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First Aid Pharm > DIT Days 1-2 > Flashcards

DIT Days 1-2 Flashcards

1
Q

amitriptyline

A

inhibits NE reuptake

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2
Q

amphetamine

A

stim NE release

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3
Q

black widow spider toxin

A

stimulates Ach release

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4
Q

Botulinum toxin

A

inhibits Ach release

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5
Q

bretylium

A

inhibits NE release

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6
Q

cocaine

A

inhibits NE reuptake

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7
Q

guanethidine

A

inhibits NE release

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8
Q

hemicholinium

A

inhibits choline transport

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9
Q

reserpine

A

inhibits NE packaging

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10
Q

vesamicol

A

inhibits Ach packaging

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11
Q

Gi

A

inhibits AC
dec cAMP
less activation of Protein Kinase A

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12
Q

Gq

A

activates Phospholipase C
PIP2–> IP3 and DAG
IP3–> inc Ca
DAP–> activates Protein Kinase C

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13
Q

Gs

A

stimulates AC
increases cAMP
activates Protein Kinase A

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14
Q

Gi agonists

A

M2
a2
D2

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15
Q

Gq agonists

A

H1 M1
a1 M3
V1

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16
Q

Gs agonists

A 
B1
B2
H2
V2
D1
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17
Q

Vd

A

Dose given IV/ Conc in plasma

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18
Q

Clearance

A

rate of elimination/plasma conc

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19
Q

Clearance

A

.7xVd/ half life

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20
Q

Clearance

A

KxVd

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21
Q

Loading dose

A

concentration steady state/ Vd

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22
Q

Maintenance dose

A

concentration stead state x CL

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23
Q

what embryo structure serves as a secondary E source?

A

endodermal yolk sac

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24
Q

what embryo structure serves as a reservoir of nonspecialized undifferentiated stem cells?

A

endodermal yolk sac

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25
Q

FQ teratogen

A

cartilage damage

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26
Q

cyclophosphamide teratogen

A

ear/facial anomalies, limb hypoplasia, absent digits

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27
Q

thalidomide teratogen

A

phocomelia

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28
Q

preg category X drugs

A

MTX, statins, warfarin, isotretinoin, DES, thalidomide

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29
Q

what is embryo origin of tissue proximal to pectinate line?

A

endoderm

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30
Q

what is embryo origin of tissue distal to pectinate line?

A

surface ectoderm

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31
Q

how are all cyclins degraded?

A

ubiquitin protein ligase

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32
Q

cyclinD binds which CDK?

A

CDK4; phosphorylates Rb, (G1 to S)

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33
Q

cyclin A binds what?

A

CDK2–> mitotic prophase (G2–> Mphase)

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34
Q

cyclin B binds what?

A

CDK1- activated by cdc25–> initiates mitosis (G2–>M phase)

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35
Q

cyclin E binds whiat?

A

CDK2; (G1–> S)

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36
Q

which AA are found in nuclear localization sigs?

A

PALS: proline, arginine, lysine

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37
Q

cytokeratin stain

A

carcinomas

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38
Q

glial fibrillary acid proteins GFAP stain

A

stains glioblastoma (astrocyte, schwann, neuroglia)

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39
Q

neurofilaments stain

A

neuroblastoma (axons with neurons)

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40
Q

vimentin stain

A

sarcomas (conn tissue fibroblasts, luekocytes, endothelium)

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41
Q

what drugs act on MT?

A 
Mts Get Construe Very Poorly
Mebendazole
Griseofulvin
colchicine
vincristine/vinblastine
paclitaxel
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42
Q

Kartagener syndrome triad

A

bronchiectasis, chronic sinusitis, sinus inversus + infertility

43
Q

I Cell disease deficiency

A

phosphotransferase- tags lysosomal enzymes with mannose 6 phosphate

44
Q

plasma proteins 2 abundant substances?

A

protein and phospholipids

45
Q

zileuton inhibits

A

lipoxygenase

46
Q

zafirlakast and montelukast inhibit

A

luekotriene rec

47
Q

NK cells induce pop in cells infected with virus with what 2 substances?

A

perforin

granzyme B

48
Q

what damaging events cause irreversible cell injury?

A 
Ca influx
damage to mem
rupture lysosome
mito perm
pyknosis, karyorex, karyolysis
49
Q

what enzymes are responsible for handling oxygen free rads?

A

catalase, superoxide dismutase, glutathione

50
Q

metalloproteinase contain what mineral?

A

zinc

51
Q

what protein facilitates rec mediated endocytosis?

A

clathrin

52
Q

which metals gen free rads?

A

iron, copper

53
Q

collagen AA?

A

glycine, proline, hydroxyproline

54
Q

elastin AA?

A

glycine, proline

55
Q

Vit C role in collagen production?

A

hydroxylation of Lysine and proline

56
Q

myometrial growth in pre hyperplasia or hypertrophy?

A

hypertrophy

57
Q

what is a lipofuscin granule?

A

residual pigment from incomplete free rads lipid oxidation

58
Q

what AA are modified in golgi?

A

serine, threonine, asparagine, tyrosine

59
Q

chiari malformation abnormalities found?

A
  1. syringomyelia

2. myelomeningocele and hydrocephaly

60
Q

syringomyelia findings?

A

bilateral loss of pain and temp in upper extreme

weakness in hand

61
Q

anencephaly lab value

A

hi AFP- neural tube defect

62
Q

cleft origin

A

ectoderm

63
Q

arches origin

A

mesoderm

64
Q

pouch origin

A

endoderm

65
Q

blood brain barrier

A

non fenestrated endothelial cells with tight junk, basement me, astrocyte foot processes

66
Q

TX2

A

prothrombotic, inc platelet agg, inc vasc tone, inc bronchial tone

67
Q

CN Nuclei in medulla

A

9, 10, 12

68
Q

CN nuclei in pons

A

5, 6, 7, 8

69
Q

CN nuclei in midbrain

A

3, 4

70
Q

conditions that can result in facial nerve palsy?

A

Lovely Bella Had An STD

lames disease, bells palsy, HSV/zoster, AIDS, sarcoidosis, tumors, DM

71
Q

left nucleus ambiguus receives input from?

A

right corticobulbar tract

right motor cortex

72
Q

corticospinal tract decussates?

A

caudal medulla

73
Q

dorsal column - medial lemniscal pathway decussates?

A

medulla

74
Q

lateral STT decussats?

A

anterior white commissure

75
Q

what are the 4 midline structures of the brainstem starting with M?

A

motor pathway
medial lemniscus (dorsal path)
medial longitudinal fasciculus (controls eyes)
motor CN nuc divisible by 12 3, 4, 6, 12

76
Q

4 lateral structures of the brain stem starting with S?

A

spinocerebellar tract
spinothalamic tract
sensory nun of 5
sympathetic pathway

77
Q

anterior nucleus

ant hypothal

A

thermoregulation

78
Q

suprachiasmatic nucleus

ant hypothal

A

circadian rhythms

79
Q

pre optic area

ant hypothal

A

sec GnRH–> LH and FSH stim

80
Q

supraoptic nuc

ant hypothal

A

sec ADH

81
Q

paraventricular nuc

ant hypothal

A

sec oxytocin, CRH, TRH

82
Q

arcuate nuc

tuberal hypothal

A

sec GHRH, dopamine, GnRH, regulates appetite

83
Q

lateral

tuberal hypothal

A

regulates hunger

inhibited by leptin

84
Q

ventromedial

tuberal hypothal

A

regulates satiety

stim by leptin

85
Q

dorsomedial

tuberal hypothal

A

regulates hunger

86
Q

posterior

posterior hypothal

A

thermoregulatoin

87
Q

mamillary

posterior hypothal

A

memory

88
Q

subdural hematoma

A

rupture of bridging vein

89
Q

epidural hematoma

A

younger, talk and die, trauma–> middle meningeal artery

90
Q

bloody SCF on Lumbar puncture?

A

subarach hemm

91
Q

tuberous sclerosis triad

A

seizures, mental retardation, angiofibromas

92
Q

tuberous sclerosis associated with what tumors?

A

angiomyolipoma, cardiac rhabdomyoma, astrocytoma

93
Q

which anti-epileptics are teratogens?

A

phenytoin, carbamazepine, val acid

94
Q

what drugs cause SJS?

A

ethosux, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital
sulfonamides, penicillin, allopurinol

95
Q

what drugs cause agranulocytosis?

A

carbamazepine, clozpine, cocicine, PTU, methimazole

96
Q

drugs that induce cyp?

A 
chronic alcs Steal Phen Phen and Never Refuse Greasy Carbs
chronic alc
st johns wort
phenytoin
phenobarbital
Nevirapine
rifampin
griseofulvin
carbamazepine
97
Q

what nucleus regulates the sympathetic NS?

A

anterior hypothal

98
Q

what nucleus regulates the parasympathetic NS?

A

posterior hypothal

99
Q

oligodendroglia myelinate?

A

multiple axons

CNS

100
Q

schwann cells myelinate?

A

only 1 axon

PNS

101
Q

3 most common brain tumors in adults?

A

MGM Studios: mets

  1. glioblastoma
  2. meningioma
  3. schwannoma
102
Q

EKG waveforms for stages of sleep?

A

stage 1: theta
2: sleep spindles, k complex
3: delta, low freq, hi amplitude
REM: beta

103
Q

what drugs shorten N3 sleep?

A

benzos
TCA
imiprimine

First Aid Pharm (9 decks)

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