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DVM3 > Dogs and Cats > Flashcards

Dogs and Cats Flashcards

1
Q

How long is the average interoestrus interval is dogs?

How long does it take for canine primary oocytes to mature?

A

7 months (1 yr in a Basenji)

48-72 hours (2-3 days)

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2
Q

What is the average duration of proestrus, oestrus (how long does LH surge last for?), dioestrus and anoestrus in the bitch?

A

Proestrus: 9d
Oestrus: 9d, LH surge for 24-28 hours
Dioestrus: 57d (preg bitch)
Anoestrus: 30d???

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3
Q

How is oestrus determined cytologically?

A

> 90% cells in vaginal smear are cornified epithelial cells

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4
Q

How long will fresh, frozen and chilled semen last?

A

Fresh: 6 d
Chilled: 2d
Frozen: 24 hours

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5
Q

What are breeding reflexes in a bitch?

A

Flagging, Winking, Lordosis

plus vaginal discharge

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6
Q

How will the vagina differ in bitches between stages of the cycle when looked at through a speculum?

A

Pro-oestrus: pink, swollen, rounded folds and moist
Oestrus: pale pink, shrunken and dry
Dioestrus: Hyperaemic areas and rounded folds

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7
Q

In which stages should you expect no neutrophils and no bacteria on a vaginal exam?

A

Will always be bacteria (that’s why cultures are generally a waste of time and money). However, there should be no neutrophils during oestrus due to the cornification of the epithelium

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8
Q

On cytology, how can you distinguish the first day of dioestrus? How about oestrus?

A

Sudden decrease in cornified epithelial cells (<50%) and an increase in the percentage of non-cornified intermediate and parabasal cells

Oestrus >90% cornified cells

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9
Q

What are metoestrus cells?

A

neutrophils found in non-cornified epithelial cells

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10
Q

What is fixed day breeding in bitches?

A

Breed day 12 and 14 after onset of proestrus

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11
Q

What is the importance of relaxin in canine pregnancy and when can it be detected?

A

It is the only specific pregnancy-related protein in the bitches blood that can be used for pregnancy diagnosis. It can be detected after d25 post LH surge and peaks at d 45-50

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12
Q

What is the gold standard for preg dx in dogs and when can it be used>

A

US. as early as 20 d post LH surge. Heartbeats are detectable >d25

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13
Q

How might gestational age be predicted via US in dogs?

A

Gestational sac diameter, body diameter and biparietal diameter

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14
Q

From what timepoint can radiography be used to assess pregnancy in dogs?

A

From d44 post LH surge. Increased accuracy if you wait until ~d55

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15
Q

What are the three stages of parturition in a dog and what do they each entail?

A

Stage I: 6-12 hours long

  • intermittent uterine contractions
  • vagina relaxes, cervix dilates
  • nestingbehaviour, restlessness, vomiting, shivering

Stage II: 3-12 hours

  • Ferguson’s reflex
  • foetal expulsion
  • first pup make take 4 hours. Intervals should be 5-120 mins
  • *should not last for more than 24hrs

Stage III: variable time
-expulsion of allantochorionic membrane

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16
Q

What signs are suggestive of dystocia in dogs? (9)

A
  1. Whelping not observed within 24-36hrs after temp drop
  2. Whelping not observed within 36-48hre after serum prog. drop
  3. Active labour >4 hrs and no pups
  4. Interval of pups is >30 with active pushing
  5. Interval of pups is >2 hrs with no active pushing
  6. Whelping lasts more than 24hrs
  7. Dark green or malodorous discharge prior to whelping *(placental detachments- green comes from marginal haematomas)
  8. Profuse vaginal bleeding
  9. Signs of pain
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17
Q

What two procedures should you always do with canine dystocia?

A
  • vaginal exam

- ultrasonography (foetal viability)

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18
Q

What are some clinical signs of prostatomegaly?

A
  1. Dripping blood from penis
  2. Haematuria
  3. Haemospermia
  4. Tenesmus
  5. Dysuria
  6. Poor semen quality

(In acute prostatitis: fever, anorexia, lethargy)

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19
Q

What are some maternal and foetal factors that contribute to dystocia in dogs?

A

Maternal:

  1. Primary uterine inertia
  2. Secondary inertia
  3. Uterine torsion/rupture
  4. Conformation
  5. Nervous voluntary inhibition of labour

Foetal:

  1. Malpresentation, malpositioning, malposture
  2. Abnormal dvpt
  3. Absolute/relative oversized foetus
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20
Q

At what stage of pregnancy is metritis usually seen?

A

0-7 days post whelping

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21
Q

What are some pharmacological methods of terminating pregnancy in a bitch?

A 
PGF2 alpha (after d5. Off label)
Dopamine agonists (act as prolactin antagonists)
Aglepristone= progesterone receptor antagonist (recommended until d35)
CSs (mimic events at parturition. Effective after day 35)
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22
Q

How might you treat a pseudopregnancy in a bitch? WHat is beleived to be the cause?

A

Prolactin antagonist (prolactin is luteotrophic so stopping its activity leads to luteolysis)= Cabergoline

dropping progesterone levels in combination with increasing prolactin levels

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23
Q

What is the pathogenesis of pyometra?

A

Bitches within 8-12 weeks of last heat are most commonly affected.
Leukocyte inhibition and decreased myometrial contractions facilitate bacterial growth as well as uterine stromal and epithelial proliferation/ increased glandular secretion

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24
Q

What breeds are more commonly predisposed to pyometra?

A

CKCS, Burmese mountain dog, miniature schnauzer, leonberger

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25
Q

How can you treat pyometra?

A

Best option is ovariohysterectomy. If not possible, give:

  • aglepristone and low dose PGF2alpha (24-48 hours later)
  • antibiotics (broad spec)
  • treat systemic signs if indicated

(if no response to tx within 5 days, poor prognosis)

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26
Q

What are a bitch’s chances of falling pregnant? when is a fertility exam justified?

A

75% chance given right conditions and given they are both fertile
After 2 empty consecutive cycles

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27
Q

What is a split heat?

A

Occurs mostly in young bitches

=physiological and behavioural signs of pro-oestrus without progression to oestrus.

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28
Q

What is Mibolerone?

A

Recommended drug to delay the onset of oestrus (off-label). Need to start at least 1 month before oestrus.

C/I in prepubertal bitches and dogs with renal/hepatic disease

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29
Q

How might you treat adult vaginitis in a bitch?

A

Difficult!

Phenylpropanolamine is recommended

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30
Q

What are the 3 phases in prostatic development? What is the active androgen responsible for progression between these phases?

A

I: embryonic and juvenile development
II: hyperplasia in dogs 2.5-12 years
III: senile involution in dogs >12 years
5-alpha-DHT

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31
Q

How might you dx prostatomegaly?

A 
rectal palp.
x-ray
cytology and culture of prostatic fluid
retrograde cysturethrography
urinalysis
biopsy
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32
Q

For prostatic diseases (except neoplasia) what is the treatment of choice? What other options are there?

A

CASTRATION!
Finasteride if castration is not an option. can also use deslorelin (GnRH agonist) or tamoxifen (oestrogen receptor blocker)

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33
Q

What is the normal total sperm number expected in a dog?

A

300 million to 2 billion (>80% should be normal)

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34
Q

When do cats usually reach puberty?? How long is their interoestrus interval?

A

6-9 mo

2-3 weeks (spring, summer and autumn)

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35
Q

What are the stages of the feline oestrus cycle?

A

Pro-oestrus: 1.2 d
Oestrus: 7.2 d
Interoestrus (if ovulation doesn’t occur): 8-10 days
Dioestrus (if ovulation does occur): 40 d in pseudoprg, 60 d in preg cat
Anoestrus: variable= ovarian quiescence

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36
Q

Where is the subdermal plexus located in dogs and cats?

A

Superficial and deep to the cutaneous trunk muscles in the head, neck, thorax and abdomen (allows sit movement of skin during reconstructive processes)

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37
Q

Why is it important to undermine the skin below the level of the subdermal plexus?

A

To maintain blood supply to the skin

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38
Q

What are the three main phases of wound healing? How long do they each last for?

A

Infl. (1-3 days)
Repair (proliferation): 3-21 days
Maturation (remodelling) months to years

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39
Q

What is the importance of viscoelasticity in skin?

A

Initial pliability
Tendency to return to its original shape when deforming stress is removed
Ability to adapt when prolonged stress is applied (used by surgeons to relieve tension on primary suture line)

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40
Q

What are shear forces?

A

Forces acting on one wound edge may oppose the forces acting on the apposed wound edge (axillary, inguinal area, foot pad, joints)

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41
Q

What are Halstead’s principles?

A 
Strict aseptic technique 
Gentle tissue handling
Meticulous haemostasis
Preservation of blood supply
Obliteration of dead space
Accurate apposition of tissue planes
Minimal tension on tissues
Removal of necrotic tissue
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42
Q

A penrose drain is what type?

A

Passive drain

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43
Q

What is the difference between an active and passive drain?

A

Passive drains are gravity dependent . They’re anchored proximal in subcut space with suture and exit ventrally through separate stab incision. Fluid drainage is proportional to surface area.

Active drains utilise a closed collection reservoir system. Fenestrated drain attached to silastic tube is used (eg. Jackson Pratt drain)

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44
Q

When should active drains be removed?

A

When fluid production decreases after 2-5 days (when fluid production is <1-2 ml/kg/24hr

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45
Q

What is a seroma?

A

A subcut accumulation or pocket of protein-enriched serum in a closed wound. Often a result of poor dead space closure or in areas of high motion and often self-limiting

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46
Q

What does open wound management infer?

A

Allowing wounds to heal by secondary intention (goes through process of contraction and epithelialization). If wounds are large, have extensive tissue damage and are contaminated/infected.

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47
Q

Granulation tissue is resistant to infection due to its excellent blood supply. True or false?

A

True

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48
Q

What is pre-suture?

A

Tie loose sutures and pack material under sutures. Tighten sutures a little each day. Used for large wounds

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49
Q

What areas are tension relieving sutures useful?

A

Extremities

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50
Q

What do you use vertical mattress sutures for?

A

Early stages of wound healing

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51
Q

What is V to Y plasty?

A

Use a v shape incision to enable for skin available for closure

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52
Q

Is flap viability less or more reliable than the axial pattern flaps?
How can you increase chance of flap viability?

A

Less reliable. Base of flap should be wider than the tip to increase viability

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53
Q

What is staging?

A

Tests that screen for metastasis of tumours

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54
Q

In what breeds of dogs are cutaneous mast cell tumours common?

A

Boxers, Retrievers, Pugs, Boston terriers and Pit bull terriers

  • pugs and boxers are more likely to develop low grade tumours
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55
Q

How is diagnosis of MCT usually made?

A

FNA and cytology

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56
Q

What are some prognostic factors of canine mast cell tumours?

A

Histopathological grade
Histopathological margins
Mitotic index (ie. #mitoses in 10 high power fields)
Stage

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57
Q

What age cats do histiocytic MCT more commonly occur in?

A

Younger cats

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58
Q

Multiple cutaneous MCT tumours in cats are often associated with what?

A

Splenic mast cell tumours

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59
Q

How can you dx and tx soft tissue sarcomas?

A

Biopsy often needed (as they are not commonly exfoliative)

Tx may include surgery, radiation therapy and chemo (if high grade)

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60
Q

What is a feline injection site sarcoma? (3 criteria)

How are they diagnosed?

A

Due to vaccines. Presents 3 or more months post vaccine, mass is equal to or greater than 2cm and mass is growing more than 1 month post vaccine

Incisional biopsy needed (not exc)

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61
Q

What is the risk of metastasis for a soft tissue sarcoma?

A

Grade 1-2 <15%
Grade 3 40-50%
Mitotic index >9 = poor prognosis

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62
Q

What are risk factors for canine mammary gland tumours?

A

Age >7-8 (
Hormone exposure
Breed (smaller dogs, springer spaniel, english setter)
Weight

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63
Q

Are caudal or cranial mammary glands more often affected by mammary gland tumours?

A

Caudal

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64
Q

What are prognostic factors for canine mammary gland tumours? Compare with a cat.

A 
Histologic grade
Lymphatic invasion
Size (<3cm is best) [in cat <2cm is best]
LN involvement
Metastasis
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65
Q

What are risk factors for feline mammary gland tumours?

A

Age >7-9
hormone exposure (if spayed <1 yr 90% risk red)
Breed (siamese)

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66
Q

Are mammary gland tumours often malignant?

A

Up to 90% malignant in cats

50% in dogs

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67
Q

What are the 5 phenotypic indicators of CAD?

A
  1. High IgE responder
  2. Low ceramide
  3. Low Filaggrin expression
  4. Claudin 1 mutation
  5. TLR 2 mutation
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68
Q

Dx of canine atopic dermatitis is based on what?

A
  1. Signalment (young age of onset)
  2. Clinical signs
  3. Exclusion of other Ddx
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69
Q

What are the two most common pathogens associated with secondary infection relating to CAD?

A

Staphylococcus pseudointermedius

Malassezia pachydermatitis

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70
Q

What are the best options for treating secondary bacterial infections associated with CAD?

A
  1. Cephalexin
  2. Enrofloxacin

(treat for at least a week beyond resolution)

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71
Q

What are characteristic signs of a staph. pseudointermedius skin infection?

A

Target lesions and epidermal collarettes

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72
Q

What are the organisms most commonly responsible for dermatophytosis in dogs and cats?

A
  1. Microsporum canis (in cats)
  2. Microsporum gypseum
  3. Trichophyton spp.
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73
Q

What are some rules for doing a food elimination trial? (4)

How is a food allergy confirmed?

A

Minimum 8 wks
Need to control concurrent itch triggers
Give oclactinib (anti-pruritic) for first 6 weeks
Total compliance needed

Confirmed if:

  • resolution of symptoms on elimination diet
  • symptoms reappear within 14 days of being re-challenged
  • symptoms resolve again once elimination diet repeated
  • sequential re-challenge (single item) identifies allergen
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74
Q

When should a schirmer tear test be done and why?

A

In animals with ocular discharge or conjunctivitus. At the start of a consultation because general, topical and sedation cause a decrease in tear production

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75
Q

How do you perform a schirmer tear test?

A

Tear strips are placed in the lateral component of the conjunctival fornix. Strips need to contact the cornea bc they measure both basal and reflex tear production. Tear production should be measured over 60s

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76
Q

What is retroillumination useful for?

A

locating lesions within cornea, anterior chamber and vitreous body

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77
Q

What is aqueous flare? What does it indicate?

A

=pathognomonic for uveitis. Appears as white light scatter between the focal light reflections on the cornea and anterior lens capsule. Light scatter occurs as incident light beam hits WBCs, plasma and fibrin in the inflammed eye

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78
Q

What are approximate normal STT readings in dogs, cats and horses?

A

Dogs: 15-225
Cats: 10
Horses: 20-30

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79
Q

What is tonometry and what is it used for?

A

Measurement of intraocular pressure. Used to differentiate between glaucoma and uveitis in animals presenting with red eye

Note: sedation, nerve blocks and head position can all affect IOP but clinically insig

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80
Q

How are Fluoroscein strips applied? How do they work?

A

Strip should be placed onto the bulbar conjunctiva and do not touch the cornea bc this might create false positives.

Binds to mucous threads, granulation tissue, rough epithelium and it will sit in shallow facets under surface tension (eg. healed corneal ulcer)

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81
Q

Where do you do nerve blocks in a horse for eye examination?

A

Supra orbital block (trigem) or auriculopalpebral block (facial nerve)

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82
Q

What is the fundus of the eye?

A

Collective term to describe all structures visible with an opthalmoscope in the posterior part of the globe (ie. sclera, choroids, tapetum, retinal pigment epithelium, neural retina, optic nerve head and retinal vasculaure)

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83
Q

What is the difference between direct and indirect opthalmoscopy?

A
  1. Monocular view [binocular]
  2. Ltd field of view (10-15 degrees) [35degrees]
  3. Poor view in hazy media [better]
  4. Peripheral lesions difficult to visualise
  5. Difficult to use during surgery
  6. mag 0
  7. higher mag
  8. virtual and erect image [real and inverted]
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84
Q

What can be used to dilate the pupil for a dark room exam?

A

tropicamide

85
Q

What are the 3 causes of a discharging eye?

A
  1. increased ocular discharge
  2. Impaired drainage
  3. Both increased production and impaired drainage
86
Q

What is uveitis?

A

Infl. of uvea (iris, ciliary body and/or choroid)

87
Q

How would you describe:

a) watery discharge from the eye
b) Inflammation of the nasolacrimal duct
c) Hair growing through meibomian glands

A

a) epiphora
b) dacryocystis
c) Trichiasis

88
Q

In many young cats, entropion is secondary to something. What? How about in older dogs and cats?

A

FHV conjunctivitis and corneal ulceration

Secondary to orbital fat and enopthalmos

89
Q

What breeds are predisposed to keratoconjunctivitis sicca?

A

Cavies, westies, bulldogs, pugs, cocker spaniels and schanauzers

Dogs with DM
Cats with FHV

90
Q

What is the vascular and nerve supply of the ear?

A

Great auricular artery (branch of the external carotid)
Motor innervation: facial nerve (exits via stylomastoid foramen)
Sensory info: branches of vagus

91
Q

The ear canal is lined by statified squamous epithelium containing hair follicles and both sebaceous and ceremonious glands. Where are these glands more abundant?

A

Vertical portion of ear canal.

92
Q

Systemic metastasis of haemangiosarcomas is most commonly in which locations?

A

Lungs and parenchyma organs such as liver and spleen

93
Q

What is the most common feline cutaneous neoplasm?

A

Basal cell tumours (typically small, slow growing, well-demarcated lesions)

94
Q

What are histiocytomas?

A

Typically raised, hairless lesions with a higher incidence in young animals

95
Q

In which cases is vertical ear canal ablation indicated?

A

Disease process involving only the vertical component of the canal and the horizantal canal is normal

96
Q

For what conditions is a total ear canal ablation and bulla osteotomy indicated?

A

Extensive otitis externa
Failed lateral wall resection
Extension of inflammatory disease into the middle ear
Management of ceruminous adenocarcinoma

97
Q

What is Horner’s syndrome and what are the clinical signs of it?

A

= damage to the sympathetic fibres running in the middle ear

  • Ptosis
  • Protrusion of 3rd eyelid
  • Pupillary dilation
  • Enopthalmos
98
Q

What is pannus disease? In which breed of dog is it commonly seen?

A

Chronic superficial keratitis (infl. condition of the cornea). commonly seen in GSDs. Involves third eyelid blepharitis

99
Q

How might you go about treating ulcerative keratitis with stromal loss in a dog? (deep corneal ulceration)

A
  1. Debride/ conjunctival graft
  2. Temp tarsorrhaphy
  3. Topical A/bs
  4. Topical atropine
  5. Supportive therapy
100
Q

With regards to insult to the eye, how long does it take for blood vessels to start growing?

A

Takes about a week for them to start growing and they grow about 1mm/day

101
Q

What makes tears red?

A

Lactoferrin is what makes the tears red. It is a normal component of the tears

102
Q

What is feline keratitis nigrans?

What breeds is it most common in?

How may it be treated?

A

Also known as corneal sequestration/ corneal mummification. The epithelium, the superficial stroma and, occasionally, the deep stroma are subject
to necrosis which confers a blackish colour on the affected region. May be secondary to feline herpes virus keratitis, lower eyelid entropion or exposure.

Common in oriental breeds.

Tx. Treat primary cause. artificial tears, surgery (keratectomy with button graft, pedicle graft or corneoconjunctival transposition

103
Q

A highly vascular iris plus a distorted pupil is very much a sign of what?

A

Lymphoma

104
Q

What causes keratic precipitates?

A

Ag-Ab collections stuck on epithelium. Classic sign of uveitis.

105
Q

Anterior uveitis may often occur secondary to other diseases. What are some examples in both cats and dogs?

A

Cats: Neoplasia (lymphoma), FIP, toxoplasmosis, FeLV, Cryptococcosis, FHV

Dogs: Lymphoma, uveodermatological syndrome

106
Q

What reflex would you expect to be absent in an animal with glaucoma? Why? What pressures are indicated in primary glaucomas?

A

PLR. Increased pressure creates pressure on optic nerve

IOP>40mmHg

107
Q

What behavioural issues are common in the following breeds?

  • Doberman
  • English Bulldog
  • GSD
  • Australian cattle dog
  • Miniature Schnauzer
  • Siamese/Burmese
A
  • Doberman: flank sucking
  • English Bulldog: Spinning, sticking head between objects and freezing
  • GSD: tail chasing
  • Australian cattle dog: tail chasing
  • Miniature Schnauzer: hind end checking
  • Siamese/Burmese: wool sucking
108
Q

What are some examples of SSRIs? What about some TCAs?

A

Fluoxetine, sertraline

Clomipramine, amitriptyline, doxepin (high anti-histamine effect)

109
Q

Acral lick dermatitis is more common in female large breeds. True/False?

A

False! More common in male large breeds

110
Q

What are some DDx for white/ grey crusts?

How about yellow crusts? And dark crusts?

A

White/ grey:

  • scabies
  • endocrinopathies
  • keratinisation defects
  • sebaceous adenitis
  • cutaneous exfoliative lupus erythematosus

Yellow:

  • bacterial infections
  • immune-mediated disease (pemphigus, drug eruptions)

Dark:

  • self trauma
  • immune mediated (DLE, MMP, vasculitis)
111
Q

In what breeds is sebaceous adenitis most common? What is this disease?

A 
Akita
Std poodle
GSD
Golden retriever
Visla
Maltese
Cats
Rabbits

Immune mediated attack of the sebaceous glands (due to unknown trigger)

112
Q

What are some clinical features of sebaceous adenitis? What are some DDx?

How might it be treated?

A

Follicular casting, Dry/ scaly crusty skin, Hair loss, Loss of sebum, Dry exudate within ear canals

(dx via trichogram)

Ddx: squamous demodicosis, cutaneous histiocytosis and pyogranulomatous dermatitis, keratinisation defects

Tx: cyclosporin if active, oil soaks if end stage

113
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to keratinisation defects? What are some ddx for this disease?

A

Cocker spaniels, golden retrievers, irish setters, persian cats, norfolk terriers.

Ddx: squamous demodicosis, sebaceous adenitis, secondary seborrhoea sicca.

114
Q

What is exfoliative cutaneous lupus erythematosus? in which breeds is it mostly seen?

A

A lifelong immune mediated disease which looks similar to sebaceous adenitis. GSHPs and Vizslas. Dogs present very sick (ie. lame, lethargic, peripheral lymphadenopathy, scrotal ulcers, infertility, haematological abnormalities, scaling, erythema, alopecia, erosions, depigmentation etc.)

115
Q

How is exfoliative cutaneous lupus erythematosus treated/ managed?

A

apoquel plus plaquenil

116
Q

What is pemphigus foliaceous?

A

A skin disease in which antibodies are produced against desmosomal proteins, linking proteins and desmoglein 1. This results in loss of cohesion between skin cells (acantholyisis) and pustule formation. True autoimmune disease.

117
Q

What are some clinical signs of pemphigus foliaceous in dogs and cats. What breeds are most commonly affected?

A

Dogs: pustules and epidermal collarettes that target the pinnae, face and limbs and are not responsive to anti-staph A/bs
Cats: crusting on the nasal planum, pinnae, and around nail beds that are also non-responsive…

Akitas, JRT, cocker spaniels, arctic breeds.Siamese derivations, DSH

118
Q

What are some cytological indicators of PF?

A

Ancantholytic cells, non-degenerative neutrophils and absence of cocci

119
Q

What are some ddx for PF in cats and dogs?

A

Cats: pyoderma, miliary dermatitis, mosquito bite hypersens. and dermatophytosis
Dogs: staph folliculitis, drug eruption, dermatophytosis, demodicosis with secondary pyoderma

120
Q

What is discoid lupus erythematosus?

A

Depigmentation and crusting on nasal planum due to UV exposure causing movement of “hidden” cellular proteins to the surface of the cell where the immune system recognises them as foreign and mounts an immune response

  1. Depigmentation, 2. loss of architecture, 3. Erosion, ulceration/ crusting
121
Q

In which breeds is DLE most commonly seen? How might you diagnose DLE?

A

Scotch collies, Border collies, Shetland sheep dogs, Maremma, Weimeraners, Kelpies and GSDs.

Biopsy of non-ulcerated areas. Histopath may also show mononuclear infiltrate along dermoepidermal junction

122
Q

What are some DDx for DLE? How might you treat?

A 
DDx: labrador nasal hyperkeratosis, mucocutaneous pyoderma (GSDs), solar dermatitis
Sun avoidance!! 
Oclacitinib
Plaquenil plus others 
Elidel ointment
123
Q

What is the difference between mucocutaneous lupus erythematosus and mucous membrane pemphigus in GSDs?

A

MCLE (MMP)

  • anal and perianal (oral and perioral)
  • Genital common (genital 13%)
  • May respond to apoquel (more aggressive tx needed)
124
Q

What is lupoid onychodystrophy?

A

Sudden onset of nail shedding affecting multiple nails on multiple feet. (early aggressive tx needed)

125
Q

Why do poodle shed less than other dogs?

A

Because they have a longer anagen phase (growing phase) of hair growth

126
Q

On a trichogram, how can you tell a hair is in anagen phase?

A

The hair is soft and bendy and is keratinised.

127
Q

What are some strong breed associations with regards to alopecia?

A

Alopecia X: Poms, Alaskan Mal., Poodles
Colour-dilute follicular dysplasia: Dobermans, Greyhounds, whippets
Follicular lipidosis: Rottweilers
Recurrent flank alopecia: Airedales, Boxers, English bulldogs, RRs.

128
Q

What are some folliculopathies that may cause failure of hair growth?

A

Traction alopecia
Thermal injury
Ischaemic alopecia
Topical flea spot alopecia

129
Q

Consider the likely condition in the following dogs that present with alopecia:

a. 0-4 weeks
b. 0-9 months
c. 6mo- 3years
d. 3 to aged

A

a. 0-4 weeks: congenital alopecias
b. 0-9 months: black haired follicular dysplasia, pattern baldness, follicular lipidosis
c. 6mo- 3years: colour dilute follicular dysplasia
d. 3 to aged: endocrinopathy, alopecia X

130
Q

What are some potential signs of HyperA? (6)

A
  • PU, PD, PP
  • muscle weakness and lethargy
  • increased panting
  • recurrent skin infections
  • pendulous abdomen (hepatomegaly?)
  • skin changes incl. dull coat, calcinosis cutis, skin atrophy, frictional hair loss.
131
Q

What are some potential signs of HypoT? (7)

A
  • weight gain
  • heat seeking behaviour
  • muscle weakness and lethargy
  • recurrent skin infections
  • decreased fertility in females
  • behavioural changes
  • skin changes such as pyoderma, seborrheoa (esp on ear margin)
132
Q

What is telogen defluxion?

A

Telogen defluxion refers to a condition in which a stressful situation causes the sudden cessation of anagen hair growth and the sudden synchrony of many hair follicles in the telogen hair cycle stage. Later, a sudden shedding and a wave of new hair growth occur.

133
Q

What is canine recurrent flank alopecia?

A

An incompletely understood disorder which causes seasonally recurrent hair loss on the flanks. May be due to artificial light levels and affects on melatonin

134
Q

What causes a dull coat?

A

Optical appearance of hair coat is determined by uniformity of reflected light from the hair (sebum coat). When hairs stp growing, tiles of outer cuticle open up causing an uneven surface and altered light reflection

135
Q

What colour is eumelanin and phaeomelanin?

A

Eumelanin: black

Phaeomelanin= red

136
Q

What causes bronzing of the hair coat?

A

Prolonged telogen phases lead to excessive oxidation of the melanin. Phaeomelanin is more resistant to oxidation. therefore black hair becomes “red” or “bronze”

137
Q

What is colour dilute follicular dysplasia

A

Hair follicles that are misfunctioning due to structural abnormality but only in certain coloured areas.

138
Q

With which disease do you see follicular casting on a trichogram?

A
  1. HyperA
  2. HypoT
  3. Demodex
139
Q

Anagen alopecia may be a sign of …(3). Telogen alopecia might be a sign of… (3)?

A

Anagen:

  1. excess loss
  2. pattern baldness
  3. early follicular dysplasia
Telogen:
1. endocrinopathies
2. alopecia X
3. late follicular dysplasia
(plus canine, recurrent flank alopecia, ovarian cysts and sertoli cell tumours)
140
Q

What are some clinicopathological abnormalities in HyperA?

A

lympohpenia +/- eosinopenia
mild mature neutrophilia
increased ALP, cholesterol, ALT, BG
mild decrease urea plus others

141
Q

Focal superficial oedema of the cornea is indicative of…? Diffuse severe oedema is indicative of…?

A

Epithelial loss

Endothelial dysfunction

142
Q

What is corneal fibrosis?

A

Occurs as a consequence of basement membrane injury and defective regeneration in both the anterior and posterior (Descemet’s BM) cornea.

143
Q

What does mineral infiltration of the cornea look like and what is its significance?

A

Looks like a white hazy spot. Mostly insignificant unless it pushes through cornea

144
Q

What are cataracts?

A

Any opacity of the lens or its capsule.

145
Q

What is senile nuclear sclerosis?

How does it look different to pathological cataracts?

A

Increased opacity of lens that is age related. Onset at 6-8yo and is due to continued growth of lens, lens expansion, and compression of lens centre. Doesn’t become obvious until ~10-12 yo

Looks like a pearl floating around in the eye

146
Q

What is lens luxation? What breeds does it commonly occur in? How does it cause cloudy corneas?

A

Lens displacement due to disruption of zonular fibres. Primary lens luxation occurs in terrier breeds (fibres are not strong from birth). Secondary lens lux can occur with chronic uveitis, glaucoma or trauma.

Causes cloudiness via corneal oedema and cataract formation

147
Q

what is asteroid hyalosis?

A

A degenerative condition of the eye involving small white opacities in the vitreous humour

148
Q

What is famciclovir?

A

An oral antiviral agent

149
Q

What might you use to treat a primary glaucoma?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, PG analogues, topical CSs, analgesia, prophylaxis for other eye

150
Q

What is an electroretinogram useful for?

A

Tests electrical function of the retina. Used to dx Sudden Acquire Retinal Degeneration Syndrome (SARDS) and Progressive retinal atrophy (PRA). Used to screen retinal function prior to cataract surgery

151
Q

What are some congenital/ developmental causes of vision loss?

A
  1. Optic nerve hypoplasia (mini and toy poodles)
  2. Collie Eye anomaly
  3. Retinal dysplasia
  4. Multiple ocular defects
152
Q

What is Collie Eye anomaly?

A

Inherited condition in sheepdogs, aust shepherds, rough/ smooth collies in which there is choroidal hypoplasia and optic nerve coloboma (defect in ON)

153
Q

What are some causes of sudden vision loss in a clear eye? (5)

A
  1. optic neuritis
  2. SARDS
  3. Retinal detachment
  4. central blindness
  5. ivermectin toxicity
154
Q

What are some causes and signs of optic neuritis?

A

Causes: infectious, inflammatory, idiopathic
Signs: sudden vision loss, mydriasis, no PLR

155
Q

What is SARDS? What are some signs/symptoms?

A 
Sudden acquired retinal degeneration syndrome. Cause currently unknown.
Signs/symptoms:
-PLR may be present but slow
-Cushingoid-like symptoms (PU/PD)
-sudden vision loss
-normal opthalmic exam initially
156
Q

What might cause retinal detachment? (6)

A
  • trauma
  • hypertension
  • infection
  • uveitis
  • neoplasia
  • idiopathic
157
Q

How might ivermectin affect the eye?

A

May cause central blindness or see ocular lesions (retinal oedema and folds; optic nerve head swelling)

158
Q

What are some causes of sudden vision loss in a cloudy eye?

A
  1. cataracts
  2. severe bilateral uveitis
  3. bilateral hyphaema
  4. glaucoma
  5. lens luxation
159
Q

Uveitis:

(x) %= immune mediated
(y) % =neoplasia
(z) % = infectious disease

A

x= 50%
y=25%
z= 25%

160
Q

What is hyphaema? What are some causes?

A 
Blood in the anterior chamber of the eye
Causes:
-hypertension
-coagulopathy
-neoplasia
-retinal detcahment
-trauma
-uveitis
-glaucoma
161
Q

What might cause progressive vision loss

A
  1. progressive retinal atrophy
  2. optic nerve atrophy
  3. chronic uveitis
  4. cataracts
  5. surface ocular disease
162
Q

What is PRA? What are some signs?

A

Progressive retinal atrophy= degenerative condition of photoreceptors (rods first then cones). see night vision loss first.

  • bilateral and symmetrical
  • blood vessel thinning
  • tapetal hyper-reflectivity
  • ON head bcomes grey
163
Q

With which conditions is optic nerve atrophy seen?

A
  • chronic glaucoma
  • PRA
  • trauma
  • optic neuritis
164
Q

The middle ear gets innervation from which nerves?

A 
Facial n (CN VII)
Chorda tympani
Glossopharyngeal n (CN IX)
Tympanic plexus
Symp supply fro cranial cervical ganglion
PS supply via CNIX
165
Q

How does the anatomy of the cat ear differ to that of a dog?

A

Cats have a more distinct separation of the ear chambers into a larger ventral cavity and a smaller dorsal cavity corresponding to the epitympanum and mesotympanum of the dog. These are nearly completely separated by a bony septum with a small slit like communication between them.

166
Q

What are some common indications for surgery of the external ear?

A

Aural haematoma, trauma, neoplasia

167
Q

How would you place sutures in the pinna after removal of an aural haematoma and why?

A

Place sutures parallel to long axis of pinna. Placing them perpendicular may result in damage to the vascular supply leading to necrosis.

168
Q

What types of tumours most frequently affect the external ear?

A 
SCC
Haemangioma/ haemangiosarcoma
basal cell tumour
MCT
Histiocytoma
169
Q

What is Zepp’s procedure?

A

Lateral wall resection of the ear. recommended as a tx for chronic otitis externa in order to improve ventilation

170
Q

Major haemorrhage during ear canal ablation may result from ….?

A

Iatrogenic trauma to the retroglenoid vein rostral to the ear canal.

171
Q

What are some clinical signs of facial nerve paralysis?

A

Loss of ipsilateral blink reflex, drooping of the lip and affected ear.

172
Q

What is the most common and important surgical disease of the middle ear?

A

Septic otitis media

173
Q

How might bacteria access the middle ear?

A

Disruption of tympanic membrane (common in dogs)
Via the eustachian tube and pharynx (common in cats)
haematogenously

174
Q

What is glue ear?

A

=primary secretory otitis media= characterised by the accumulation of sterile mucous material within the tympanic chamber and most commonly recognised in CKCSs.

175
Q

What are Infl. Polyps of the ear?

A

Non-neoplastic masses the arise from the epithelail lining of the tympanic chamber or the eustachian tube. most common in cats (most common middle ear disease in cats).

176
Q

What is a VBO and why is it not often done in dogs but often done in cats? What are some complications of it?

A

Ventral bulla osteotomy
Not in dogs due to the high incidence of association of middle ear disease with external ear disease. In cats, VBOs are most common procedure to drain the middle ear.

Complications:
Horner’s syndrome and vestibular disease

177
Q

What are some tx options for an anal gland abscess?

A
  1. lavage and A/bs
  2. cryotherapy

(if abscess is already open and draining)

178
Q

What is a perianal adenoma? What species fo they usually occur in? Are they malignant? How may they be treated?

A

=Hepatoid gland adenoma= third most common tumour of dogs. Don’t occur in cats.
Occur in nodular or diffuse form and are found in the skin under the tail base.

Almost always benign and are androgen dependent.

Tx: Sx with castration, osetrogens, anti-androgens, radiation

179
Q

In which animals are anal sac adenocarcinomas most common? Where do these arise? What is unusual about this tumour?

A

Older female dogs
Arise from the apocrine glands of the anal sacs. They are highly malignant and metastasize to the sublumbar and sacral lymph nodes.

Produces a hormonally active substance similar to PTH so dogs may present pseudo-hyperparathyroidism.

180
Q

What are some benefits of desexing female dogs?

A
  • pop control
  • reduced risk of mammary neoplasia
  • tx of behavioural conditions/ other medical conditions
  • council registration
181
Q

What are some diseases in which an ovariohysterectomy is a good treatment option?

A

Pyometra
Metritis
Subinvolution of placental sites
Uterine torsion, proplapse, rupture or neoplasia

182
Q

What is an ovarioectomy?

A

Removal of ovaries and part of uterine horn

183
Q

When should females (males) be desexed? What are some considerations of early desexing?

A

~6mo: before first or second oestrus (6-9mo)

  • decreased stress and operative time?
  • anaesthetic risk
  • assurance animal is desexed when rehomed
  • decreased maturation of genitalia
  • increased incidence of oestrogen responsive urinary incontinence
  • increased risk of bony neoplasia in giant breeds
184
Q

What are some considerations when desexing bitches in season?

A
  1. Uterus is more friable and has an increased blood supply

2. Oestrogen can have a detrimental effect on haemostatic mechanisms

185
Q

Ovarian remnant syndrome most commonly involves the right or left ovary?

A

Right

186
Q

Entire cats have ___x the incidence of mammary tumours cf spayed queens

A

7x

187
Q

What supplies blood to the ovary and cranial aspect of the uterus?

A

Ovarian artery

*The right ovarian a. drains into the caudal VC, the left into the left renal vein

188
Q

The uterine artery is a branch of what?

A

Internal pudendal artery

189
Q

What are some pros and cons of laparoscopic ovariohysterectomies?

A

Pros: minimally invasive, excellent visualisation of anatomic structures
Cons: Costly equipment, learning curve

190
Q

What are some indications for C-sections in dogs?

A
  1. Prolonged gestation (>70d)
  2. Primary uterine inertia refractory to medical treatment
  3. Secondary uterine inertia
  4. Foetal HR <150
  5. Foetal oversize/ death, malpresentation etc.
191
Q

What suture pattern is recommended to close off after a C-section?

A

Cushing or Lembert pattern

192
Q

What bacterium is most commonly isolated in pyometra?

A

E. Coli (then strep and staph)

193
Q

What are some clinical signs and signalment for pyometra?

A
  • Older bitches (>6 years)
  • Within 8-12 weeks of previous season
  • Temp normal (or incr)
  • anorexia/ depression
  • V+/ D+
  • PU/PD
  • +/- vag discharge

-low USG, azotaemia, anaemia, left shift and toxic change, leukocytosis

194
Q

How may vaginal prolapse be differentiated from vaginal oedema (vaginal hyperplasia)?

A

Vaginal prolapse is circumferential prolapse of the vagina. Vaginal oedema in swollen vaginal mucosa which allows a transverse fold to prolapse through the vulva. The fold arises from the floor of the vagina, cranial to urethral orifice

195
Q

What are the most common neoplasias of the vulva/ vagina?

A

Leiomyoma, fibroma, lipoma (benign)

Leiomyosarcoma

196
Q

What is an epesioplasty?

A

Surgical procedure to tx perivulvar dermatitis

197
Q

What are some indications for castration?

A
  • Pop control
  • Prevent behavioural issues
  • Prevent/tx testicular tumours and prostatic diseases
  • Tx of perianal adenoma and testicular torsion
198
Q

What are some indications for scrotal ablation?

A
  1. Cosmetic (older dogs with pendulous scrotum)
  2. Scrotal/ testicular neoplasia
  3. Post castration if scrotal haematoma occurs
199
Q

At what age do you dx crytporchidism?

A

By 6 months (R. testicle more commonly affected)

200
Q

What are the most common primary neoplasms of the testis?

A
  1. Sertoli Cell tumours
  2. Interstitial (leydig) cell tumours
  3. Seminomas
201
Q

An interstitial (leydid ) cell tumour results in…?

A

Increased testosterone production and potential for metastasis (rare)

202
Q

What is a seminoma? Does it metastasise?

A

Neoplastic change in cells responsible for spermatogenesis. 6-11% metastatic rate (LN, epididymis and tunics, lungs)

203
Q

The prostate is a secondary sex gland that is situated….?

A

caudal to the bladder completely encircling the proximal urethra (in dogs. Does not completely circle in cats)

204
Q

What are some clinical signs of prostatic disease? What ways can you obtain a diagnostis?

A
  1. Dyschezia/ constipation
  2. Urethral bleeding/ discharge
  3. Pyrexia
  4. Hindlimb stiffness/ weakness

US guided FNA, prostatic wash, radiography, US, palpation

205
Q

What is phimosis?

Paraphimosis?

A

Inability to extrude penis

Inability to retract penis within prepuce

206
Q

What are some clinical signs of urethral prolapse in male dogs?

A

Haematuria, bleeding form penile tip, licking, red-purple mass?

207
Q

What are some penile neoplasias? (note, they are uncommon in dog and rare in cat)

A 
TVT
Papilloma
SCC
MCT
Osteosarcoma (os penis)
208
Q

What is feminisation syndrome?

A

Caused by Sertoli cell tumours (16-39%) involving symmetrical alopecia, pendulous prepuce, penile atrophy, attraction to other male dogs. Have potential to metastasise to LN (medial iliac, sublumbar and inguinal), lungs, liver, spleen, pancreas and kidneys

DVM3 (13 decks)

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