DISORDERS OF THE EYE Flashcards

1
Q

What is amblyopia often referred to as?

A

Lazy eye.

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2
Q

Why is early detection and treatment of eye diseases important in children?

A

Because amblyopia is preventable and should be addressed early to avoid permanent vision impairment.

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3
Q

What is the approximate vision of newborns?

A

20/400.

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4
Q

What visual milestone is expected in infants aged birth to 4 weeks?

A

Face-following.

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5
Q

At what age do infants begin visual-following?

A

3 months.

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6
Q

What is a common visual behavior of newborns?

A

Eyes may appear uncoordinated or strabismic and they appear to stare at objects or faces less than a foot away.

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7
Q

By what age do infants begin eye contact with caregivers?

A

6-8 weeks.

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8
Q

At what age do children begin to recognize their own face in the mirror?

A

11-12 months.

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9
Q

What visual milestones are expected by 18-24 months?

A

Focus on near and far objects, point at body parts, and scribble with crayons.

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10
Q

When does vision typically near 20/20?

A

3-4 years.

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11
Q

At what age can children usually recognize and recite the alphabet?

A

4-6 years.

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12
Q

What is the recommended age for red reflex examination?

A

Newborn to 3 months.

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13
Q

What are abnormal findings in the red reflex that require referral?

A

Absent, white, dull, opaque, or asymmetric red reflex.

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14
Q

What is the goal of vision screening in children?

A

To identify amblyopia or risk factors for amblyopia to prevent permanent visual impairment.

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15
Q

What conditions require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist?

A

Abnormal red reflex, severe eye pain, sudden loss of vision, or suspected severe eye injury.

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16
Q

What are semi-urgent referral conditions?

A

New onset of strabismus, diplopia, severe ptosis, or visual acuity 20/200 or worse.

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17
Q

What method is used to test for misalignment of the eyes in children?

A

Cover testing.

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18
Q

What does the corneal light reflex test evaluate?

A

The position of light reflection on the cornea to check for misalignment.

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19
Q

What is the main purpose of subjective visual acuity testing?

A

To assess each eye’s vision separately using charts or symbols.

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20
Q

What abnormalities can be detected during eye screening?

A

Cataracts, strabismus, glaucoma, refractive errors, ptosis, tumors, or neurologic diseases.

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21
Q

When is subjective visual acuity testing usually successful?

A

In children aged 3 years and older.

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22
Q

How is structural abnormality of the eyes evaluated in children?

A

By external inspection.

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23
Q

What tools are used for vision testing in young children?

A

Figures, letters, tumbling E, Lea symbols, and vision testing machines.

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24
Q

What indicates failure during alternate occlusion testing?

A

Failure to object equally when covering each eye.

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25
Q

What are examples of structural abnormalities that can be detected by external inspection?

A

Drooping eyelid (ptosis) and small or enlarged eyeballs.

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26
Q

Why is the corneal light reflex test important?

A

It detects off-center reflections, which may indicate misalignment of the eyes.

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27
Q

What is a recommended age for visual acuity testing using figures or symbols?

A

3-4 years.

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28
Q

What does an abnormal result in the cover test indicate?

A

Misalignment of the eyes or strabismus.

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29
Q

What are the expected findings during red reflex testing in a healthy child?

A

Equal and bright red reflex in both eyes.

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30
Q

What are examples of abnormal corneal light reflex findings?

A

Pseudoesotropia, displaced temporal reflex in esotropia, and displaced nasal reflex in exotropia.

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31
Q

What is the method for vision screening at every well-child visit?

A

Inspection of eyes, pupils, and red reflex with a flashlight.

32
Q

What is ophthalmia neonatorum?

A

“An inflammatory condition of the ocular surface occurring during the 1st month of life due to chemical or bacterial causes.”

33
Q

What causes chemical ophthalmia neonatorum?

A

“Mild irritation and redness secondary to silver nitrate use , occurring within the first 24 hours of life.”

34
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial ophthalmia neonatorum caused by Neisseria gonorrhea?

A

“Ceftriaxone at 28-50 mg/kg IV or IM is the drug of choice.”

35
Q

What are the symptoms of bacterial ophthalmia neonatorum caused by Neisseria gonorrhea?

A

“Marked chemosis, copious discharge, rapid ulceration, and possible corneal perforation.”

36
Q

How is bacterial ophthalmia neonatorum caused by Neisseria gonorrhea diagnosed?

A

“Gram stain and culture of conjunctival exudate showing Gram-negative diplococci.”

37
Q

What are the symptoms of Chlamydia trachomatis conjunctivitis in neonates?

A

“Mild swelling, hyperemia, papillary reaction, and minimal to moderate discharge.”

38
Q

How is Chlamydia trachomatis conjunctivitis treated in neonates?

A

“Erythromycin ointment for ocular involvement or oral erythromycin at 50 mg/kg per day in 4 doses for systemic involvement.”

39
Q

What is the cause of viral conjunctivitis in neonates?

A

“Occurs within the first 2 weeks of life, with minimal conjunctival hyperemia and watery discharge.”

40
Q

How is viral conjunctivitis in neonates treated?

A

“Supportive care with cold compress, artificial tears, and
topical antibiotics for secondary bacterial infection.”

41
Q

What infections are included in TORCH syndromes?

A

“Toxoplasma,
others(HIV, syphilis)
Rubella,
Cytomegalovirus,
Herpes simplex virus

42
Q

What is the classic triad of symptoms for congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

(R-I-H)
1. Retinochoroiditis (atrophy, gliosis & pigmentation)
2. Intracranial calcifications
3. Hydrocephaly

43
Q

What ocular manifestation is seen in congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

“Retinochoroiditis with a scar, atrophy, gliosis, and pigmentation.”

44
Q

What is the treatment for congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

“Systemic pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, trisulfapyrimidine, and folinic acid.”

45
Q

What are the eye findings in congenital rubella?

A

“Glaucoma, cataract, microphthalmos, and salt-and-pepper retinopathy.”

46
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis for congenital rubella?

A

“Serologic evidence and virus isolation from pharyngeal swabs.”

47
Q

What are the ocular manifestations of congenital cytomegalovirus?

A

“Cataract, microphthalmos, optic nerve anomalies, and retinochoroiditis.”

48
Q

What is the treatment for congenital cytomegalovirus?

A

“Intravenous antiviral agents.”

49
Q

What are the features of neonatal herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection?

A

(CK-CR)

“Conjunctivitis, keratitis, cataracts, and retinochoroiditis,
often acquired during vaginal delivery.”

50
Q

What is the treatment for neonatal HSV infection?

A

“Acyclovir 20 mg/kg IV three times daily, with careful monitoring of hydration and renal function.”

51
Q

What are the ocular manifestations of congenital syphilis?

A

“Interstitial keratitis, progressive corneal edema, vascularization, and ‘salmon patch’ appearance.”

52
Q

What is a congenital cataract?

A

“A lens opacity present at birth that may interfere with normal visual development and cause amblyopia.”

53
Q

What systemic conditions are associated with congenital cataracts?

A

“Down syndrome, galactosemia, diabetes, Wilson’s disease, and rubella.”

54
Q

What is the treatment for visually significant congenital cataracts?

A

“Surgery including lensectomy, with early intervention to prevent amblyopia.”

55
Q

What is persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV)?

A

“A disorder of primary vitreous and hyaloid vascular system development, characterized by fibrous membranes behind the lens.”

56
Q

What are the complications of congenital cataract surgery?

A

“Re-opacification of the visual axis , pseudophakic glaucoma, and strabismus.”

57
Q

What is the definition of primary congenital glaucoma?

A

Primary congenital glaucoma refers to a group of disorders that present within the first 2 years of life with buphthalmos, corneal edema, tearing, and characteristic changes in the anterior chamber angle.

58
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

Glaucoma is a neuropathy of the optic nerve associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP), visual field loss, and end-stage blindness.

59
Q

What is buphthalmos, and in which age group does it occur?

A

Buphthalmos is an enlarged eye caused by increased IOP; it occurs in infants less than 3 years old due to distensibility of immature collagen.

60
Q

What are Haab’s striae?

A

Haab’s striae are horizontal or curvilinear lines on the cornea caused by breaks in Descemet’s membrane and corneal endothelial healing.

61
Q

What is the most common cause of glaucoma in infancy?

A

Primary congenital glaucoma.

62
Q

What are secondary glaucomas caused by in infancy?

A

Secondary glaucomas are caused by inflammation, trauma, or surgery to the eye during infancy.

63
Q

What is aphakic glaucoma?

A

Aphakic glaucoma occurs after cataract surgery and is the second most common form of glaucoma in infancy.

64
Q

What are the common clinical signs of congenital glaucoma?

A

Signs include buphthalmos, corneal edema, tearing, increased IOP, enlarged corneas, and optic disc changes.

65
Q

What diagnostic tool is used for early damage detection in congenital glaucoma?

A

Optical coherence tomography is used to measure nerve fiber layers for early damage detection.

66
Q

What is the treatment of choice for primary infantile glaucoma?

A

Surgery, including goniotomy, trabeculotomy, and trabeculectomy.

67
Q

What medication is the first-line treatment for lowering IOP in congenital glaucoma?

A

Timolol 0.25% or 0.5% applied topically twice daily.

68
Q

What are the five stages of retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)?

A

Stage 1: Demarcation line;
Stage 2: Ridge;
Stage 3: Ridge with extraretinal fibrovascular proliferation;
Stage 4: Partial retinal detachment;
Stage 5: Total retinal detachment.

69
Q

What is the zone system used for in ROP?

A

The zones divide the retina into 3 concentric circles (Zones 1, 2, and 3) to describe the location of ROP.

70
Q

What is ‘plus disease’ in ROP?

A

Plus disease is an aggressive form of ROP characterized by dilation of veins and tortuosity of arteries in the posterior pole.

71
Q

What is the primary risk factor for ROP?

A

Birth weight, with the highest risk in infants weighing less than 750 g.

72
Q

What study defined the threshold for ROP treatment?

A

The CRYO-ROP study defined the threshold for ROP treatment.

73
Q

What is the most common outcome of ROP?

A

Regression is the most common outcome, though it may lead to refractive errors and retinal detachment.

74
Q

What are the treatments for severe ROP?

A

Treatments include laser photocoagulation, cryotherapy, and intravitreal anti-VEGF injections (e.g., bevacizumab).

75
Q

What are the sequelae of ROP regression?

A

Sequelae include myopia, cataract, glaucoma, strabismus, and retinal detachment.

76
Q

What nutritional factor is correlated with ROP prevention?

A

Good nutritional support and maintaining normal IGF-1 levels correlate with ROP prevention.