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Microbiology > Direct Contact Diseases > Flashcards

Direct Contact Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Staphylococcus aureus: Symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome

A

Fever, rash, vomiting, diarrhea, & death

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2
Q

Staphylococcus aureus: How/When is TSS most commonly caused?

A
  • Typically initiated by staph infections after surgery

Exotoxin responsible for TSS symptoms
Superantigen
Released during cell growth
Recruits large numbers of T cells to site of infection
Cause a major inflammatory response that is fatal in 70% of cases

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3
Q

Virulence Factors of Staphylococcus aureus

A 
Capsule is antiphagocytic
Leukocidin
Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin -1(type of toxin, what is it’s action)
Staphylokinase 
Coagulase 
Hyaluronidase
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4
Q

Staphylococcus aureus Virulence Factor: Capsule

A

Capsule - Anti-phagocytic
- Adherence to foreign bodies

Protein A
Surface proteins; prevents opsonization
(detected in Staph agglutination test to diagnose infection)

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5
Q

Staphylococcus aureus Virulence Factor: Leukocidin

A

destroys WBC and causes puss formation

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6
Q

Staphylococcus aureus Virulence Factor: Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1

A

Superantigen
Released during cell growth
Recruits large numbers of T cells to site of infection

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7
Q

Staphylococcus aureus Virulence Factor: Staphylokinase

A

dissolve blood clots to move further into host

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8
Q

Staphylococcus aureus Virulence Factor: Coagulase

A

makes blood clots to hide from immune system

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9
Q

Staphylococcus aureus Virulence Factor: Hyaluronidase

A

cleaves the hyaluronic acid polymer at the β-1,4 glycosidic bond

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10
Q

What type of agar can differentiate pathogenic & non-pathogenic strains of S. aureus?

A

Mannitol Salt Agar

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11
Q

Prevention strategies for S. aureus infections

A

Virtually impossible!
Identify healthcare workers who are carriers to limit HAI transmission
Practice good hygiene
Avoid contact with personal items of other
Keep wounds covered

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12
Q

How are MRSA and other strains of S. aureus different?

A

Methicilin Resistant Staph

Failure to diagnose and treat in a timely fashion can lead to tissue damage

Same virulence factors as other Staphylococci strains, just resistant to most antibiotics used to treat infections

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13
Q

Treponema pallidum causes what disease

A

Syphilis

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14
Q

Treponema pallidum: Morphology

A

spirochete, corkscrew, fimbrae through middle

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15
Q

Primary Syphilis Symptoms

A

Localized infection at site if entry
Lesion, chancre develops 2 days to 2 months later (key symptom) (potentially long incubation)
Can heal spontaneously

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16
Q

Secondary Syphilis Symptoms

A

Develops from untreated primary syphilis

Cells spread from site if infection to mucous membranes of eyes, joints, bones, or central nervous system

Rash due to hypersensitivity reaction (key symptom), swollen lymph nodes, & fever

17
Q

Tertiary Syphilis Symptoms

A

Development of gumma (soft tissue lesion) – (key symptom)

Mild infections of skin and bones

Serious infections of cardiovascular system or central nervous system - paralysis or neurological damage

Occurs many years after primary infection

18
Q

Complications of gonorrhea

A

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) - women

  • Inflammation & scarring of uterus and fallopian tubes
  • Increased risk of ectopic pregnancies & other complications
19
Q

How to diagnose gonorrhea

A

Presence if gram-negative diplococci is diagnostic

20
Q

Can gonorrhea cause congenital disease?

A

Perinatal gonorrhea

  • infection of the eye (neonatal conjunctivitis)
  • Scaring of cornea resulting in blindness
  • Occurs 2-5 days after birth
21
Q

Prophylactic treatment of newborns with gonorrhea

A

application of antibiotic (erythromycin) gel to eyes of babies at birth

22
Q

Prophylactic treatment of newborns with chlamydia

A

Newborns could get eye infections or pneumonia

- treated with antibiotics

23
Q

Clostridium difficile: How does infection/disease occur?

A

overwhelms norma flora

24
Q

Clostridium difficile: Why is a fecal transplant an effective treatment?

A

inserting healthy feces will help infected feces turn healthy

25
Q

Clostridium difficile: Why is it easily spread in hospital settings?

A

Patients are susceptible to disease
No properly cleaning between patients
Endospores can live for up to 5 months!

26
Q

HIV/AIDS: How does the virus enter a cell?

A

Integrase - puts genome into host chromosome

Initially infects and replicates inside macrophages

CD4 & CCR5 forms docking site

  • HIV envelope fuses with host cytoplasmic membrane
  • required for viral nucleocapsid to be inserted into the cell
27
Q

HIV/AIDS: What cell type is most affected?

A
  • HIV virions released from macrophages infect & replicate Th cells
  • Th cells that produce HIV no longer divide and numbers eventually diminish
28
Q

Good prognosis for a patient with HIV?

A

Low numbers of HIV virions & high numbers of CD4+ cells

29
Q

Dormant HIV

A

Infection does not progress immediately to killing immune cells

HIV exists as a provirus in the host chromosome

HIV genome replicates as host cell DNA replicates

Cell will show now outward sign of infection

HIV can remain dormant for long periods

Eventually full replication will resume producing virions that are released from the cell capable of infecting new cells

30
Q

When do opportunistic infections develop in someone with active HIV/AIDS?

A

When CD4 cells are gone

31
Q

What are the symptoms of acute hepatitis?

A

Jaundice
dark urine
fever
fatigue

32
Q

What are the symptoms of chronic hepatitis?

A

i. Can take decades to develop
ii. Cirrhosis - Build up of scar tissue on liver
iii. Liver failure, liver tissue dying
iv. Fluid in abdomen, weight loss, bleeding and bruising easily

33
Q

What type of Hepatitis has vaccines?

A 
Hep A - Yes
HepB - Yes
Hep C - No
Hep D - Hep B Vaccination
Hep E - NO
34
Q

What does hepatitis mean?

A

inflammation of the liver

35
Q

Does every strain of HPV cause cancer?

A

no

36
Q

What do non-cancerous strains of HPV cause?

A

genital warts

37
Q

For what age ranges and genders is the vaccine for HPV recommended?

A

i. Preteen boys and girls to start around age 11-12.
ii. Series of 3 shots given before the age of 26 for women, 21 for men
iii. Must be given within a 6 month period

Microbiology (7 decks)

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