documentation Flashcards

1
Q

1) The subjective narrative includes information that is elicited:

A) during history taking.

B) from public records.

C) by observing the patient’s actions.

D) from dispatch information.

A

during history taking

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2
Q

2) The best method for completing the narrative section of the PCR is:

A) dependent on the nature of the call.

B) the CHART format.

C) the patient management format.

D) the SOAP format.

A

dependent on the nature of the call

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3
Q

3) An addition or a supplement to an original report is called a(n):

A) supplement.

B) add-on.

C) addendum.

D) appendix.

A

addendum

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4
Q

4) When your patient refuses care and transportation, even though you have communicated to the patient that you feel it is necessary, the patient is refusing:

A) against medical control (AMC).

B) with impaired decision-making (WID).

C) with informed consent (WIC).

D) against medical advice (AMA).

A

AMA

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5
Q

5) The paramedic’s general impression is documented in the:

A) subjective narrative.

B) assessment/management plan.

C) objective narrative.

D) diagnosis section.

A

objective narrative

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6
Q

6) Which of the following refers to the time between dispatch of a unit and its arrival on the scene?

A) On-scene

B) Response

C) Dispatch

D) Transport

A

response

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7
Q

7) What is the problem with the treatment in the following narrative?

The pt. complained of chest pain x 2 days before calling EMS and is now also c/o SOB. Vitals BP 90/50, HR 40, labored with retractions. Treated with O2 and atropine. Upon arrival the pt. felt better.

A) No dosages are stated.

B) The patient should have received transcutaneous pacing.

C) Nothing documented supports the treatment given.

D) A and C are both problematic.

A

A and C are both problematic

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8
Q

8) The format that uses a chronological account from the time of arrival on scene to the time of transfer of care is known as:

A) patient management.

B) body systems.

C) head-to-toe.

D) SOAP.

A

patient management

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9
Q

9) The only truly factual record of the events on an EMS call is the:

A) emergency department chart.

B) prehospital care report.

C) communications center report.

D) medical control report.

A

prehospital care report

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10
Q

10) Pertinent clinical information should be documented in the:

A) subjective narrative.

B) objective narrative.

C) treatment section.

D) clinical narrative.

A

objective narrative

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11
Q

11) An essential component of good documentation is the appropriate use of:

A) subjective opinions.

B) administrative research.

C) medical terminology.

D) medical metaphors.

A

medical terminology

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12
Q

12) Which of the following documents containing vital information is affixed to the patient during large-scale incidents with multiple patients?

A) MedicAlert tags

B) PCRs

C) MCI narratives

D) Triage tags

A

triage tags

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13
Q

13) What is the correct abbreviation for potassium?

A) K++

B) K-

C) K+

D) K

A

K+

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14
Q

14) Which of the following allows you to increase the amount of information you can quickly and efficiently write on your PCR?

A) Acronyms and abbreviations

B) Pertinent negatives

C) Time stamps

D) Medical terms

A

acronyms and abbreviations

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15
Q

15) Which of the following types of records provides the basis for continuous improvement of patient care in the EMS system?

A) EMS supervisor administrative reports

B) Medical control radio logs

C) Prehospital care reports

D) The dispatch center log

A

prehospital care reports

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16
Q

16) The prehospital care report should document all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) objective observations.

B) treatments provided.

C) pertinent negatives.

D) subjective opinions.

A

subjective opinions

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17
Q

17) You are completing your PCR and cannot remember the correct spelling of a medical term. You should:

A) try to spell the word, even if you are wrong.

B) make up an abbreviation for the word.

C) cross out the sentence and indicate an error.

D) use plain English instead.

A

use plain English instead

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18
Q

18) The abbreviation Hgb stands for:

A) millimeters of mercury.

B) hematocrit.

C) history.

D) hemoglobin.

A

hemoglobin

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19
Q

19) What is one of the common problems with documenting times?

A) Medical terminology

B) Abbreviations and acronyms

C) Inconsistencies between dispatch and ambulance clocks

D) Check boxes

A

inconsistencies between dispatch and ambulance clocks

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20
Q

20) Confidentiality of a patient’s prehospital care report is:

A) forfeited by the patient when he consents to treatment.

B) not applicable to patients who are not expected to survive.

C) not applicable to noncitizens.

D) the patient’s legal right.

A

the patients legal right

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21
Q

21) Which of the following individuals may make changes and additions to the original chart?

A) The medical direction physician

B) The original author’s partner

C) The original author

D) All of the above

A

the original author

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22
Q

22) Missing information, inaccurate data, and illegible documentation all give the impression of a(n):

A) incompetent provider.

B) busy shift.

C) typical EMS patient care report.

D) practiced paramedic whose reputation speaks for itself.

A

incompetent provider

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23
Q

23) You respond to a call and the police and fire departments are on the scene, as well as a physician. Which of the following should you mention in your PCR?

A) Fire department only

B) Fire department and the physician only

C) Police, fire, and the physician

D) Police only

A

police fire and the physician

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24
Q

24) A well-written prehospital care report is:
1. accurate.
2. legible.
3. without alterations.
4. professional.

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1, 2, and 4

C) All of the above

D) None of the above

A

all of the above

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25
Q

25) When using direct patient statements, you should:

A) identify the quote with quotation marks.

B) have your partner or another witness initial the statement.

C) use the SOAP format.

D) have the patient initial his agreement with them, if his condition permits.

A

identify the quote with quotation marks

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26
Q

26) When possible, who should be asked to read and review the PCR before you submit it as complete?

A) Only you and your partner

B) Only you

C) Only you, your partner, and the patient

D) All EMS providers participating in patient care on the call

A

all EMS providers participating in patient care on the call

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27
Q

27) What is the chief complaint in the following narrative?

The pt. stated he had chest pain x 2 days before calling EMS. Pt. denies SOB. Vitals: BP 90/50, respirations labored with retractions, HR 44. Rx: O2 and atropine 0.5 mg IVP. Upon arrival, the pt. reported feeling better.

A) Chest pain

B) Hypotension

C) Labored respirations

D) Shortness of breath

A

chest pain

28
Q

28) The narrative approach that focuses only on the areas involved in the current illness or injury is the ________ approach.

A) body systems

B) toe-to-head

C) focused exam

D) head-to-toe

A

body systems

29
Q

29) “The 45-year-old patient had CP and was complaining of leg and arm pains.” In this example, the abbreviation CP stands for:

A) cerebral palsy.

B) cerebral perfusion.

C) chest pain.

D) unable to determine.

A

chest pain

30
Q

30) Which of the following situations poses an even greater risk of liability to the paramedic than patient refusal of care?

A) Denying transport to an apparently stable patient who insists he needs an ambulance

B) Transporting minors, with or without their consent

C) Transporting a mentally incompetent individual against his wishes

D) Having the patient who wants to refuse speak directly with a medical control physician

A

denying transport to an apparently stable patient who insists he needs n ambulance

31
Q

31) In filling out your prehospital care report, you want to document that your patient had a laceration to his right hand secondary to a fall. How would you abbreviate “secondary to?”

A) 2°

B) 2/

C) 2@

D) 2nd

A

32
Q

32) Which is the most important reason for NOT trying to complete the PCR during the ride to the hospital?

A) Your time is better spent performing ongoing assessments.

B) You must communicate with the medical control physician.

C) There is an increased chance of error.

D) The ride is bumpy and the chart will be illegible.

A

your time is better spent performing ongoing assessments

33
Q

33) Instead of using the words heart attack, the paramedic could use the abbreviation:

A) AMI.

B) CP.

C) AHA.

D) HA.

A

AMI

34
Q

34) Which words are spelled incorrectly in the following narrative?

Pt. is a 53 y/o male with pain to the upper thoracks and neck 2- to past history. Pt. has a history of a heart attack and takes KCl, HCTZ, and aspirin.

  1. Thoracks
  2. Heart attack
  3. Aspirin
  4. History

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 3 only

C) 3 only

D) None of the above

A

1 only

35
Q

35) An accurate prehospital care report includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) proper acronyms.

B) approved abbreviations.

C) addenda from supervisors.

D) proper spelling.

A

addenda from supervisors

36
Q

36) All of the following are part of the standard patient documentation narrative, EXCEPT a(n):

A) assessment/management plan.

B) subjective narrative.

C) financial assessment.

D) objective narrative.

A

financial assessment

37
Q

37) The narrative format that focuses on immediate management of a variety of patient problems is called:

A) body systems.

B) SOAP.

C) patient management.

D) objective-subjective.

A

patient management

38
Q

38) Writing false or malicious words intended to damage a person’s character is called:

A) character assassination.

B) bad faith.

C) slander.

D) libel.

A

libel

39
Q

39) The call incident approach for narrative writing emphasizes all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) how the incident occurred.

B) absolute chronological order.

C) surrounding circumstances.

D) mechanism of injury.

A

absolute chronological order

40
Q

40) Which of the following would be most useful for paramedics to carry with them as an aid to proper documentation?

A) Pocket-sized thesaurus

B) Copy of previous charts

C) Pocket-sized medical dictionary

D) Quality assurance policy

A

pocket sized medical dictionary

41
Q

41) Why do patient refusals warrant more thorough documentation than typical EMS calls?

A) Additional witnesses must be quoted.

B) The patient is usually not competent.

C) There is more time available before the next assignment.

D) The potential for abandonment charges is greater.

A

the potential for abandonment charges is greater

42
Q

42) Why should the PCR be completed immediately after the call?

A) The medical control physician must sign it.

B) You must get back in service.

C) The information is fresh in your mind.

D) The receiving facility demands it.

A

the information is fresh in your mind

43
Q

43) Which of the following statements is inappropriate for a prehospital care report?

A) The patient had trouble walking.

B) The patient’s appearance indicated a lack of self-care.

C) The patient was intoxicated.

D) The patient stated, “I feel fine.”

A

the patient was intoxicated

44
Q

44) You are allowed to share the information in patient charts with all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) law enforcement officials, in specific situations.

B) third-party billing companies.

C) medical professionals providing continuing care.

D) other paramedics not on the call.

A

other paramedics not on the call

45
Q

45) To correct an error on the PCR, the paramedic should:

A) make it a habit to use erasable ink so mistakes can be completely erased.

B) cross it out with one line and initial it.

C) block it out completely.

D) use correction fluid matching the paper color of each copy of the PCR.

A

cross it out with one line and inital it

46
Q

46) Use of prehospital care reports for quality improvement is an example of their ________ use.

A) medical

B) administrative

C) patient care

D) legal

A

administrative

47
Q

47) Which of the following is the paramedic’s interpretation of the patient’s problem?

A) Chief complaint

B) Subjective opinion

C) Patient complaints

D) Field diagnosis

A

field diagnosis

48
Q

48) Seeking and recording pertinent negatives demonstrates which of the following?

A) Charting by exception

B) Thoroughness of your examination

C) Thoughtfulness of your care

D) Use of the PERT-NEG format

A

thoroughness of your examination

49
Q

49) The standard charting abbreviation for nitroglycerin is:

A) NTG.

B) NGT.

C) Nitro.

D) N2O.

A

NTG

50
Q

50) What is the patient’s heart rate in the following narrative?

The pt. complained of CP x 2 days before calling EMS and is now also c/o SOB. Vitals BP 90/50, labored with retractions. Treated with O2 and atropine. Upon arrival, the pt. reported feeling better.

A) 50

B) 90

C) 40

D) Cannot be determined

A

cannot be determined

51
Q

51) Which of the following best describes why abbreviations and acronyms can cause confusion and problems?

A) They are not universally accepted by all EMS agencies.

B) Nursing uses a different set of abbreviations and acronyms.

C) Some abbreviations and acronyms can have multiple meanings.

D) Physicians use a different set of abbreviations and acronyms.

A

some abbreviations and acronyms can have multiple meanings

52
Q

52) The ultimate responsibility for documentation belongs to the:

A) agency’s administration.

B) paramedic writing the PCR.

C) medical control physician.

D) receiving nurse.

A

paramedic writing the PCRs

53
Q

53) One common pattern for organizing a narrative report is identified by the mnemonic:

A) CHART.

B) OPRST.

C) SAMPLE.

D) DCHART-E.

A

CHART

54
Q

54) Careful, thorough documentation has the effect of ________ frivolous lawsuits.

A) eliminating

B) defeating

C) discouraging

D) encouraging

A

discouraging

55
Q

55) Under what circumstances should paramedics try to hide charting errors?

A) Always

B) When directed to by a supervisor or superior officer

C) When a lawsuit is probable

D) Never

A

never

56
Q

56) The objective narrative portion of documentation contains information on the:

A) history of the present illness.

B) current health status.

C) chief complaint.

D) physical exam.

A

physical exam

57
Q

57) The unofficial language used by a particular group or profession is known as ________ and can be confusing when included on a PCR.

A) terminology

B) semantics

C) slang

D) jargon

A

jargon

58
Q

58) Which of the following words is an example of proper medical terminology?

A) Belly

B) Thorax

C) Jawbone

D) Chest

A

thorax

59
Q

59) Why is it important for billing companies to have complete PCRs?

A) They can decide what to bill for.

B) They require all information for accurate billing.

C) They provide quality assurance audits as part of their service.

D) They are required by law to collect the complete PCR.

A

they require all information for accurate billing

60
Q

60) Who would be held MOST responsible if poor prehospital documentation results in inappropriate continuing medical care?

A) The patient, if he was uncooperative

B) The paramedic who wrote the document

C) The paramedic agency and its medical director

D) The physician who ordered the continuing medical care

A

the paramedic who wrote the document

61
Q

61) If a legal case is brought against you, your best defense in court is usually:

A) the dispatch log.

B) your immediate recollection of events.

C) a complete and accurate PCR.

D) your partner’s corroborating testimony.

A

a complete and accurate PCR

62
Q

62) Your patient is complaining of respiratory distress. In ruling out congestive heart failure, the absence of swollen ankles would be a:

A) false positive finding.

B) false negative finding.

C) pertinent negative finding.

D) true positive finding.

A

pertinent negative finding

63
Q

63) The standard charting abbreviation for Tylenol is:

A) ASA.

B) Acet.

C) APAP.

D) Amp.

A

APAP

64
Q

64) When using a prehospital care report for research or quality assurance, you should block out the:

A) patient’s identifying information.

B) vital signs.

C) paramedics’ names.

D) treatments rendered.

A

patients identifying information

65
Q

65) Patient and bystander quotes belong in the ________ section.

A) objective narrative

B) subjective narrative

C) assessment/management plan

D) quotation

A

subjective narrative