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Cells to Systems > Disorders of Growth and Neoplasia > Flashcards

Disorders of Growth and Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

What does congenital mean?

A

Present from birth

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2
Q

What does agenesis mean?

A

Complete failure to develop

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3
Q

What does aplasia mean?

A

Failure to grow ie. Tissue or organ is present but it is small and rudimentary

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4
Q

Are hypoplasia and aplasia different?

A

No, they can be used interchangeably

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5
Q

What does dysplasia mean?

A

Abnormal development, resulting in disorganised cells and architectural distortion

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6
Q

What does atresia mean?

A

Closure of a normal opening

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7
Q

What is a common example of atresia in pigs?

A

Atresia ani

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8
Q

What are four different types of adaptations cells may undergo when subject to stress?

A
  1. Atrophy
  2. Hypertrophy
  3. Hyperplasia
  4. Metaplasia
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9
Q

What does atrophy mean?

A

Cell shrinking after normal growth has been reached.

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10
Q

What three events take place inside a cell undergoing atrophy?

A
  1. Decreased protein synthesis
  2. Increased protein catabolism
  3. Increased autophagy
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11
Q

What are five microscopic features of an atrophied organ?

A
  1. Decreased cell size
  2. Prominent vessels and connective tissue
  3. Crowding of small cells
  4. Fatty infiltration
  5. Lipofuscin accumulation
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12
Q

What mechanism to atrophied cells use to return to their normal size?

A

Hypertrophy, as long as the stimulus is removed.

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13
Q

What causes serous atrophy to occur?

A

Rapid mobilisation of fat stores

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14
Q

Where is the last reserve of fat stores?

A

In the bone marrow

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15
Q

What is progressive atrophic rhinitis?

A

A Pasteurella multocida infection in pigs causing:

  1. Atrophy of nasal mucous secreting glands
  2. Reabsorption of nasal turbinate bones
  3. Proliferation of fibroblast and associated collagen deposition
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16
Q

What is abiotrophy?

A

Genetically programmed premature or accelerated degeneration of cells.

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17
Q

What are some examples of abiotrophy?

A
  1. Cerebellar abiotrophy in lambs

2. Retinal photoreceptor dysplasia syndrome in dogs

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18
Q

What are some factors which contribute to ageing of organisms?

A
  1. Replicative senescence due to telomere caps shortening
  2. Accumulation of cellular injuries, such as free radical damage to organelles
  3. Decreased capacity for endogenous DNA repair enzymes to recognise and repair damaged DNA segments
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19
Q

What are the two adaptive cell processes which increase tissue mass?

A
  1. Hypertrophy

2. Hyperplasia

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20
Q

What does hypertrophy involve?

A

Increasing cell size

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21
Q

What does hyperplasia involve?

A

Increasing cell number

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22
Q

What cell types are able to undergo hyperplasia?

A

Liable and stable cells

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23
Q

What is the difference between hyperplasia and neoplasia?

A

Hyperplasia is a reversible and controlled process, neoplasia is not

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24
Q

In which organs is nodular hyperplasia a common finding in domestic animals?

A

Pancreas and liver

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25
Q

What does metaplasia involve?

A

Transformation of fully a differentiated, mature cell type to another mature cell type.

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26
Q

What is meant by glandular metaplasia?

A

Transformation of epithelial cells into mucous-secreting cells

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27
Q

What are three features of acquired dysplasia?

A
  1. Disorderly cell orientation and tissue architecture
  2. Pleomorphism
  3. Hyperchromatic cells
28
Q

What does neoplasia involve?

A

New tissue growth which doesn’t respond to normal control mechanisms (irreversible, persistent and unregulated)

29
Q

What does anaplasia mean?

A

Failure to differentiate or loss of differentiation

30
Q

What is stroma?

A

The fibrous connective tissue that supports neoplastic cells

31
Q

What is the one definitive difference between benign and malignant neoplasia’s

A

Malignant tumours have invasive growth into adjacent tissue or metastatic growth onto distant sites

32
Q

What three routes of metastatic growth?

A
  1. Haematogenous
  2. Lymphatics
  3. Implantation through body cavities
33
Q

What type of neoplasm are generally composed of well differentiated cells?

A

Benign

34
Q

What type of neoplasm are generally composed of poorly differentiated cells (anaplasia)?

A

Malignant

35
Q

What are six features of anaplastic cells?

A
  1. Pleomorphism
  2. Increased nuclei to cytoplasm ratio
  3. Hyperchromatic nuclei
  4. Giant cells with multiple nuclei
  5. Lack of normal cell orientation
  6. Abnormal mitoses
36
Q

Which type of neoplasm is generally faster growing?

A

Malignant

37
Q

What are the three broad classifications of neoplasms based on cell type?

A
  1. Endoderm or ectoderm origin
  2. Mesoderm origin
  3. Round cell
38
Q

What do mixed mammary tumours and teratomas have in common?

A

They are tumours containing cells from two or more germinal cell layers

39
Q

What are the characteristics of an adenoma?

A

Benin neoplasia of glandular epithelium

40
Q

What are the characteristics of an papilloma?

A

Benin neoplasia of non-glandular epithelium

41
Q

What are the characteristics of an adenocarcinoma?

A

Malignant neoplasia of glandular epithelium

42
Q

What are the characteristics of a carcinoma

A

Malignant neoplasia of non-glandular epithelium

43
Q

What are the characteristics of a sarcoma?

A

Malignant neoplasia of mesenchymal

44
Q

What are some local effects of tumours on the host?

A
  1. Compression or invasion of surrounding tissue
  2. Restriction of movement
  3. Ulceration and infection
45
Q

What are some systemic effects of tumours on the host?

A

Excessive hormone secretion by neoplastic cells

46
Q

What is meant by paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

Clinical symptoms that are the consequence of neoplasms, but not due to the neoplastic cells themselves

47
Q

What are some examples of paraneoplastic syndromes?

A
  1. Pyrexia due to release of pro-inflammatory cytokines
  2. Cachexia caused by the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines suppressing appetite, increasing protein catabolism and lipolysis
  3. Hormone secretion of abnormal hormones
  4. Autoimmune disease due to cross reactivity of antigens on neoplastic cells
  5. Hypertrophic osteopathy (Marie’s disease)
48
Q

What are the four mutations required to develop neoplastic growth?

A
  1. Defective proto-oncogenes
  2. Defective tumour supressor genes
  3. Defective genes that regulate DNA repair
  4. Defective genes that regulate apoptosis
49
Q

What are proto-oncogenes?

A

Genes that promote cell growth and proliferation, such as growth factors and growth factor receptors.

50
Q

What are tumour suppressor genes?

A

Genes which regulate cell growth

51
Q

What are the two different types of tumour suppressor genes?

A
  1. Governor genes, such as Retinoblastoma (RB) gene which inhibits cell division until appropriate
  2. Guardian genes, such as suppressor gene P53 which senses DNA damage and signals growth arrest or apoptosis
52
Q

What is the effect of defective genes involved in DNA repair?

A

Prevents repair of mutations, allowing damage to accumulate, promoting progression into neoplasia

53
Q

What is the effect of defective genes involved in apoptosis regulation?

A

Cells with defective apoptotic pathways are able to survive genetic damage that would otherwise kill cells, promoting progression into neoplasia.

54
Q

What are elephants dramatically more resistant to cancer development?

A

They contain 20 copies of P53 enzymes (guardian genes), humans only contain 1. Therefore, they would require 20 mutations to occur

55
Q

What are the eight hallmarks of neoplasia?

A
  1. Self-sufficiency in growth signalling (oncogene activation)
  2. Insensitivity to anti-growth signals (defective RB and PS3 genes)
  3. Evasion of apoptosis (BCL-2 inhibits caspase release)
  4. Limitless proliferation (production of telomerase)
  5. Sustained angiogenesis
  6. Altered cellular metabolism (only use glycolysis in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions)
  7. Evasion of the immune system (don’t express antigens, suppress antigen presentation and secrete immunosuppressive factors)
  8. Tissue invasion and metastasis
56
Q

What are the three classes of carcinogens that have been identified?

A
  1. Chemicals
  2. Radiant energy
  3. Microbial agents
57
Q

What are the three different categories of chemical carcinogens?

A
  1. Initiators, which directly cause DNA damage
  2. Promotors, which support the proliferation of mutated cells
  3. Complete carcinogens which have both initiating and promoting effects
58
Q

What are tree examples of chemical carcinogens?

A
  1. Tobacco smoke
  2. Soot wart
  3. Asbestos
59
Q

What type of carcinogen is ionising radiation?

A

Complete carcinogen, breaking chemical bonds in DNA

60
Q

What types of radiation are carcinogens?

A
  1. UV
  2. X-rays
  3. Gamma rays
61
Q

What type of neoplasia are UV rays most likely to induce?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

62
Q

How are microbial agent directly carcinogenic?

A
  1. Promotion of oncogene expression

2. Inhibition of tumour suppressor genes

63
Q

How are microbial agents indirectly carcinogenic?

A

Cause chronic inflammation, resulting in oxidative DNA damage

64
Q

What is the bacteria known to cause neoplasia?

A

Helicobacter pylori

65
Q

How does BCL-2 inhibit cellular apoptosis?

A

BCL-2 inhibits caspase release

Cells to Systems (10 decks)

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