygen content of venous blood.
During an outdoor training session, your client begins to complain about fatigue and muscle cramping. You should:
Stop the exercise, and have the client rest in a cool place.
Explanation:
The exercises should be stopped immediately if the client complains of pain or the EP-C suspects that the client is in pain. The last thing the EP-C wants to do is induce or aggravate an injury.
What is the third phase in a traditional linear periodization program?
Peaking
Explanation:
The four phases of traditional linear periodization are hypertrophy, strength/power, peaking, and recovery.
Which of the following activities relies predominantly on anaerobic glycolysis for energy?
400-m run
Explanation:
A 400-m run relies predominantly on anaerobic glycolysis.
Fat intake should be no more than ________ of total daily calories.
30%
Explanation:
The generally accepted healthy limit for fat intake is no more than 30% of total daily calories.
Which of the following assessments is contraindicated for an unconditioned client?
1.5-mile test
Explanation:
The 1.5-mile test is contraindicated for unconditioned beginners, individuals with symptoms of heart disease, and those with known heart disease or risk factors for heart disease. Clients should be able to jog for 15 minutes continuously to complete this test and obtain a reasonable prediction of their aerobic capacity.
The BEST cardiovascular training routine for someone with diabetes is:
Daily for 20 to 60 minutes.
Explanation:
Consistency in a daily routine is the major pillar in diabetes care.
Your 38-year-old female client wants to lose weight, but is concerned that resistance training will make her “bulk up.” You should:
Explain how resistance training can gain lean body mass and raise resting metabolism.
Explanation:
Educate the client about the meaning of “toning up” and the importance of increasing lean body mass, while also promoting cardiorespiratory exercise as a way to burn large numbers of calories and reduce excessive body fat.
There is some evidence to suggest that static stretching may contribute to a decrease in:
Muscular strength.
Explanation:
There is some evidence to suggest that static stretching may contribute to decreased muscular strength.
What would be a good target heart rate range for a deconditioned 50-year-old male?
77 to 96 bpm
Explanation:
For individuals with lower fitness, intensity levels as low as 45% VO2max or below may provide sufficient challenge to increase VO2max.
What does the 1 RM bench press assess?
Strength of the muscles involved in arm extension
Explanation:
The 1 RM bench press measures the strength of the muscles involved in arm extension. Research has shown that the single best weightlifting test for predicting total dynamic strength is the 1 RM bench press.
The EP-C determines that a desired small gain would require too much time for a client to achieve. Which of the following is MOST appropriate?
Capping the training session.
Explanation:
A concept called capping may need to be applied to various training situations when small gains will require very large amounts of time to achieve, yet are not necessary for overall success.
A female client is taking a multivitamin supplement and she has no specific nutrient deficiencies. What should the supplement provide?
A maximum of 100% of recommended daily allowances
Explanation:
People wishing to take nutrient supplements without a nutrient deficiency diagnosis should limit intake to multivitamin and multimineral supplements that provide no more than 100% of recommended daily allowances.
Which of the following terms refers to muscle contraction force created by the sliding-filament theory?
Tension
Explanation:
Active force or tension refers to the muscular contraction created by the sliding-filament theory.
The muscles that abduct the shoulder joint are the:
Medial deltoid and supraspinatus.
Explanation:
The supraspinatus primarily initiates the abduction. The medial deltoid continues the abduction in concert with via a force couple.
When using variable-resistance devices, what are the three types of strength curves?
Ascending, descending, and bell-shaped
Explanation:
There are three major types of strength curves with variable-resistance devices: ascending, descending, and bell-shaped.
Which of the following best summarizes the effect of regular exercise on dyslipidemia?
Regular exercise can increase HDL-C levels.
Explanation:
Regular exercise improves cholesterol profile by increasing HDL-C levels.
Compared to nonathletes, the protein requirement for physically active people is:
Approximately double.
Explanation:
The protein requirement for physically active people is about double that of nonathletes.
Which of the following activities relies predominantly on anaerobic glycolysis for energy?
400-m run
Explanation:
A 400-m run relies predominantly on anaerobic glycolysis.
Which type of stretch would be MOST appropriate to warm up for soccer?
Dynamic
Explanation:
Dynamic warm-up stretches and exercise are most appropriate for sports-specific training. Static stretching prior to sports training has been shown to decrease performance.
How many repetitions per exercise should be performed for enhanced muscular strength?
8 to 12
Explanation:
Per ACSM’s FITT principle for resistance training, 8 to 12 repetitions are recommended to improve muscular strength.
What is the ideal repetition range for an apparently healthy adult who wants to gain muscle hypertrophy?
8 to 12
Explanation:
Approximately 8 to 12 repetitions is recommended to increase muscular hypertrophy.
What is the recommended duration and frequency of resistance exercise for individuals 6-17 years of age?
60 minutes per day, at least 3 days per week
Explanation:
Children should participate in at least 60 minutes per day of moderate- to vigorous-intensity physical activity, and include resistance exercise and bone-loading activity at least 3 days per week.
Which of the following BEST describes the Small Changes Model of behavior change?
Gradual and cumulative behavior change is achieved relative to baseline activity.
Explanation:
The small changes model focuses on gradual change that is cumulative and increases self-efficacy to further behavior change.
The most common mineral deficiency the EP-C is likely to encounter is:
Iron.
Explanation:
Iron and zinc are critically important for energy metabolism but are among the nutrients of which people may not be consuming enough. The most common nutrient deficiency in most industrialized countries is iron.
Which of the following durations for the plank exercise is MOST appropriate for a beginner client?
15 seconds
Explanation:
Many clients find it challenging to maintain the position for even 30 to 60 seconds while keeping the scapulae depressed.
Which statement would be BEST when describing why an older adult client needs a balance exercise?
“Dynamic balance is essential to decrease your risk for falling. It is really simple; just walk on the floor as if you are on a tightrope.”
Explanation:
A dynamic balance exercise involves transferring body weight from one foot to the other; for example, pretending to walk along a tightrope, or a line on the floor without falling off.
Which of the following is MOST important when working with special needs clients?
Implementing the appropriate levels of training intensity
Explanation:
Implementing the appropriate levels of training intensity is critical as more people with special needs seek to work with Certified Exercise Physiologists.
Adduction
Movement of a limb toward the midline of the body or toward another part
Abduction
The movement of a limb away from the midline of the body or from another part
What is the third phase in a traditional linear periodization program?
Peaking
Explanation:
The four phases of traditional linear periodization are hypertrophy, strength/power, peaking, and recovery.
A client comes to you wishing to train for a half marathon. By prescribing running to your client, you are adhering to which of the following principles?
Specificity of training
Explanation:
Specificity of training states that specific exercises elicit specific demands based on training adaptations.
It has been estimated that a total of ________ liters of fluid per day would be required to maintain normal hydration in athletes who are exercising at high altitude.
3 to 4
Explanation:
It has been estimated that a total of 3 to 4 liters of fluid per day would be required to maintain normal hydration in athletes who are exercising at high altitude.
Target exercise intensity for clients with cardiovascular disease should fall ________ below a heart rate that has previously elicited abnormal clinical symptoms.
10 to 15 bpm
Explanation:
Target exercise intensity should fall 10 and 15 bpm below a heart rate that has previously elicited abnormal clinical symptoms (e.g., chest pain or other angina symptoms).
Protein consumed beyond ________ is either stored as fat or metabolized as an energy source.
1.5 grams per kg of body weight
Explanation:
Humans are incapable of using protein for anabolic purposes above 1.5 grams protein per kg of body weight.
Greater amounts of physical activity are likely to be needed to achieve weight loss and prevent weight regain in adults, thus requiring ________ minutes of moderate physical activity per week.
200 to 300
Explanation:
Greater amounts of physical activity (greater than 250 min/week) have been associated with clinically significant weight loss.
What is the recommended minimum duration of weekly, moderate-intensity exercise for weight maintenance after weight loss?
250 minutes
Explanation:
For weight loss or maintaining weight loss, the recommended duration of exercise is 50 to 60 minutes per day most days of the week, or 250 to 300 minutes per week.
What would be the BEST progression for a balance training exercise with an older adult?
Seated closed eyes, seated arms crossed, seated on a physioball, standing on the floor single leg, standing on a BOSU ball
Explanation:
The best progression is seated closed eyes, seated arms crossed, seated on a physioball, standing on the floor single leg, standing on a BOSU ball. It is important to progress the exercise from the least physiologically demanding to the most.
Lifting a barbell in a power rack a few inches until it is pressed or pulled against the rack’s pins is known as:
Functional isometrics.
Explanation:
Functional isometrics (ISOM) can include lifting a barbell in a power rack a few inches until it is pressed or pulled against the rack’s pins. The client continues to push and pull maximally for approximately 2 to 6 seconds with a high rate of force development.
Functional isometric strength training is effective when performed near the sticking point or ________ of the exercise.
Weak point
Explanation:
Functional isometrics (ISOM) can be performed in multiple areas of the range of motion (ROM), but are most effective when performed near the sticking point (or weak point) of the exercise.
Which of the following BEST describes the physiological principle associated with the Valsalva maneuver?
It increases intrathoracic pressure, which results in decreased stroke volume.
Explanation:
The Valsalva maneuver results in a decreased stroke volume due to forceful air expiration against a closed glottis.
Improvements in muscular endurance are a result of:
Increased capillary density.
Explanation:
Increased capillary density increases blood supply to active muscles thereby increasing muscular endurance.
When describing cardiorespiratory fitness, the central oxygen delivery processes refer to:
Activity of the heart and circulatory system.
Explanation:
Cardiorespiratory fitness is a function of enhancing both the central oxygen delivery (i.e., heart and circulatory) processes and the peripheral oxygen uptake mechanisms of the working muscles.
What is the primary role of the rotator cuff muscles at the shoulder joint?
Stabilize the humerus during motion
Explanation:
The rotator cuff’s primary role is to stabilize the shoulder joint. When these muscles have good muscular strength and endurance, they help center the head of the humerus in the center of the glenoid fossa, which aids with positional control during movement.
Linda is performing a set of supine abdominal crunches. To increase recruitment of the left external oblique and right internal oblique, how should you have her perform the crunches?
Rotate her trunk toward the right during concentric motion
Explanation:
The internal oblique (same side rotator) and external oblique (opposite side rotator) are agonists for lumbar spine rotation.
A traditional or classic periodized training program consists of:
A straight-line increase in the intensity that trades off between intensity and volume.
Explanation:
Linear periodized training is characterized by a gradual linear increase in the intensity of the program, with a tradeoff in repetition and volume.
Which of the following assesses anaerobic capacity?
300-yard shuttle run
Explanation:
Anaerobic capacity can be assessed with the 300-yard shuttle run and the line drill.
The ideal resistance training repetition range and set range for a healthy adult just starting an exercise program, with no previous exercise history, would be:
8 to 12 reps, for 1 to 2 sets, 2 to 3 times per week.
Explanation:
It is important to start a healthy adult who is just beginning an exercise program with 8 to 12 reps, for 1 to 2 sets, 2 to 3 times per week so she sees improvement in strength gains without creating delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS).
Overcoming a shoulder impingement can be done by strengthening and improving the function of the ________, and stretching the ________.
External shoulder rotators; internal shoulder rotators
Explanation:
Strengthening and improving the function of the external rotators and stretching the internal rotators may help restore muscle balance and minimize impingement symptoms.
Which of the following is MOST appropriate for the resistance training program of a client with known cardiovascular disease?
Increase loads for upper-body exercises by 2-5 pounds per week.
Explanation:
Loads should be increased slowly as the client adapts.
The amount of muscle force generated in plyometric training has greater potential because of:
The preceding eccentric muscle action.
Explanation:
This type of muscle action in plyometric training provides a physiological advantage because the muscle force generated during the concentric muscle action is potentiated by the preceding eccentric muscle action.
Which of the following is recommended to assess perceived exertion in children?
OMNI scale
Explanation:
The child-friendly OMNI scale is 0-10, and has illustrations to describe exertion levels.
Which skill-related activity is essential in minimizing the risk of developing osteoporosis?
Balance
Explanation:
Individuals at risk for osteoporosis benefit from weight-bearing aerobics, resistance, core control, balance, and postural exercises.
Which of the following is the most appropriate aerobic exercise intensity for individuals with cardiac disease who have been cleared for exercise?
55% HRR
Explanation:
The ideal intensity for individuals with cardiac disease is 40% to 80% of HRR.
A high school soccer player is interested in consuming foods with a high glycemic index after practices and matches. Which of the following is MOST appropriate?
Bagel
Explanation:
Bagels have a high glycemic index.
One of the main reasons skipping meals negatively impacts body fat levels is:
Changes in blood sugar levels impact insulin production, increasing fat stores.
Explanation:
Skipping meals is one of the biggest reasons people have high body fat levels, as skipping a meal will cause you to produce excess insulin at the next meal, making more fat than if you ate more frequently.
Which of the following assessments BEST determines body fat distribution?
Waist-to-hip ratio
Explanation:
Waist-to-hip ratio assesses and compares the ratio of the circumference of the waist and hip as it relates to health risks.
A client has been completing the following exercise protocol for the barbell deadlift exercise 3 times per week for the past 6 weeks:
1st set; 6 repetitions; 275 pounds
2nd set; 5 repetitions; 265 pounds
3rd set; 5 repetitions; 265 pounds
4th set; 4 repetitions; 250 pounds
He states that for the past two sessions the last set has not challenged him. What is the MOST appropriate adjustment to his program to continue increasing muscular strength?
Increase the load for all sets by 5-10 pounds
Explanation:
An overload must be introduced to provide the client with the opportunity to adapt to a new stimulus.
A proper cool-down, allowing for a gradual return toward baseline, will help the client avoid which of the following?
Postexercise hypotension
Explanation:
A proper 5- to 10-minute cool-down that allows for a gradual return toward baseline will help the client avoid postexercise hypotension (low blood pressure).
Which of the following activities is contraindicated for pregnant women?
Scuba diving
Explanation:
Scuba diving and activities at elevations greater 6,000 ft are contraindicated.
Which of the following alters the resistance throughout an exercise’s range of motion in an attempt to match increases and decreases in the strength curve of a muscle?
Variable resistance equipment
Explanation:
Variable resistance equipment operates through a lever arm, cam, or pulley arrangement. Its purpose is to alter the resistance throughout the exercise’s range of motion in an attempt to match the increases and decreases in strength (i.e., strength curve).
The quadruped (bird dog) exercise functions to strengthen which of the following muscles?
Multifidus and erector spinae
Explanation:
The quadruped exercise strengthens the stabilizers of neck, scapulae, spine, and pelvis. This recruits the multifidus as well as the erector spinae muscles.
To stretch the latissimus dorsi, the position of the arm should be placed in maximal ________ in the frontal plane with slight trunk lateral flexion to the opposite side.
Abduction
Explanation:
The latissimus dorsi is stretched when elongated in a position that is opposite to the muscle action. Since the latissimus dorsi mainly extends and adducts the shoulder joint, a stretch would occur when the shoulder is placed in maximal abduction with lateral flexion to the contralateral side.
Which of the following muscles is considered a prime mover for a lat pull-down exercise?
Teres major
Explanation:
The teres major is also known as the “little” lat and performs the same actions as the latissimus dorsi in shoulder joint adduction and extension.
During a lat pull-down, the bar should be pulled to the _________.
Upper chest
Explanation:
During the lat pull-down, pull the bar down to the upper chest.
A female client who is 63 inches, weighs 68 kg and has a BMI of 26.6 walks on a treadmill at 3.5 mph at a 5% grade for 30 minutes. What is her total caloric expenditure for that exercise session?
217 kcal ( look up calculation)
Explanation:
The calculation for this problem follows the example found on page 424 of ACSM’s Resources for the Personal Trainer, 4th ed. Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health, 2014.
What is the risk associated with exercising in hot, humid climates?
Sweat does not evaporate.
Explanation:
Dehydration risk is high in extremely hot and humid environments because it is difficult for sweat to evaporate into an environment that is already saturated with moisture. Thus, sweat becomes ineffective as a way of dissipating body heat, causing a greater volume of sweat to be produced in the body’s attempt to control body temperature.
Which of the following exercise intensities would be BEST for a pregnant woman?
RPE of 12 to 14
Explanation:
A pregnant woman should exercise at an intensity of 12 to 14 on the RPE scale of 6 - 20. Avoid using HRR or VO2max as an intensity guideline because heart rate fluctuates too much.
Which of the following results from regular resistance training?
Increase in bone density
Explanation:
An evidence-based outcome from regular resistance training is an increase in bone density.
You are working with an older adult who is on high blood pressure medication. What is the BEST way to monitor his cardiovascular intensity?
RPE scale of 6 - 20
Explanation:
Monitor exercise intensity with the rating of perceived exertion (RPE) scale whenever working with an older adult or special population because the heart rate formulas are not accurate and the talk test would not be as accurate and as measurable as the RPE scale.
Reduced athletic performance is associated with body water weight loss of ________ during activity.
2%
Explanation:
People who experience significant weight (i.e., water) loss during practice should learn how to drink more fluids to stabilize weight because a 2% body weight loss is associated with reduced performance.
All of the following are considered nutrients EXCEPT:
1) Vitamins.
2) Water.
3) Minerals.
4) Antioxidants.
Antioxidants.
Explanation:
The six classes of nutrients are carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water.
Which of the following is a fallacy regarding dietary fiber?
1) Fiber can lower fat and cholesterol absorption.
2) Fiber assists with control of blood sugar.
3) Fiber may reduce risk of heart disease.
4) Fiber is found mainly in simple carbohydrates.
Fiber is found mainly in simple carbohydrates.
Explanation:
Dietary fiber is a carbohydrate that cannot be digested but is useful in the diet because it may lower fat and cholesterol absorption, improves blood sugar control, and may reduce the risk of colon cancer and heart disease.
Types of equipment used for dynamic constant external resistance include:
Dumbbells and kettlebells.
Explanation:
The types of devices used for dynamic constant external resistance include dumbbells, barbells, kettlebells, weight machines, and medicine balls. They are generally devices that do not use pulleys or levers.
How many sets per exercise should a client perform for advanced resistance training benefits?
3 to 6
Explanation:
For advanced resistance training benefits, the client should perform 3 to 6 sets per exercise.
Which rotator cuff muscles externally rotate the shoulder joint?
Teres minor and infraspinatus
Explanation:
The teres minor and infraspinatus are located on the posterior aspect of the scapula and function to externally rotate the shoulder joint.
During the kneeling hip flexor stretch, where should the upper body be?
Lifted tall
Explanation:
During the kneeling hip flexor stretch, shift the weight forward while keeping the upper body lifted.
Which of the following muscles may be weak if a client has winging of the scapula during a push-up?
Serratus anterior
Explanation:
Winging of the scapula results from serratus anterior dysfunction, which is possibly related to long thoracic nerve dysfunction.
Which of the following is a measure of improved cardiorespiratory fitness?
1) Increased heart rate at a given submaximal workload 2)Increased VO2 at a given submaximal workload 3)Increased maximal oxygen consumption
4) Increased respiration rate at maximal workload
Increased maximal oxygen consumption
Explanation:
Typical measurements used to determine improvements in cardiorespiratory fitness include increases in maximal oxygen consumption and decreases in heart rate or VO2 in response to a given submaximal workload.
Which type of training takes advantage of the stretch-shortening cycle of the muscle?
Plyometric training
Explanation:
Plyometric actions encompass the stretch-shortening cycle (SSC) where the lengthening or prestretching of skeletal muscles under loading enables a more forceful concentric (CON) muscle action.
Which of the following is a local stabilizer of the core musculature?
Transverse abdominis
Explanation:
The transverse abdominis is a local stabilizer which compresses or draws the abdominal wall toward the spine. It also helps maintain abdominal pressure.
Which type of muscle action produces the highest amount of force?
Eccentric
Explanation:
The highest force produced in a resistance training exercise is during an eccentric action.
Thoughts can shape both feelings and behaviors. Positive self-talk can promote confidence to make positive lifestyle change, while negative thoughts reduce the confidence needed to make change. These are called:
Thought traps.
Explanation:
One’s thoughts are very powerful at shaping feelings and behaviors. Kind, realizing thoughts promote confidence to make positive lifestyle changes; thought traps reduce the confidence needed to make changes.
One of the MOST important reasons for assessment of your client’s body composition is:
The correlation between obesity and increased chronic disease risk.
Explanation:
Assessment of body composition is necessary for numerous reasons; as part of client screening, body composition can be an indicator of disease risk.
Your 220-pound client should consume how many grams of carbohydrates each day?
600-1000 grams
Explanation:
People should consume 6 to 10 grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight per day.
________ resistance training features both a lifting phase and lowering phase during each repetition.
Dynamic constant external
Explanation:
The term dynamic constant external resistance has been adopted to fit a more workable definition of an isotonic resistance training exercise in which the external resistance or weight does not change and both a lifting (concentric) phase and a lowering (eccentric) phase occur during each repetition. Thus, free-weight exercises and exercise machines that do not vary the resistance are isotonic in nature.
What tools do athletes use for variable resistance training?
Chains
Explanation:
Chains come in different sizes and provide variable resistance for an individual performing a bench press.