Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A. MLA Map General Practice and Primary Healthcare > Disease Preventative Screening > Flashcards

Disease Preventative Screening Flashcards

1
Q

What is passive immunisation?

1 - injected with antibodies directly for immediate response
2 - injected with T and B cells to develop memory immunity
3 - injected with WBC to initiate an immune response
4 - injected with plasma cells to produce antibodies

A

1 - injected with antibodies directly for immediate response

  • provides immediate response in patients who may not be able to produce the antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a live vaccine:

1 - Rotavirus vaccine
2 - MMR vaccine
3 - Nasal flu vaccine
4 - Varicella zoster IG
5 - Meningococcal B and C

A

4 - Varicella zoster IG

  • all the others are either live attenuated or inactivated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Passive immunity is when a patient is injected with antibodies from an external source directly for an immediate response. What 2 methods can be used to administer these?

1 - subdermal and intramuscular
2 - intravenously and intramuscular
3 - intravenously and subdermal
4 - intravenously and orally

A

2 - intravenously and intramuscular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Passive immunity is when a patient is injected with antibodies from an external source directly for an immediate response. Which of the following is NOT responses following passive immunisation?

1 - short term immune response lasting as long as the antibodies last
2 - no natural production of the antibodies so when the antibodies are gone thats it
3 - body able to produce memory immune cells
4 - provides an immediate immune response

A

3 - body able to produce memory immune cells

  • antibodies are not made by the host, therefore no memory cells either
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Passive immunity is when a patient is injected with antibodies from an external source directly for an immediate response. Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?

1 - attenuated Covid vaccine given subcutaneously
2 - mum breast feeding gives baby IgA antibodies
3 - vaccine given at birth for MMR

A

2 - mum breast feeding gives baby IgA antibodies

  • when mum stops breast feeding these antibodies are lost
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Varicella Zoster immunoglobulin are antibodies that can be given to a patient who as been exposed to the viruses and is an example of passive immunisation. Is Varicella Zoster dangerous?

Varicella = chickenpox
Zoster = shingles

1 - can be dangerous in adults
2 - can be dangerous in children
3 - can be dangerous in adults and children

A

1 - can be dangerous in adults
- essentially viruses that can causes chickenpox or shingles
- in children nothing major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Varicella Zoster immunoglobulin are antibodies that can be given to a patient who as been exposed to the viruses and is an example of passive immunisation. In order for a patient to be administered though, 3 specific criteria from the list below must be met. Which 3 are they?

Varicella = chickenpox
Zoster = shingles

1 - immunocompromised patient
2 - older healthy patient
3 - exposure to chickenpox or shingles but had when young
4 - born in a 3rd world country
5 - no varicella-zoster virus (VZV) antibodies confirmed via antibody testing
6 - increased risk of severe chickenpox (immunocompromised, neonates, women exposed in first 20w of pregnancy)

A

1) increased risk of severe chickenpox (immunocompromised, neonates, women exposed in first 20w of pregnancy)
5 - no varicella-zoster virus (VZV) antibodies confirmed via antibody testing
6 - increased risk of severe chickenpox (immunocompromised, neonates, women exposed in first 20w of pregnancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Does passive or active immunisation cost more?

A
  • passive and not as available as active immunisation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is active immunisation?

1 - injected with antibodies directly for immediate response
2 - injected with T and B cells to develop memory immunity
3 - injected with WBC to initiate an immune response
4 - injected live attenuated or inactivated vaccine

A

4 - injected live attenuated or inactivated vaccine

  • this is a slower immune response but stimulates the bodies own immune system
  • memory immune cells are created
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Active immunisation is when a person is injected with vaccine or antigen and body produces antibodies against it. There are 2 main types of active immunisation, what are they?

1 - active and hyperinactive
2 - inactive and hyperactive
3 - inactive and active
4 - active and hyperactive

A

3 - inactive and active

  • active = weakened microorganisms are introduced into the body
  • inactive = dead microorganism or parts of microorganisms like PAMPs is introduced into the body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Is the hepatitis B (HBV) immunisation an example of active or passive immunisation?

A
  • both
  • mum could have had HBV vaccine and shared antibodies with baby
  • baby will then be immunised at 8, 12 and 16 weeks as well as a form of active immunisation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Live vaccines have a reduced virulence. What does virulence mean?

A
  • ability of an organism to infect the host and cause a disease
  • influenza and Varicella/Zoster are examples
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of administering live vaccines?

1 - strong immune response evoked
2 - memory immune response and lost lasting
3 - virulence may return
4 - local and systemic immunity produced

A

3 - virulence may return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are vaccine adjuncts, such as aluminium salts?

1 - ensures virulence doesn’t return
2 - dampens immune response to stop infection
3 - enhances the immune response
4 - creates memory immune cells

A

3 - enhances the immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In the image below, which 2 statements are true?

A
  • 3 and 4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In the image below, which 3 are true?

A
  • 1, 2 and 4
  • 1 is like the vaccine given to babies at 8 weeks
  • trigger antibody production but do not infect cells, so immune response is shorter
  • need adjuvant to amplify the immune response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In the image below, which answer is correct?

A
  • 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In babies why is the delivery of some live vaccines delayed in babies?

1 - babies receive no antibodies from mum
2 - there should be no delay
3 - babies receive passive immunisation of mum
4 - babies don’t need immunisation at an early age

A

3 - babies receive passive immunisation of mum

  • baby will have passive immunisation from mothers antibodies during pregnancy and breast feeding
  • passive antibodies can interfere with active antibodies found in vaccines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

At 8 weeks (2 months) old babies are given the 6 in 1 vaccine as inactive vaccines in the right thigh. Using the mnemonic 2 B My D.R HIP, which of the following is NOT one of these?

1 - diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough) (DTaP)
4 - meningococcal group B (MenB)
3 - inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)
4 - haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
5 - rotavirus
6 - pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV)
7 - hepatitis B

A

6 - pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV)

  • babies get this in the THIGH

2 B My D.R HIP
2 = 2 months
B = hepatitis B
M = meningococcal group B (MenB)
D = diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough) (DTaP)
R = rotavirus
H = haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
IP = inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In addition to the 6 in 1 inactive vaccine babies are given at 8 weeks, they are also given one live attenuated vaccine orally. Which vaccine is this?

1 - Rotavirus
2 - HPV
3 - MenC
4 - MMR

A

1 - Rotavirus

  • given ORALLY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When giving a baby the rotavirus, why is it important to assess if the babies has an auto immune deficiency?

1 - vaccine will benefit the baby
2 - vaccine can cure the immunodeficiency
3 - baby is immunocompromised so is dangerous
4 - babies mum may have. a reaction

A

3 - baby is immunocompromised so is dangerous
- rotavirus is alive vaccine so could be dangerous to some patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In addition to the 6 in 1 inactive vaccine in the right thigh and a live attenuated vaccine given orally, what other vaccine are babies given in the left thigh at 8 weeks?

1 - influenza
2 - HPV
3 - meningococcal group B (MenB)
4 - shingles

A

3 - meningococcal group B (MenB)

  • given in LEFT THIGH
23
Q

At 8 weeks babies are given the 6 in 1 vaccine in the right thigh and the MenB vaccine in the left thigh. Why are they not all just given in the same place?

1 - too much vaccine in one site
2 - could causes cellulitis
3 - could causes anaphylaxis
4 - monitor local reactions

A

4 - monitor local reactions

  • if baby has a specific adverse reaction we can identify which vaccine
24
Q

At 8 weeks old babies are given the 6 in 1 vaccine which includes

  • diphtheria
  • tetanus
  • pertussis (whooping cough)
  • polio
  • haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
  • hepatitis B

When are babies given their 2nd and 3rd dose of the 6 in 1?

1 - 9 and 10 weeks
2 - 10 and 12 weeks
3 - 11 and 16 weeks
4 - 12 and 16 weeks

A

4 - 12 and 16 weeks

  • given in THIGH

B 4 DR HIP
B = hepatitis B
4 = 4 months (12 weeks)
D = DTaR
R = rotavirus
H = haemophilus type B (Hib)
I = Inactivated Polio
P = Pneumococcal (PCV)

25
Q

At 12 weeks and 1 year old babies receive a number of vaccines, one of which is particularly painful and is advised to be given last. Which vaccine is this?

1 - 6 in 1 vaccine
2 - Pneumococcal (13 serotypes)
3 - rotavirus
4 - HPV

A

2 - Pneumococcal (13 serotypes)

  • inactivated vaccine
  • given in THIGH
26
Q

Babies receive the first live dose of rotavirus at 8 weeks. When do they receive their second dose of this vaccine?

1 - 9 weeks
2 - 10 weeks
3 - 11 weeks
4 - 12 weeks

A

4 - 12 weeks

  • given ORALLY
27
Q

Babies receive the first dose of Meningococcal group B (MenB) at 8 weeks. When do they receive their 2nd and 3rd dose of this vaccine?

1 - 9 and 16 weeks
2 - 10 and16 weeks
3 - 11 weeks and 1 year
4 - 16 weeks and 1 year

A

4 - 16 weeks and 1 year

  • given in LEFT THIGH
28
Q

As part of the 6 in 1 babies are given at 8, 12 and 16 weeks, they are also given an additional booster for haemophilus influenza type b (Hib) at what age?

1 - 8 weeks
2 - 12 weeks
3 - 16 weeks
4 - 1 year old

A

4 - 1 year old

  • given in LEFT THIGH
29
Q

Which of the following is NOT given to babies at 12 weeks old?

1 - diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough) (DTaP)
2 - meningococcal group B (MenB)
3 - inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)
4 - haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
5 - rotavirus
6 - pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV)
7 - hepatitis B

A

4 - meningococcal group B (MenB)

B 4 DR HIP
B = hepatitis B
4 = 4 months (12 weeks)
D = DTaR
R = rotavirus
H = haemophilus type B (Hib)
I = Inactivated Polio
P = Pneumococcal (PCV)

30
Q

Which of the following is NOT given to babies at 16 weeks old?

1 - diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough) (DTaP)
2 - meningococcal group B (MenB)
3 - inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)
4 - haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
5 - rotavirus
6 - hepatitis B

A

5 - rotavirus

31
Q

The measles, mumps and rubella (German measles) also known as MMR vaccine is given in 2 doses. What are the timepoints for this?

1 - 8 and 16 weeks
2 - 12 and 16 weeks
3 - 16 and 1 year weeks
4 - 1 year and 3 year 4months old

A

4 - 1 year and 3 year 4months old

  • this is a live attenuate vaccine
  • given in UPPER ARM or THIGH
32
Q

Following the measles, mumps and rubella (German measles) also known as MMR vaccine, why is it important to monitor children?

1 - high risk of anaphylaxis
2 - may develop measles and mumps
3 - can cause cellulitis
4 - all of the above

A

2 - may develop measles and mumps
- can develop measles symptoms 7-11 days
- can develop mumps symptoms 3-4 weeks

33
Q

Babies receive doses of Meningococcal group B (MenB) at 8 and 16 weeks and then again at 1 year old. When do babies receive their Meningococcal group C (MenC)

1 - 1 year
2 - 2 years
3 - 3 years
4 - 4 years

A

1 - 1 year

  • given in UPPER ARM or THIGH
34
Q

Using the mnemonic:

1 Mighty MaMs HiP, which vaccine is NOT given to babies at 1 year old?

1 - diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough) (DTaP)
2 - meningococcal group B (MenB)
3 - inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)
4 - haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
5 - meningococcal group C (MenC)
6 - measles, mumps and rubella (MMR)

A

1 - diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough) (DTaP)

1 Mighty MaMs HiP
1 = 1 year old
M = MMR
M = MenB
M = MenC
H = Hib
P = IPV

35
Q

At 3 years and 4 months old children will receive the 4 in 1 vaccine. Which of the following is not part of the 4 in 1 vaccine?

1 - diphtheria
2 - tetanus
3 - pertussis
4 - Meningococcal group C (MenC)
5 - polio

A

4 - Meningococcal group C (MenC)

  • 4 in 1 vaccine is inactivated vaccine
  • given in UPPER ARM
36
Q

Males and females receive a vaccine at 12-13 years old and then a second dose at 6-24 months later that was previously given to just girls. What is this vaccine?

1 - measles, mumps and rubella
2 - human papillomavirus (HPV)
3 - Meningococcal group C (MenC)
4 - tuberculosis vaccine

A

2 - human papillomavirus (HPV)

  • protects against 9 HPV viruses
  • reduces the risk of Cancers and genital warts
  • given in UPPER ARM
37
Q

Males and females receive the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine at 12-13 years old and then a second dose at 6-24 months later. This vaccine protects against 9 forms of the HPV virus. Specifically which 2 forms of this virus have been shown to cause genital warts?

1 - 1 and 18
2 - 6 and 18
3 - 16 and 18
4 - 8 and 18

A

3 - 16 and 18

38
Q

At 14 years old children are given the 3 in 1 vaccine. Which of the following is NOT part of this?

1 - tetanus
2 - diphtheria
3 - human papillomavirus vaccine
4 - polio

A

3 - human papillomavirus vaccine

  • given in UPPER ARM
39
Q

In addition to the 3 in 1 vaccine (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) they are also given the meningococcal group vaccine. Which strains of meningococcal does this protect against?

1 - A, B, C, D, E
2 - A, C, W, Y
3 - B, C, Z
4 - A, D, E, Y

A

2 - A, C, W, Y

40
Q

When giving babies the rotavirus, what is an important side effect that we need to be aware of?

1 - fever
2 - diarrhoea
3 - intussusception
4 - anaphylaxis

A

3 - intussusception

  • intestine folds in on itself and is very dangerous
41
Q

Why is it important for parents, family members or others who are immunocompromised who come into contact with a baby who has had their rotavirus need to be careful?

1 - may have anaphylaxis
2 - may have reaction to baby
3 - stool will contain rotavirus and can be dangerous

A

3 - stool will contain rotavirus and can be dangerous

42
Q

Is DNA or RNA more stable at room temperature?

A
  • DNA
43
Q

What is a viral vector?

1 - vaccine containing vessel
2 - modified viruses carrying genetic information
3 - modified viruses that deliver a weakened immune response
4 - modified antigens to stimulate an immune response

A

2 - modified viruses carrying genetic information

  • modified virus is able to deliver DNA to host cells to tell them how to produce antibodies against pathogens
44
Q

Using the labels below, organise how cells are able to present antigens on MHC-I molecules via the endogenous pathway:

  • Transporters of Antigenic
  • Peptides (TAP) transports peptides into endoplasmic reticulum
  • cellular protein is marked for degradation
  • MHC-I containing peptide antigen is transported to cell membrane in exocytic vesicle
  • TAP proteins load the peptide antigen onto the peptide groove of the MHC-I using tapasin
  • proteasome degrades protein into peptides
A

1 = cellular protein is marked for degradation
2 = proteasome degrades protein into peptides
3 = Transporters of Antigenic Peptides or TAP transports peptides into endoplasmic reticulum
4 = TAP proteins load the peptide antigen onto the peptide groove of the MHC-I using tapasin
5 = MHC-I containing peptide antigen is transported to cell membrane in exocytic vesicle

45
Q

When we look at mRNA vaccines that deliver mRNA to host cells, are they presented on MHC-I or II molecules?

A
  • can be both
46
Q

T and B cells bind to which MHC molecules?

A
  • B = MHC-II use exogenous pathways
  • T = MHC-I use endogenous pathways
  • this essentially means that CD8 T cells can kills cells and CD4 B cells can produce antibodies
47
Q

mRNA can be delivered into cells using lipid nanoparticles (LNP). What are LNP?

1 - modified triglycerides
2 - modified cholesterol
3 - modified lipids that stabilise mRNA
4 - stabilised vesicles from within cells containing mRNA

A

3 - modified lipids that stabilise mRNA

48
Q

Lipid nanoparticles (LNP). modified lipids that stabilise mRNA. Which of the following are NOT benefits of LPNs delivering mRNA?

1 - stabilise the negatively charged mRNA
2 - allow for efficient internalisation of the mRNA carrying information for antigen synthesis
3 - provide additional adjuvant function
4 - cannot be scaled up and is expensive

A

4 - cannot be scaled up and is expensive

  • incorrect, it can be scaled up
49
Q

mRNA and RNA have both been shown to act as adjuncts. Which class of pathogen recognition receptors is able to recognise mRNA and RNA and initiate an immune response?

1 - damage associated molecular patterns (DAMPs)
2 - C type lectin receptors
3 - cytosolic toll like receptors (TLR)
4 - pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) with PRRs

A

3 - cytosolic toll like receptors (TLR)

  • specifically TLRs 7 and 8 are able to recognise single stranded mRNA
  • TLR 3 is able t recognised double stranded DNA
  • subsequent cytokines and interferons are produced causing an immune response
50
Q

mRNA and RNA are adjuncts and have been show to initiate an immune response though binding to cytosolic TLR-3, 7 and 8 receptors. The TLRs subsequently trigger an immune response. In order to evade this the mRNA structure has been modified in modern vaccines. Which of the four nitrogenous bases is modified to initiate a better immune response in vaccines?

1 - adenine
2 - cytosine
3 - uracil
4 - guanine

A

3 - uracil

  • replaced with pseudouridine
51
Q

Like RNA and mRNA, does DNA initiate an immune response?

A
  • yes
  • recognised by cytosolic TLRs
52
Q

Does mRNA and DNA used in vaccines both have to enter the nucleus to be transcribed?

A
  • no
  • DNA must enter nucleus
  • mRNA can be transcribed in ribosome in cytosol
53
Q

Once DNA has been delivered to into a host cell using a viral vector, what must happen to it before it can be replicated and turned into an antigen to present on the MHC-I and MHC-II molecules?

1 - inserted into host DNA and new mRNA is made from this
2 - copied by host DNA and then mRNA is made
3 - broken down into mRNA and then translated by ribosome in cytosol

A

3 - broken down into mRNA and then translated by ribosome in cytosol

54
Q

Which of the following is NOT given to babies at 16 weeks old?

1 - diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough) (DTaP)
2 - meningococcal group B (MenB)
3 - inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)
4 - haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
5 - rotavirus
6 - hepatitis B

A

5 - rotavirus

B My 5 Dr HIp
B = hepatitis B
M = Men B
5 = 5 months (16 weeks)
D = DTaR
H = haemophilus type B (Hib)
I = Inactivated Polio (IPV)

A. MLA Map General Practice and Primary Healthcare (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions