Domain 1: Heath And fitness assessment Flashcards
Which of the following is TRUE of training and its effect on heart rate?
Exercise training has little impact on maximal heart rate.
What is produced when carbohydrates are broken down during anaerobic glycolysis?
Pyruvate
Explanation:
Anaerobic glycolysis is the next most immediate energy source, and consists of a metabolic pathway that breaks down carbohydrates (glucose or glycogen) into pyruvate.
During the preparticipation screening, your client is determined to have four risk factors. This is considered to be:
Moderate risk.
Explanation:
Two or more risk factors indicate a moderate disease risk.
How many risk factors are present for this 54-year-old female?
Family history: Mother had myocardial infarction at the age of 60 Nonsmoker Blood pressure: 134/85 mm Hg Total cholesterol: 230 mg · dL−1 HDL-C: 46 mg · dL−1 Fasting blood glucose: 82 mg · dL−1 BMI: 27.3 Sedentary lifestyle
3
Explanation:
Risk factors include family history, total and HDL cholesterol, and sedentary lifestyle.
A manifestation of coronary artery disease is:
Pain that occurs with exertion or exercise.
To reduce body weight, which of the following is the MOST important determinant?
Negative energy balance
Explanation:
To reduce body weight, energy expenditure must exceed energy intake, referred to as a negative energy balance.
Self-administered questionnaires are less useful for the EP-C because:
EP-Cs typically desire a more extensive health profile for their clients.
Explanation:
while self-guided screening (e.g., PAR-Q) can and should be used by all, there are many individuals, especially those at medical risk, who should also consult an EP-C for a more thorough screening.
A male client is 45 years old and has high-density lipoprotein of 35 mg · dL−1. He spends 30 minutes a day walking to and from work. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does he have?
2
Explanation:
This client’s age and HDL-C are considered positive risk factors. Note that physical activity is NOT considered a negative risk factor.
Which of the following profiles is considered a risk factor with respect to obesity?
Waist of 36 inches for females
Explanation:
The defining criteria for obesity risk is waist girth of 35 inches or greater for females.
Which of the following is a recommended procedure for administering a 1-RM strength test?
Conduct a familiarization period of 3-4 practice sessions.
Explanation:
Procedures for administering 1-RM include a familiarization period. A proper familiarization period (e.g., two weeks of resistance training including three to four practice sessions for each exercise) will likely achieve appropriate familiarization and reliability for 1-RM strength testing.
Which of the following movements occur in the transverse plane of motion?
Glenohumeral rotation
Explanation:
Glenohumeral rotation takes place in the transverse plane of motion, about the longitudinal or vertical axis.
VO2 is lower than required to create adequate energy during exercise via the oxidative energy systems. This is known as:
Oxygen deficit.
Explanation:
Prior to steady state, VO2 is lower than required to create adequate energy for the given task via the oxidative energy systems. This period of inadequate oxygen consumption has been termed the oxygen deficit.
An exercise test is recommended prior to exercise training but a physician is not available to supervise the test. Who among the following would also supervise an exercise test?
An allied health care professional certified in ACLS
Explanation:
When an exercise test is recommended prior to exercise training, a competent nonphysician health care professional may also supervise the exercise test. A competent nonphysician health care professional is one who has advanced training in clinical exercise testing and credentials such as the AHA Advanced Cardiac Life Support certification.
The facet joints of the lumbar spine are oriented in the __________ which primarily allows ____________ motions.
Sagittal plane; flexion/extension
Explanation:
The lumbar zygapophyseal joints (facet joints) are angled to allow flexion and extension, and restrict axial rotation.
For which of the following conditions are a medical release or a physician-supervised exercise test unncessary prior to beginning an exercise program?
Well-controlled exercise-induced asthma
Explanation:
A client with well-controlled exercise-induced asthma is often able to participate in activity without physician clearance, assuming he is otherwise healthy and does not meet the criteria for moderate or high risk.
In reviewing your client’s medical history, you note that she is on lipid lowering medication and her high-density lipoprotein cholesterol is 62 mg · dL−1. Based on her profile, how many total risk factors does she have?
0
Explanation:
Although the client’s total cholesterol is considered a positive risk factor, this is negated as her HDL-C that is considered a negative risk factor. Thus, the sum total equals zero risk factors.
Which blood vessel is the location of gas and nutrient exchange?
Capillary
Explanation:
The capillary is the smallest and most numerous of the blood vessels and is the location of gas and nutrient exchange.
Which of the following indicates a client has diabetes?
Oral glucose tolerance test of 250 mg/dL on at least two separate occasions
Explanation:
Prediabetes, which is defined as having a fasting blood glucose (FBG) between 100 and 125 mg/dL or a 2-hour value in oral glucose tolerance ≥140 mg/dL but ≤200 mg/dL. A FBG of ≥126 mg/dL would indicate that the individual has diabetes, which would automatically place them in the high risk classification.
Which of the following would be considered a positive risk factor for dyslipidemia?
HDL 35 mg/dL
Explanation:
Dyslipidemia, defined as elevated low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C greater than or equal to 130 mg/dL), depressed high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C less than 40 mg/dL), or currently taking a lipid-lowering medication. If total cholesterol is the only value available, the risk threshold is greater than or equal to 200 mg/dL.
Which of the following is NOT considered a true joint?
Scapulothoracic
A female client is 55 years old and has high-density lipoprotein of 70 mg · dL−1. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does she have?
0
Explanation:
This client’s age is considered a positive risk factor. However, her HDL-C is considered a negative risk factor, so the sum total equals zero risk factors.
Which of the following is MOST accurate as it relates to total energy expenditure?
Resting energy expenditure makes up the majority of calories expended regardless of activity levels.
Explanation:
Resting energy expenditure (sometimes referred to as BEE or basal energy expenditure) is the amount of calories a person uses if he was to do no activity throughout the day.
Which of the following activities requires anaerobic glycolysis as an energy source?
200 meter sprint
Explanation:
Anaerobic glycolysis is the primary source of ATP during medium-duration, intense exercise, such as 200 meter and 400 meter sprint events or any exercise of an intensity that cannot be continued for more than approximately 90 seconds.
During the preparticipation screening, your client is determined to have four risk factors. This is considered to be:
Moderate risk.
Explanation:
Two or more risk factors indicate a moderate disease risk.
Running is done predominately in what plane of movement?
Sagittal
A lateral lunge is performed in which plane of movement?
Frontal
Explanation:
The frontal plane divides the body between the front and back. Any movement that is parallel to this plane, such as a lateral lunge, occurs in the frontal plane.
A posterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________ and an anterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________.
Flexion; extension
Explanation:
A posterior pelvic tilt results in lumbar flexion, in which the pubic symphysis moves superiorly, the lumbar spine flexes, and the hips extend, resulting in a decreased lumbosacral angle. With anterior pelvic tilt, the pubic symphysis moves inferiorly, the lumbar spine extends, and the hips flex, resulting in an increased lumbosacral angle.
Which of the following common characteristics are reported by those experiencing symptoms consistent with coronary artery disease?
“Heaviness”
Explanation:
“Heaviness” is a common symptom that is reported and is consistent with an ischemic response to exercise or exertion.
To lessen the chance of injury, the EP-C should:
Be diligent in choosing exercise modes and prescribing exercises that are based on an individual’s current fitness level and desires.
Explanation:
To minimize musculoskeletal injury from the outset, the EP-C should be diligent in choosing exercise modes and prescribing exercises that are based on an individual’s current fitness level and desires, along with any past exercise experiences.
Your potential client has a history of swollen ankles and reports shortness of breath when walking up the stairs. You would classify this as:
High risk and require that the client obtain a physician’s clearance.
Explanation:
Both swollen ankles (ankle edema) and shortness of breath are major signs of a disease state. Thus, the individual should be classified as high risk and would require medical clearance and testing prior to exercise.
Which of the following cholesterol levels requires referral to a physician for further evaluation?
Total = 200 mg/dL, TC/HDL = 6
Explanation:
Note that the ratio of TC/HDL is high, and this infers that the HDL-C is less than 40mg/dL.
A manifestation of coronary artery disease is:
Pain that occurs with exertion or exercise.
When oxygen is not available in the mitochondria of the cell, _______ is converted to __________.
Pyruvate, lactic acid
Explanation:
In the absence of adequate oxygen supply, pyruvate is converted to lactic acid, which gradually builds up in muscle cells and the blood.
Which energy system is primarily responsible for resynthesizing ATP during submaximal exercise lasting longer than 3 minutes?
Oxidative phosphorylation
Explanation:
Cells must continuously create ATP at a rate equal to ATP use through a combination of three primary metabolic systems: creatine phosphate (CP), anaerobic glycolysis, and the oxidative system.
Concentric contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes ____________ in the _____________plane.
Extension; sagittal
Explanation:
Most flexion movements will usually occur in the sagittal plane. Note that extension also occurs in the sagittal plane.
Pronation of the radioulnar joint occurs in:
The transverse plane.
Explanation:
Any type of rotational movement will occur in the transverse plane.
Where does blood flow immediately after passing through the tricuspid valve?
Right ventricle
Explanation:
The tricuspid valve is also known as the right A-V valve which controls blood from the right atrium to the right ventricle.
During pregnancy, resistance and flexibility exercises in the supine position should be avoided to prevent which of the following?
Orthostatic hypotension
Explanation:
The supine position may obstruct venous blood flow return to the heart and may result in orthostatic hypotension, which may lead to lightheadedness and fainting.
Which of the following is a positive risk factor?
Walking to and from work 3 days a week, for 20 minutes, for the past 2 months
Explanation:
A risk factor for a sedentary lifestyle is defined as not participating in at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity activity, for a least 3 days a week, for at least 3 months.
Which of the following is the gold standard for assessing cardiorespiratory fitness?
Open circuit spirometry during graded exercise to fatigue
Explanation:
The gold standard used to measure cardiorespiratory fitness is the assessment of VO2max via open circuit spirometry during maximal-intensity, aerobic exercise. However it requires expensive equipment, technical expertise, and maximal-intensity exercise performance by the client.
During graded exercise, which of the following occurs due to large muscle vasodilation?
Total peripheral resistance may drop slightly.
Explanation:
TPR may drop slightly because of the large muscle vasodilation. As a result of this and the contrasting increase in cardiac output, DBP remains relatively stable.
Which of the following is considered a normal hemodynamic response to exercise?
Diastolic blood pressure will remain the same or slightly decrease.
Explanation:
During graded exercise, total peripheral resistance may drop slightly because of the large muscle vasodilation. As a result of this and the contrasting increase in cardiac output, DBP remains relatively stable. SBP, however, will increase linearly with exercise intensity.
An immediate referral to a physician is indicated with a client exhibits signs or symptoms of which of the following?
Syncope during mild exertion
Explanation:
There are several outward signs or symptoms that may indicate a client has current CPM disease. She is considered high risk regardless of the number of CPM disease risk factors present, and the client should be immediately referred to a physician before proceeding any further with exercise testing or programming.
For high school and college athletes, preparticipation screening primarily functions to:
Detect potential cardiac issues.
Explanation:
High school and college athletes are typically required to have a preparticipation screening, which is one means of detecting potential cardiac issues and thus preventing sudden cardiac death.
Which of the following BEST describes shoulder impingement?
Compression of the tendons in the subacromial space with shoulder joint motion
Explanation:
Impingement usually refers to the entrapment of the supraspinatus tendon. This is typically caused by a narrowing of the subacromial space which is located between the acromion and head of the humerus.
Which of the following is an endurance exercise training adaptation that benefits those with coronary artery disease?
Provides relief of symptoms
Explanation:
Most individuals with CAD have a subnormal functional capacity and may be limited by symptoms at relatively low levels of exertion. Training improves myocardial oxygen supply, decreased oxygen demand, or both and may provide relief of angina pectoris (i.e., chest pain/discomfort).
Which of the following is a self-guided screening questionnaire that focuses on symptoms of heart disease and possible musculoskeletal problems needing evaluation before beginning an exercise program?
Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)
Explanation:
The PAR-Q+ is a less extensive self-guided questionnaire than the AHA/ACSM Health/Fitness Facility Preparticipation Screening Questionnaire.
Before any health and fitness assessment is administered, the MOST important first course of action is to:
Explain and demonstrate each assessment before the client is tested.
Explanation:
Familiarity with the assessment will minimize anxiety and confusion, and practice of the assessment movements will enhance assessment results.
Which of the following is recommended by the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute to improve overall health?
Reduce weight by at least 5%
Explanation:
The National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute recommends that a 5% to 10% weight reduction results in improved overall health.
Your potential 37-year-old client is on medication to control her hypertension and wishes to start a moderate-intensity exercise program. She has no other risk factors. You should:
Design an exercise program that starts at a lower intensity.
Explanation:
Since the client only has one risk factor of being on antihypertensive medication, a moderate-intensity exercise program with gradual progression would be appropriate, provided that she is monitored for adverse signs and symptoms.
If difficulties are encountered in calculating a percentage VO2max for prescribing exercise intensity in cases of cardiac disease, the EP-C should instead consider:
Rating of perceived exertion.
Explanation:
Typically, exercise intensity is measured as a percentage of VO2 max, VO2reserve, or heart rate reserve (HRR); however, this may be difficult to calculate in many cases of cardiac disease. In these cases, rating of perceived exertion (RPE) as an alternative measurement of exercise intensity may be useful.
Which of the following movements occur in the sagittal plane of motion?
Glenohumeral flexion
Explanation:
Glenohumeral flexion takes place in the sagittal plane of motion, about the frontal or bilateral axis.
Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding exercise testing and pregnant women?
Submaximal exercise testing is more appropriate, however rarely indicated.
Explanation:
Although submaximal exercise testing is more appropriate for this population, there is usually little need to conduct fitness assessments in pregnant women.
Which of the following is a primary disadvantage of utilizing field tests to predict VO2max?
They are dependent on client effort.
Explanation:
Field tests can be more subjective in nature, largely because of the dependency on client effort, and therefore are not as reliable as laboratory tests for assessing CRF.
Before you design an abdominal exercise program for a client you should FIRST:
Determine and establish neutral pelvic position.
Explanation:
Proper posture and alignment must be promoted from the very beginning in activities of daily living as well as exercise.
The volume of blood pumped by the heart in liters per minute is defined as__________.
Cardiac output
Explanation:
Cardiac output is defined as the product of heart rate and stroke volume.
Where is the majority of ATP generated in the cell?
Mitochondria
Explanation:
Mitochondria are known as the “powerhouse of the cell”, as that is where the majority of ATP is generated.
What joint action of the shoulder is performed during a reverse cable fly or a reverse dumbbell fly?
Horizontal abduction
Explanation:
A reverse cable fly and reverse dumbbell fly begins with the hands together at the shoulder level. The arms perform horizontal abduction by moving the arms back in the transverse plane.
A joint is the most stable when it is in which of the following positions?
Closed pack
Explanation:
A joint is in a closed pack position when there is both maximal congruency of the joint surfaces and maximal tautness of the joint capsule and ligaments. This offers the most stable position for a joint.
A 53-year-old female has family history of a heart attack (father at age 72). If she wishes to participate in moderate-intensity exercise, you should:
Design an exercise program that progresses gradually in intensity and duration.
Explanation:
Note that this client does not have any risk factors. Her father had a heart attack much later in life, so this is not considered a risk factor.
You discover the following information about Rosalyn, your new 54-year-old female client:
BMI = 24.3 (68 inches, 160 lbs)
Total cholesterol: 190 mg · dL−1
HDL cholesterol: 62 mg · dL−1
Blood pressure: 128/84 mm Hg with antihypertensive medication
Former smoker: quit 2 months ago
Family history: Father had a heart attack at age 54
Walks to work 8 minutes each way
3 positive and 1 negative risk factors.
Explanation:
Positive risk factors include hypertension, smoking, and family history. The only negative risk factor is HDL-C levels.
The three planes of motion are
Transverse
Frontal
Sagittal
Transverse plane is
Top and bottom
Frontal plane is
Front and back
Sagittal plane is
Left and right
CVD RISK FACTOR THRESHOLDS for positive are
Age Family history Cigarette smoking Hypertension/ high blood pressure Dyslipidemia / high cholesterol Prediabetes / blood sugar Obesity/ BMI Sedentary lifestyle Points ( +1)
CVD RISK FACTOR THRESHOLDS for negative risk factors
High serum HDL ( >60mg/dL)- good cholesterol
Points ( - 1)
The higher the better
If difficulties are encountered in calculating a percentage VO2max for prescribing exercise intensity in cases of cardiac disease, the EP-C should instead consider:
Rating of perceived exertion (RPE)
Explanation:
Typically, exercise intensity is measured as a percentage of VO2 max, VO2reserve, or heart rate reserve (HRR); however, this may be difficult to calculate in many cases of cardiac disease. In these cases, rating of perceived exertion (RPE) as an alternative measurement of exercise intensity may be useful.
To obtain the health benefits of aerobic exercise, individuals should accumulate at LEAST:
75 minutes per week of vigorous-intensity exercise.
Explanation:
For substantial health benefits, individuals should accrue at least 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity exercise or 75 minutes per week of vigorous-intensity exercise or an equivalent combination of moderate and vigorous aerobic exercise.
Which of the following is utilized to obtain critical client contact information?
client intake form
Explanation:
The Client intake form should be completed when initial client contact is made.
The upper respiratory tract consists of ________.
Nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx
Explanation:
The upper respiratory tract consists of the nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx.
Which of the following includes characteristics of central obesity?
Male waist-hip ratio of 0.91
Explanation:
Central obesity (also referred to as abdominal or android obesity) is associated with a higher risk of cardiometabolic diseases.
Which of the following is associated with a higher risk of cardiometabolic disease?
Android obesity
Explanation:
Central obesity (also referred to as abdominal or android obesity) is associated with a higher risk of cardiometabolic diseases.
Which of the following body composition methods passes electrical current through the body in order to assess the impedance to that current?
Bioelectrical impedance analysis
Explanation:
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) is a rapid, noninvasive body composition assessment tool where a harmless electrical current is passed through the body and the impedance to that current is measured.
Per the latest ACSM position stand, the MINIMUM threshold of frequency for aerobic exercise is:
Moderate-intensity aerobic exercise, 5 days per week.
Explanation:
Moderate-intensity aerobic exercise should be done at least 5 days per week or vigorous-intensity aerobic exercise done at least 3 days per week or a combination of moderate- and vigorous-intensity aerobic exercise done at least 3 days per week.
During a moderate-intensity jog, which energy systems provide the most energy within the first 2–3 minutes?
Creatine phosphate and anaerobic glycolysis
Explanation:
The oxidative energy system does not contribute much energy at the onset of exercise, but is able to sustain energy production for a longer duration. As steady state is reached, or when exercise intensity decreases and allows for longer exercise duration, the relative contribution of the anaerobic energy systems decreases and the relative contribution of the aerobic energy systems increases.
Which of the following is an example of an enarthrodial joint?
Glenohumeral
Explanation:
An enarthrodial joint is a multiaxial joint that permits movements in all directions. This includes the hip joint as well as the glenohumeral joint (shoulder joint).
Which of the following muscles inserts on the humerus?
Pectoralis major
Explanation:
The pectoralis major is one of the larger muscles that produces movement about the shoulder joint and thus attaches to the humerus.
Which of the following best describes the scapular or scaption plane?
30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane
Explanation:
The scapula lies in the scapular plane (also known as scaption) that lies 30 degrees anteriorly, relative to the frontal plane.
During the contraction phase of a biceps curl, the palms are ___________.
Supinated
Explanation:
Supination refers to position of the radiounlar joint where the wrist joint is rotated so that the thumb is positioned on the lateral side of the arm.
Joints between bones, along with bones and ligaments, collectively make up what system?
The articular system
Explanation:
Joints are the articulations between bones, and along with bones and ligaments, they constitute the articular system.
The study of the mechanics of human movement is called:
Kinesiology.
Explanation:
This is a basic definition of kinesiology.
A weight loss of what percent is associated with a reduction in health risks?
10%
Explanation:
Traditional behavioral weight loss programs that encourage reduced calorie intake and increased caloric expenditure typically resulted in a loss of 10% of initial body weight, an amount associated with a reduction of related health risks.
Which of the following hemodynamic variables have an inverse relationship and are heavily influenced by one another during exercise?
Diastolic blood pressure and total peripheral resistance
Explanation:
Conversely, diastolic blood pressure is heavily influenced by TPR. During dynamic, large muscle mass exercise, vascular beds within active muscles vasodilate, decreasing resistance within these blood vessels.
How many ATP molecules are produced when glycogen is broken down into pyruvate?
3
Explanation:
The net energy yield for anaerobic glycolysis, without further oxidation through the subsequent oxidative systems, is two ATPs if glucose is the substrate and three ATPs if glycogen is the substrate.
Your client forgets to bring the service introduction packet but is dressed appropriately for exercise. You should:
Reschedule the appointment, and underscore the importance of having all forms completed and signed.
Explanation:
To protect you and the client, have up-to-date information on the client’s health and medical history, a signed medical clearance form from his physician, and a signed informed consent BEFORE training commences.
What amount of weekly, moderate-to-vigorous physical activity is recommended for better weight maintenance following weight loss.
250 minutes per week.
Explanation:
To prevent general weight gain, engaging in MVPA for at least 150 minutes a week is typically sufficient; however, the ACSM position stand indicates that engaging in more than 250 minutes a week of MVPA would result in better weight maintenance.
At submaximal workloads, which training effects from regular exercise are typically seen in systolic blood pressure, diastolic blood pressure, and mean arterial pressure?
SBP, DBP, and MAP are decreased slightly.
Explanation:
As a result of training, SBP, DBP, and MAP are all reduced slightly at submaximal workloads.
The frequency of breathing multiplied by the volume of air moved per breath, per minute, is known as:
Pulmonary ventilation.
Explanation:
Pulmonary ventilation is the volume of air inhaled and exhaled per minute. It is calculated by multiplying the frequency of breathing by the volume of air moved per breath (tidal volume).
ACSM recommends a diagnostic exercise test for clients with:
Type 2 diabetes for at least 10 years.
Explanation:
ACSM recommends a diagnostic exercise test for clients with Type 2 diabetes greater than 10 years in duration.
For which of the following conditions are a medical release or a physician-supervised exercise test unncessary prior to beginning an exercise program?
Well-controlled exercise-induced asthma
Explanation:
A client with well-controlled exercise-induced asthma is often able to participate in activity without physician clearance, assuming he is otherwise healthy and does not meet the criteria for moderate or high risk.
Which of the following would be considered a negative risk factor for ACSM risk classification?
HDL-C of 60 mg · dL−1
Explanation:
HDL-C greater than or equal to 60 mg/dL is one negative risk factor used in the ACSM Risk Classification. If the client meets this one criterion, then subtract one from the total sum of the positive risk factors. HDL-C participates in reverse cholesterol transport and may thus lower the risk of CVD.
Most commercial exercise equipment has a “caution” that is MOST crucial for:
Men ≥45 years old.
Explanation:
A “caution” listed on most commercially available exercise equipment is MOST crucial for men 45 years of age or older, or women 55 years of age or older.
Which of the following is a rationale for an initial screening?
Provide baseline data as a motivational tool for progress
Explanation:
One reason to conduct an initial screening for clients interested in physical activity is to provide benchmark data as an effective motivational tool for client goal setting.
Which of the following is considered a gliding joint?
Sacroiliac
Explanation:
The sacroiliac joint connects the sacrum to the ilium on each side and is sometimes described as a gliding joint. It is capable of relatively little movement.
When looking at postural alignment from a lateral view, the vertical plumb line should be: ________.
Slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus.
Explanation:
The vertical line should fall slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus.
During the concentric phase of a hamstring curl, the hamstrings are __________.
Flexed
Explanation:
The hamstrings flex the knee joint when a concentric action occurs.
The shoulder girdle refers to which specific joint?
Scapulothoracic
Explanation:
The shoulder girdle is also known as the scapulothoracic joint. This is not a true joint, as the scapula has no true bony articulation with the thoracic spine, but is instead held in place by muscle attachments.
What type of blood pressure response to acute exercise is seen in children that is different when compared with adults?
BP decreases and DBP decreases.
Explanation:
The physiological response to acute exercise in children is comparable to that in their adult counterparts. An exception here is SBP decreases (usually increases with adults) and DBP decreases (usually no change or slight increase).
Following the initial client contact, what are the next steps after the client has completed and returned all forms to you?
Review paperwork and clarify goals.
Explanation:
A detailed health and fitness history is necessary for screening, appropriate follow-up if needed, and validation of preferences and goals.
Tom is a 65-year-old normal healthy male who has exercised consistently for the last 5 years. While having him perform a set of abdominal crunches (a new exercise for him), he reports a gradual onset of a “dull ache” and “slight burn” in his neck toward the end of the set. Upon set completion, these feelings subside.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Continue the exercise as part of his regimen, and provide education.
Explanation:
The Certified Exercise Physiologist must be alert to any and all feedback to ensure that the program is appropriate. As part of the informed consent, the client should be informed of what can be expected with respect to normal sensations and regular responses during resistance training.
The most common dietary fats are:
Triglycerides
Explanation:
Triglycerides are the most common form of dietary fats and oils; short-chain fatty acids are uncommon, and polyunsaturated fats lower blood cholesterol.
So that clients do not call at the last minute to let you know they will not be able to make a session, the Certified Exercise Physiologist–Client Agreement must include clear language with respect to the:
Cancellation policy.
Explanation:
The cancellation policy makes clear to the client the financial ramifications of not making arrangements to reschedule an appointment per the agreement.
All of the following components make up total energy expenditure ( TEE) EXCEPT:
1) Thermic effect of food.
2) Physical activity expenditure.
3) Resting metabolic rate.
4) Adiabatic transfer
Adiabatic transfer
Explanation:
There are three components to determining TEE: resting energy expenditure (REE or resting metabolic rate [RMR] or basal metabolic rate) accounting for 60%-70% TEE, thermic effect of food accounting for 10% TEE, and physical activity expenditure accounting for 20%-30% TEE.
Which of the following refers to oxygen consumption in relative terms?
53 ml · kg · min
Explanation:
Oxygen consumption refers to the rate at which oxygen is consumed by the body. It can be expressed in absolute (L/min) or relative (mL/ kg/min) terms.
The functions of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems are to:
Supply oxygen and remove waste products from the body.
Explanation:
The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work in synchrony to provide oxygen and remove waste from the body.
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of pulmonary disease?
Shortness of breath at mild exertion
Explanation:
Dyspnea is expected in most individuals during moderate to severe exertion, such as stair climbing. However, shortness of breath at rest or at mild exertion may be an indication of underlying cardiac and/or pulmonary disease.
For individuals younger than 30 years of age, the most common cause/s of sudden cardiac death is/are:
congenital and hereditary abnormalities
Explanation:
For young individuals (younger than 30 years), the most common causes of sudden cardiac death are congenital and hereditary abnormalities.
Which of the following joints favors mobility over stability?
Glenohumeral
Explanation:
The shoulder has a high degree of mobility; as a result, the shoulder region is very unstable.
Which of the following is considered a hinge joint?
Elbow
Explanation:
The elbow joint is a hinge joint and also consists of two other articulations in the humeroulnar and humeroradial joints.
