Digestive System Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 8 main functions of the digestive system?

A

ingestion, propulsion, mixing, mastication, secretion, digestion, absorption, elimination

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2
Q

what are the 2 broad types of digestion?

A

mechanical and chemical

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3
Q

define mechanical digestion

A

physical disruption of food into smaller parts

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4
Q

define chemical digestion

A

breakdown into small soluble constituents

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5
Q

what is chemical digestion reliant on?

A

enzymatic action

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6
Q

what are digestive enzymes produced by?

A

the body and commensal bacteria

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7
Q

what is digestion carried out by commensal bacteria referred to as?

A

fermentation

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8
Q

are the digestive system and the digestive tract the same thing?

A

no

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9
Q

define digestive tract

A

tubular pathway from oral cavity to anus/cloaca

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10
Q

define digestive system

A

digestive tract, glands and accessory structures

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11
Q

what are the 4 layers that surround all parts of the digestive tract?

A

(inside to outside) mucosa, submucosa, tunica muscularis and serosa/adventitia

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12
Q

how does the food bolus move through the digestive tract?

A

peristalsis

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13
Q

where does the muscle contraction occur relative to the food bolus during peristalsis?

A

behind the food bolus

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14
Q

how does the length of carnivores GI tract compare to herbivores GI tract?

A

carnivores usually have shorter intestines relative to size

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15
Q

what do herbivores usually have that carnivores don’t?

A

very long small intestines and modifications for the digestion of cellulose (e.g. rumen or caecum)

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16
Q

what are the accessory digestive organs?

A

gallbladder, liver, pancreas, spleen

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17
Q

what is the function of the liver?

A

vitamin storage, bile production and degradation of toxins and drugs

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18
Q

what is the function of the gallbladder?

A

storage and concentration of bile

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19
Q

what is the function of the pancreas?

A

excorine and endocrine gland

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20
Q

what is the function of the spleen?

A

immune and lymphatic organ and filter of blood

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21
Q

what are the 3 main sections of the gastrointestinal system?

A

foregut, midgut and hindgut

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22
Q

what structures make up the foregut?

A

oesophagus, stomach, liver, gallbladder, proximal duodenum, pancreas

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23
Q

what structures make up the midgut?

A

distal duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending colon, proximal 2/3 transverse colon

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24
Q

what structures make up the hindgut?

A

distal 1/3 transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum

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25
Q

what do each of the 3 sections of the GI tract share?

A

blood supply, nerves and drainage

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26
Q

what does the coeliac trunk supply?

A

foregut

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27
Q

what does the superior mesenteric artery supply?

A

midgut

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28
Q

what does the inferior mesenteric artery supply?

A

hindgut

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29
Q

what is the name of the 3 main arteries that supply the GI tract in quadrupeds?

A

coeliac trunk, cranial mysenteric, caudal mysenteric

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30
Q

what vein drains the entire GI tract?

A

hepatic portal vein

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31
Q

what is the function of the hepatic portal vein?

A

takes nutrients from the gut to the liver to be synthesised/detoxified

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32
Q

what lymph vessel drains the hindgut?

A

inferior mesenteric lymph nodes

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33
Q

what lymph vessel drains the midgut?

A

superior mesenteric lymph nodes

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34
Q

what lymph vessel drains the foregut?

A

coeliac lymph nodes

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35
Q

what do all the abdominal lymph vessels drain into?

A

cisterna chyli into the thoracic duct

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36
Q

which nerves of the parasympathetic nervous system increase digestion?

A

vagus nerve

pelvic splanchnic nerves

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37
Q

what number cranial nerve is the vagus nerve?

A

10

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38
Q

what vertebrae do the pelvic splanchnic nerves originate from?

A

S2-S4

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39
Q

what parts of the GI tract does the vagus nerve innervate?

A

foregut and midgut

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40
Q

what parts of the GI tract does the pelvic splanchnic nerves innervate?

A

hindgut, pelvic reproductive viscera, bladder

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41
Q

what are the ganglion of the sympathetic nervous system which slow digestion?

A

coeliac ganglion, superior mysenteric ganglion, inferior mysenteric ganglion

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42
Q

where do the sympathetic nerves originate from?

A

T5-L3

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43
Q

what are the ganglion called in domestic species?

A

coeliacomesenteric ganglion

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44
Q

what forms the superior barrier of the abdominal cavity?

A

diaphragm and inferior thoracic aperture

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45
Q

what is the inferior thoracic aperture?

A

holes that allow passage of substances from and to the abdominal cavity

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46
Q

what forms the inferior boundary of the abdominal cavity

A

continuous with pelvic cavity but ends at pelvic inlet

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47
Q

what is the abdominal cavity?

A

space which the abdominal organs sit in

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48
Q

what is the abdominal wall?

A

made of muscle and bone it surrounds the abdominal cavity

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49
Q

what does the abdominal wall consist of?

A

bones and muscles

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50
Q

what sections is the abdominal wall split into in humans?

A

posterior and anterolateral

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51
Q

what sections is the abdominal wall split into in quadrupeds?

A

dorsal and ventrolateral

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52
Q

what bones is the abdominal wall formed from?

A

xiphoid process, lumbar vertebrae, pelvis, inferior/caudal ribs

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53
Q

what are the 5 layers of the abdominal wall (without muscle)?

A

skin, superficial fascia, deep fascia, transversalis fascia, parietal peritoneum

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54
Q

what layer of abdominal wall can vastly vary in thickness from person to person?

A

superficial fascia

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55
Q

what are the 3 abdominal muscles of the dorsal/posterior wall?

A

Quadratus lumborum
Psoas
Illiacus

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56
Q

where does the Quadratus lumborum attach?

A

inferior ribs and pelvis

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57
Q

where does the Psoas attach?

A

vertebrae into lower/hind limb

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58
Q

where does the Illiacus attach?

A

illium into hind/lower limbs

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59
Q

What are the 5 purposes of the muscular abdominal wall?

A
encloses viscera
protects viscera
maintains position
expiration
increase extra-abdominal pressure
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60
Q

what are the visible landmarks of the anterior abdominal wall?

A

xiphoid process, linea alba, umbilicus, tendinous intersections, linea semiluminaris

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61
Q

what is the first layer of abdominal muscles?

A

rectus abdominis

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62
Q

where do the rectus abdominis originate and insert?

A

ribs and the pelvis

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63
Q

what is the linear alba?

A

divides the rectus abdominalis muscles

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64
Q

what do the tendinous insertions allow?

A

flexion of the trunk

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65
Q

what direction do rectus abdominis muscles run in?

A

craniocaudally or suprainferiorly

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66
Q

what is the function of rectus abdominis muscles?

A

compress abdominal contents, flex vertebral column, tense abdominal wall

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67
Q

what are rectus abdominis covered by?

A

aponeurosis tendon

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68
Q

what is the second layer of abdominal muscles?

A

external oblique

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69
Q

how do external oblique muscles run?

A

inferomedially

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70
Q

define aponeurosis

A

a sheet-like, fibrous, flattened tendon connecting muscle to bone or to other connective tissues

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71
Q

where do external oblique muscles originate and insert?

A

from ribs and run medially and insert into the aponeurosis and linea alba

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72
Q

how do the external oblique muscles run in quadrupeds?

A

caudo-medially

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73
Q

what is the third layer of abdominal muscles?

A

internal oblique

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74
Q

where do internal oblique muscles run?

A

superiomedially/ towards the head

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75
Q

what is the deepest layer of abdominal muscles?

A

transversus abdominis

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76
Q

how do transversus muscles run?

A

side to side (e.g. waist)

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77
Q

what can be seen within the transversus abdominis?

A

nerves

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78
Q

what is the rectus sheath?

A

organisation of tendons/aponeurosis of the oblique and transverse muscles an how they move around the rectus abdominis to fix into the linea alba

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79
Q

what nerves innervate the abdominal wall?

A

ventral/anterior rami of spinal nerves T7-L1

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80
Q

what are the two main arteries/veins which supply the human abdominal wall?

A

superior epigastric/inferior epigastric

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81
Q

what is the superior epigastric artery a branch of?

A

internal thoracic artery

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82
Q

what is the inferior epigastric artery a branch of?

A

external illiac

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83
Q

what are the two main arteries/veins which supply the quadruped abdominal wall?

A

cranial and caudal epigastrics

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84
Q

what are the two planes which the abdomen can be divided in?

A

median plane and trans-umbilical plane

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85
Q

what are the 4 quadrants of the abdomen?

A

right upper, left upper, left lower, right lower

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86
Q

what type of membrane is the peritoneum?

A

serous membrane

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87
Q

what does the peritoneum line?

A

abdominal cavity and organs

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88
Q

what are the 2 types of peritoneum?

A

parietal and visceral

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89
Q

what type of tissue is the peritoneum?

A

single layer simple squamous mesothelium

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90
Q

what is the peritoneum embryologically equivalent to?

A

pleura and pericardium

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91
Q

what does the peritoneal cavity contain?

A

fluid which enables movement of viscera

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92
Q

what is the parietal peritoneum innervated by?

A

somatic nerves

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93
Q

what branch of the nervous system is the visceral peritoneum innervated by?

A

ANS

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94
Q

define intraperitoneal

A

surrounded by peritoneum

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95
Q

define retroperitoneal

A

behind the peritoneum

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96
Q

define subperitoneal

A

beneath peritoneum

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97
Q

what are the structures covered by peritoneum but not surrounded by it known as?

A

retroperitoneal

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98
Q

what structures are found in the retroperitoneum?

A
Suprarenal glands
Aorta (and so IVC)
Duodenum (2nd and 3rd parts)
Pancreas (not tail)
Ureters
Colon (ascending and descending)
Kidneys
oEsophagus
Rectum
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99
Q

what do folds/reflections of the peritoneum form?

A

mysenteries, omenta and ligaments

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100
Q

what is the purpose of the mysentery?

A

anchors abdominal organs in place with a single attachment to the posterior wall

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101
Q

what is the mysentery formed of?

A

layers of peritoneum which reflect onto/come into contact with each other

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102
Q

what does the mysentery carry?

A

blood vessels, nerves and lymph vessels

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103
Q

what does the great mysentery supply?

A

jejunum and ilium

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104
Q

what are other abdominal structure supplied by?

A

other parts of the mysentery

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105
Q

what is the omentum?

A

peritoneum connecting the stomach to another organ

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106
Q

what does the lesser omentum attach to?

A

lesser curvature of the stomach and underside of the liver

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107
Q

what does the greater omentum attach to?

A

greater curvature of stomach to transverse colon

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108
Q

what is the omentum formed of?

A

fold of peritoneum that falls over the intestine and reflects back onto the transverse colon

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109
Q

when is the omentum formed?

A

during embryological development due to the large amount of twisting and folding that takes place

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110
Q

what are the 2 types of digestion found in the mouth/oral cavity?

A

mechanical

chemical

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111
Q

how is mechanical digestion performed in the mouth?

A

chewing/mastication resulting in physical break up of food

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112
Q

how is chemical digestion performed in the mouth/oral cavity?

A

saliva from salivary glands contains salivary amylase/ptyalin for carbohydrate digestion

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113
Q

what is the orbicularis oris?

A

sphincter muscle of the mouth

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114
Q

what are the lips used for?

A

communication: visual and phonation
valves of oral fissure
prehension

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115
Q

what is the anterior boundary of the oral cavity?

A

oral fissure and lips

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116
Q

what is the posterior boundary of the oral cavity?

A

oropharengeal isthmus

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117
Q

what forms the roof of the oral cavity?

A

hard and soft palettes

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118
Q

what forms the floor of the oral cavity?

A

predominantly muscular tongue

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119
Q

what is the oral cavity split into?

A

oral vestibule

oral cavity proper

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120
Q

what is the oral vestibule formed from?

A

space between teeth and cheeks

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121
Q

where is the oral cavity proper?

A

space where the tongue usually resides

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122
Q

what 2 bones make up the skeletal framework of the mouth in humans?

A

maxilla and mandible

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123
Q

where are the 2 dental arches found?

A

maxilla and mandible

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124
Q

what bone is seen in quadrupeds that is not seem in the human mouth?

A

premaxilla

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125
Q

what is seen in quadrupeds in the mandible that is no seen in humans after the first year of life?

A

mandibular symphysis

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126
Q

what happens at the angle of the mandible?

A

ramus and body meet

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127
Q

what is the coronoid process of the jaw used for?

A

attachment of muscle

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128
Q

what is the condylar process in the jaw?

A

the joint between maxilla and mandible

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129
Q

what bones is the hard palette formed from in the human?

A

maxilla and palatine

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130
Q

what bones is the hard palette formed from in the quadruped?

A

premaxilla, maxilla and palatine

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131
Q

what is the surface of the hard palette formed from?

A

thick mucosa

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132
Q

what is the name of the transverse ridges found on the hard palette?

A

rugae

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133
Q

in what sort of animals are rugae more prominent and made of keretinised epithelium?

A

herbivores

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134
Q

what happens when the soft palette depresses?

A

closes opening into pharynx

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135
Q

what happens when the soft palette elevates?

A

separates naso and oropharynx

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136
Q

what is the mucosa of the soft palette continuous with?

A

pharynx and oral cavity

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137
Q

what sort of tissue is the tongue formed of?

A

muscle

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138
Q

what is the tongue covered with?

A

mucous membrane

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139
Q

what bones is the tongue attached to?

A

hyloid bone and mandible

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140
Q

what two types of muscle are found within the tongue?

A

extrinsic (muscles attach outside of mouth) and intrinsic

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141
Q

what are the 3 main functions of the tongue?

A

deglutition (swallowing)
speech
taste

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142
Q

what is the top (superior/dorsal) surface of the tongue called?

A

dorsum

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143
Q

what type of epithelium is the tongue formed of in most animals?

A

non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

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144
Q

what animals have keretinised stratified squamous epithelium on their tongues?

A

cats

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145
Q

what is the tors linguae?

A

large, solid tissue on the caudal aspect of the tongue in ruminants (cows), used for crushing food against hard palette

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146
Q

what is the name of the ligament which holds teeth roots in place?

A

periodontal ligament

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147
Q

from superficial to deep, name the 3 layers within teeth

A

enamel, dentine, pulp

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148
Q

what are the 3 main types of tooth position?

A

acrodont
pleurodont
thecodont

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149
Q

describe acrodont teeth

A

no root

emerge directly from the jaw

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150
Q

describe pleurodont teeth

A

tooth only anchored into gum on one side

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151
Q

describe thecodont teeth

A

anchored within the jaw

root enclosed on both sides

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152
Q

define diphyodonts

A

to have a deciduous and permanent set of teeth

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153
Q

what are deciduous teeth also referred to as?

A

milk teeth

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154
Q

how many sets of teeth do polyphylodonts have?

A

lots, often loose and replace them at different time so that they have a full set of teeth at all times

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155
Q

what animals are polyphylodonts?

A

sharks

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156
Q

where is hetrodont dentition found?

A

mammals

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157
Q

what are the four basic types of tooth in hetrodont dentition?

A

incisors
canines
premolars
molars

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158
Q

how many of each type of heterodont teeth are found in adults on one side of the jaw?

A

2 incisors
1 canine
2 premolars
3 (2) molars

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159
Q

what type of teeth are not found in children?

A

premolars

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160
Q

what type of salivary gland produces the majority of the saliva?

A

major (paired) glands

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161
Q

how do glands drain into the mouth?

A

situated at a distance and drain in through ducts

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162
Q

what does saliva contain?

A

salivary amylase and antimicrobial agents

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163
Q

what are the 8 functions of saliva?

A
digestion
proteins protect teeth and aid mineralisation
antimicrobial
buffer systems to maintain pH
lubrication
swallowing
taste/gustation
hydration
164
Q

how does saliva aid taste/gustation?

A

dissolves taste compounds

165
Q

what are the 3 sets of salivary glands found in humans?

A

parotid
sublingual
submandibular

166
Q

where is the parotid gland situated?

A

beside the ear

167
Q

where does the parotid gland drain?

A

into vestibule via parotid duct

168
Q

where is the sublingual gland situated?

A

under tongue

169
Q

where is the submandibular gland situated?

A

under mandible

170
Q

where does the sublingual gland drain?

A

directly into oral cavity

171
Q

where does the submadibular gland drain?

A

drain under the tongue

172
Q

how do venom glands work?

A

similar to salivary glands and drain through the fangs

173
Q

what is the function of the temporalis muscle?

A

closes the jaw

174
Q

in what type of animals is the temporalis muscle large?

A

carnivores

175
Q

what is the function of the masseter muscle?

A

closes the jaw and allows lateral movement

176
Q

in what type of animals is the masseter muscle large?

A

herbivores

177
Q

what is the function of the lateral pterygoid muscle?

A

protrudes the mandible and opens the jaw

178
Q

what is the function of the medial pterygoid muscle?

A

closes the jaw

179
Q

what are muscles of mastication supplied by?

A

mandibular division of trigeminal nerve

180
Q

what are the 3 muscles which close the jaw?

A

temporalis
masseter
medial pterygoid

181
Q

what is the pharynx a combination of?

A

respiratory and digestive tract

182
Q

where is the pharynx located in relation to nasal and oral cavities?

A

posterior

183
Q

what are the 3 divisions of the pharynx?

A

nasopharynx
oropharynx
laryngopharynx

184
Q

what type of epithelium is found in the nasopharynx?

A

respiratory epithelium

185
Q

what type of epithelium is found in the oropharynx and laryngopharynx?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

186
Q

what is the function of the oesophagus?

A

transports food from pharynx to stomach

187
Q

what are the muscle layers of the oesophagus like?

A

outer longitudinal muscle

inner circular muscle

188
Q

in what animals is the crop found?

A

in birds

189
Q

what is the crop?

A

dilation of the oesophagus

190
Q

where is the crop located?

A

just above the thoracic inlet

191
Q

what type of epithelium is the crop formed of?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

192
Q

what is the function of the crop?

A

stores and softens food before entry into proventriculus (think diet - seeds)

193
Q

what can contents of the crop be used for?

A

feeding young

194
Q

how does the stomach mechanically digest food?

A

churns and mixes food to increase contact between food and enzymes

195
Q

what substances are used in the stomach to aid mechanical digestion?

A

pepsinogen
hydrocloric acid
rennin

196
Q

what are the 4 main parts of the outside of a carnivores stomach?

A

oesphagus (sphincter), lesser curvature and greater curvature, pyloric sphincter

197
Q

where is the pyloric sphincter located in the stomach?

A

distal end

198
Q

what is the function of the pyloric sphincter of the stomach?

A

controls what leaves stomach into the duodenum

199
Q

what 4 sections that the human stomach be divided into?

A

fundus, cardia, body and pylorus

200
Q

what 2 sections can the pylorus of the stomach be divided into?

A

canal and antrum

201
Q

where is the fundus of the stomach located?

A

above the oesophageal opening

202
Q

what is different about an equine stomach?

A

has glandular and non-glandular components

203
Q

what are the 3 muscle layers present in the stomach?

A

longitudinal, circular, oblique

204
Q

what are rugae?

A

wrinkles of epithelial tissue in the stomach when it is not distended

205
Q

what is the function of rugae in the stomach?

A

allow the stomach to distend and return to shape

206
Q

what is the margo plicatus in the horse stomach?

A

folded margin between glandular and non-glandular tissue

207
Q

what part of the horses stomach means they are unable to vomit?

A

thickened cardiac sphincter and sharp bend in the stomach

208
Q

what happens in the glandular region of a horses stomach?

A

secretion of acids and enzymes

209
Q

what are the parts of the avian digestive system that act like a mammalian stomach?

A

proventriculus and ventriculus/gizzard

210
Q

what happens in the proventriculus of a bird?

A

food arrives from oesophagus and enzymes are released

211
Q

how are seeds and grains digested in the ventriculus?

A

birds ingest stones which are used to grind down tough seeds and grains

212
Q

why do ruminants need a specialised stomach?

A

to allow cellulose digestion by commensal bacteria

213
Q

what are the 4 chambers of the ruminant stomach?

A

rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum

214
Q

what is the function of the rumen?

A

receives swallowed food, holds and ferments it

215
Q

what can happen to food in the rumen?

A

regurgitated, re-masticated and re-swallowed (rumination) or passed on towards reticulum

216
Q

what is the rumen lined with?

A

papillated mucosa

217
Q

what is the function of having papillated mucosa in the rumen?

A

increases the surface area for contact with bacteria and allows large site for absorption of fatty acids

218
Q

what is the function of the reticulum?

A

small accessory chamber to rumen which contracts to move chyme between itself and rumen

219
Q

what is the surface of the reticulum like?

A

honeycomb mucosa

220
Q

where is the reticulum located in relation to the lumen?

A

cranial

221
Q

what is the omasum formed of?

A

epithelium folded into laminae

222
Q

what is the function of the omasum?

A

pumps food into the abomasum

223
Q

what epithelium is the abomasum lined with?

A

simple columnar, glandular epithelium

224
Q

why is the abomasum known as the true stomach?

A

only glandular part, involved in digestion of other molecules from grass once cellulose is broken down

225
Q

where is the omasum located?

A

cranially and to the right of reticulum and rumen

226
Q

where is the abomasum located?

A

ventral to reticulum and omasum

227
Q

what is the function of the abomasum?

A

enzymatic digestion in a highly acidic environment

228
Q

what is the function of the ruminoreticular groove?

A

allows milk to bypass rumen (fermentation) in young animals and go directly to omasum

229
Q

what does the ruminoreticular groove close to in adult ruminants?

A

tube connecting the oesophagus to omasum

230
Q

what does the duodenum form?

A

the first, and shortest, part of the small intestine

231
Q

what shape is the duodenum?

A

C shaped

232
Q

what is the duodenum related to?

A

pancreas, gall bladder and liver

233
Q

where is the foregut/midgut divide located?

A

after the major duodenal papilla

234
Q

what is the major duodenal papilla formed from?

A

fusion of the common bile duct and main pancreatic duct

235
Q

where does the common bile duct originate from?

A

the gall bladder

236
Q

in what species is the pancreas present?

A

all mammalian species

237
Q

why does the structure of the pancreas differ between species?

A

due to different development during embryological development

238
Q

what glands is the pancreas formed of?

A

endocrine and exocrine

239
Q

what does the exocrine pancreas produce?

A

most of the digestive enzymes in the small intestine

240
Q

how do exocrine factors move to their target destination?

A

through ducts

241
Q

what cells are enzyme precursors produced by in the pancreas?

A

acinar cells

242
Q

through what ducts are enzymes transported out of the pancreas?

A

pancreatic duct system

243
Q

what is the endocrine pancreas involved with?

A

regulation of blood sugar

244
Q

what are glucagon and insulin secreted from in the pancreas?

A

islet of langerhans

245
Q

where are islets of langerhans most present in the pancreas?

A

tail of the pancreas

246
Q

where are endocrine factors secreted into to reach their target?

A

the blood stream

247
Q

what is the largest internal organ?

A

the liver

248
Q

what is a function of the liver relating to the gall bladder?

A

produces and secretes bile

249
Q

where is bile stored and concentrated?

A

in the gallbladder

250
Q

what are the 2 lobes of the human liver that can be seen from anterior view?

A

right and left

251
Q

how many lobes does the human liver have?

A

4

252
Q

what are the 4 lobes that can be seen from the ventral view of the liver?

A

right lobe, quadrate lobe, left lobe, caudate lobe

253
Q

what is the quadrate lobe of the liver closely associated with?

A

gallbladder

254
Q

what is the quadrate lobe of the liver closely associated with?

A

gall bladder

255
Q

what is the caudate lobe of the liver closely associated with?

A

IVC

256
Q

what vessels are seen in the portal triad?

A

hepatic portal vein
hepatic artery
hepatic duct

257
Q

what is the role of the hepatic ducts?

A

removal of bile from the liver to the gallbladder

258
Q

what is the role of the hepatic artery?

A

delivery of oxygen rich blood from the coeliac trunk to the liver

259
Q

what is the role of the hepatic portal vein?

A

nutrient rich, oxygen poor blood from the small intestine is delivered to the liver for detoxification and storage of nutrients

260
Q

how does the liver appear in other species?

A

lobes are further separated

261
Q

what is the functional unit of the liver?

A

lobules

262
Q

what runs through the centre of the lobule of the liver?

A

central hepatic venule

263
Q

where does the central hepatic venule drain into?

A

IVC

264
Q

what vessels are located around the outside of lobules?

A

hepatic arteriole, portal venule, bile ductule

265
Q

where does the portal venule drain from?

A

hepatic portal vein

266
Q

when is lobule arrangement easily recognised in the liver?

A

in species with thick layers of interlobular connective tissue (e.g. pigs)

267
Q

where is the gallbladder located?

A

under right lobe of liver

268
Q

what is the function of the gallbladder?

A

stores and concentrates bile to be released into the duodenum during meals

269
Q

what type of epithelium is the gallbladder lined by?

A

simple columnar epithelium

270
Q

where do ducts collect bile from to drain the bile from the liver into the gallbladder?

A

right and left liver and fuse to drain into the gallbladder

271
Q

what species doesn’t have a gallbladder?

A

horses

272
Q

what is the largest lymphoid organ in the body?

A

spleen

273
Q

where is the spleen found in the body?

A

under the diaphragm, behind the stomach

274
Q

what 2 types of pulp is the spleen made up of?

A

white and red

275
Q

what does white pulp contain?

A

lymphocytes around a central artery

276
Q

what is the function of the spleen in terms of immunity?

A

lymphocyte proliferation and adaptive immune response

277
Q

what is located in the red pulp of the spleen?

A

venous sinusoids and reticular fibres

278
Q

what is the function of the red pulp of the spleen?

A

removes particles from circulation including old erythrocytes

279
Q

what shape is an equine spleen?

A

sickle shaped

280
Q

what shape is a human spleen?

A

oval, fist sized

281
Q

what type of embryo folding establishes the foregut, midgut and hindgut?

A

lateral folding

282
Q

what embryological germ layer is the mucosa of the GI tract derived from?

A

endoderm

283
Q

what embryological germ layer is the smooth muscle of the gut and visceral peritoneum derived from?

A

mesoderm

284
Q

What GI tract structures are found in the foregut?

A
stomach
gallbladder
liver
spleen
proximal duodenum
285
Q

what GI tract structures can be found in the midgut?

A
distal duodenum
jejunum
ileum
caecum
appendix
ascending colon
proximal 2/3 transverse colon
286
Q

what GI structures are found in the hindgut?

A

distal 1/3 transverse colon
descending colon
sigmoid colon
rectum

287
Q

where are the oesophagus and anus located in relation to the peritoneum?

A

retroperitoneal

288
Q

What parts of the body wall are the stomach and liver attached to during development?

A

dorsal and ventral body wall

289
Q

what does the attachment of the stomach and liver to the dorsal body wall create?

A

greater omentum

290
Q

what does the attachment of the stomach and liver to the ventral body wall create?

A

falciform ligament

291
Q

what does the connection between stomach and liver during development become?

A

lesser omentum

292
Q

what is the remainder of the GI tract suspended in the abdominal cavity by?

A

dorsal mysentery

293
Q

how are the trachea and oesophagus formed?

A

cranial foregut is divided by tracheoesophageal ridges into the two separate structures

294
Q

How does oesophageal stenosis occur?

A

oesophagus fails to recanalise before birth after occluding so it remains very narrowed

295
Q

how is oesophageal stenosis first noticed?

A

child will regurgitate food immediately after feeding

296
Q

what has happened during a congenital hiatal hernia?

A

oesophagus is not sufficiently long so stomach is pulled through oesophageal hiatus in the diaphragm

297
Q

how is the stomach formed in the embryo?

A

fusiform dilation of the foregut endoderm
90 degree rotation brings the left side ventrally and right side dorsally
differential growth establishes greater and lesser curvatures of the stomach as the left grows more rapidly
craniocaudal rotation moves pylorus superiorly

298
Q

how is the liver formed in the embryo?

A

signals from the heart and the septum transversum

the foregut endoderm adjacent to septum transversum becomes the liver

299
Q

what is the liver comprised of in terms of embryological tissues?

A

endodermal buds surrounded by mesoderm

300
Q

how is the pancreas formed in the human embryo?

A

two outgrowths caudal to the forming liver - ventral and dorsal pancreatic buds
rotation of the gut tube causes merging of dorsal and ventral buds

301
Q

how does the process of pancreas formation differ in the embryos of domestic species?

A

the two pancreatic buds do not fuse leaving the pancreas with right and left lobes

302
Q

how is the midgut formed in the embryo?

A

rapidly lengthens and exceeds capacity of abdomen
forms a U shaped loop that leaves the cavity
intestine rotates 90 degrees craniocauldally to bring lower loop to left side of embryo
as the embryo grows and more space is created gut tube returns
then rotates another 180 degrees bringing the appendix to upper right quadrant. Lowers to lower right quadrant due to growth of colon

303
Q

what is formed from the top of the midgut loop that leaves the abdominal cavity?

A

jejunum and upper ileum

304
Q

what is formed from the bottom of the midgut loop that leaves the abdominal cavity?

A

lower ileum, caecum, appendix, ascending colon and proximal 2/3 transverse colon

305
Q

what is the villetine duct?

A

remnant of yolk sac that should occlude but will form a diverticulum if not

306
Q

how is the hindgut formed in the embryo?

A

ends in the cloaca

divides into urogenital and rectoanal tracts (dorsally)

307
Q

what is the cloaca?

A

common exit of urogenital and rectoanal tracts in the embryo divided by urogenital septum

308
Q

how is the anus created in the embryo?

A

portion of cloaca where gut endoderm rubs on skin ectoderm breaks down

309
Q

what is a congenital umbilical hernia?

A

failure of closure of abdominal wall

310
Q

what is omphalocele?

A

midgut fails to return to abdominal cavity following rotation

311
Q

what is alresia?

A

occlusion of lumen of the gut so there is not an entire tube running the length of the GI tract

312
Q

what is stenosis?

A

narrowing of the lumen

313
Q

what structures make up the midgut?

A

most of the small intestine (from distal duodenum - after major duodenal papilla) and part of large intestine (proximal 2/3 of transverse colon)

314
Q

are there any accessory glands/structures of the midgut?

A

no

315
Q

where is the duodenum located in the small intestine?

A

most proximal part

316
Q

why does the duodenum have a fixed position?

A

as a short mysentery

317
Q

where is the jejunum located in the small intestine?

A

middle region

318
Q

where is the ileum located in the small intestine?

A

distal region

319
Q

what are the jejunum and ileum more mobile?

A

have a longer mysentery

320
Q

what are the 4 layers of GI tract wall?

A

mucosa - epithelium
sub mucosa - dense irregular CT
muscularis externa - 2 layers of smooth muscle
serosa - thin CT

321
Q

what type of digestion takes place in the small intestine?

A

chemical digestion

322
Q

what is used in the small intestine to aid chemical digestion?

A
pancreatic juice (enzymes)
bile (emulsify fats)
intestinal juice (enzymes produced by intestine itself)
323
Q

what is the other major role of the small intestine?

A

absorption of fats, proteins and carbs

324
Q

what shape is the duodenum?

A

‘C’ shaped

325
Q

what organ does the duodenum encircle?

A

pancreas

326
Q

what structure is only found in the wall of the duodenum?

A

brunner’s glands

327
Q

what is the role of Brunner’s glands?

A

secretion of alkaline mucous to neutralise acid from stomach

328
Q

in the human what is the ratio of jejunum to ileum?

A

50:50

329
Q

in dogs and cats what is the ratio of jejunum to ileum?

A

jejunum forms majority of tract

330
Q

where is the jejunum mostly found in the abdomen?

A

left upper quadrant

331
Q

where is the ileum mostly found in the abdomen?

A

right lower quadrant

332
Q

how can the jejunum be differentiated from the ileum?

A
highly folded (plicae) to increase surface area
mysentery is much thinner
333
Q

how is the surface area of the jejunum increased?

A

plicae - villi - micro villi

334
Q

what structures are only found in the wall of the ileum?

A

peyer’s patches (gut associated lymphoid tissue)

335
Q

what type of tissue are peyer’s patches (gut associated lymphoid tissue)?

A

lymphatic tissue

336
Q

how can the ileum be differentiated from the jejunum?

A

smaller and thinner wall
peyer’s patches (gut associated lymphoid tissue) in gut wall
fatty mysentery with a more complex blood supply

337
Q

what are the main ways to differentiate between duodenum, jejunum and ileum?

A

duodenum - Brunner’s glands
jejunum - highly folded
ileum - Peyer’s patches (gut associated lymphoid tissue)

338
Q

what are the parts of the large intestine?

A

caecum, appendix, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum

339
Q

what is found at the ileocaecal junction?

A

opening of ileum directly into caecum

340
Q

is a vermiform appendix found in all mammals?

A

no, absent in dog, horse and ox

341
Q

what is the role of the appendix?

A

unsure but evidence that it could be linked to immunity and commensal bacteria

342
Q

how does the ileocaecal junction differ in dogs?

A

no direct entry to caecum from ileum, retro peristalsis required to move anything into caecum as it is separate and away from ileal papilla

343
Q

what shape is the canine caecum?

A

short, spiral shape

344
Q

is there a direct connection between caecum and ileum in the dog?

A

no

345
Q

what is midgut fermentation?

A

cellulose digestion by commensal bacteria in the caecum and ascending colon

346
Q

what sort of stomach do midgut fermenters have?

A

simple, single chambered stomachs

347
Q

do midgut fermenters ruminate?

A

no

348
Q

give 2 examples of midgut fermenters

A

horses

rabbits

349
Q

where is the caecum located in horses?

A

primarily on the right side from right flank to sternum

350
Q

what are the benefits of midgut fermentation?

A

fast - energy can be accessed quickly (compared to foregut fermenters)
digestible nutrients are absorbed before they are degraded by fermentation

351
Q

what are the disadvantages of midgut fermentation?

A

not as efficient as foregut

stomach is small so animal requires constant small food intake

352
Q

what are caecotrophs?

A

concentrated digestible fraction

353
Q

where are caecotrophs produced?

A

caecum and proximal colon

354
Q

how are caecotrophs produced?

A

segmental and haustra contractions separate ingesta into solid and liquid.
solid, indigestible particles are moved into proximal and distal colon, have water removed and are expelled as faeces
liquid is returned to the caecum via antiperistalsis and further digested. It is then expelled into proximal colon and distal colon where it is coated in mucous to prevent water loss. These soft droppings are the eaten from the anus by the rabbit

355
Q

what are taeniae coli?

A

longitudinal band of smooth muscle on the large intestine

356
Q

what is the function of taeniae coli?

A

pulls to shorten the length of bowel and forms sacs (haustra)

357
Q

what are haustra?

A

sacs formed by contraction of taeniae coli muscles

358
Q

do numbers of taeniae coli vary between species?

A

yes

359
Q

how can taeniae coli give information about the equine colon?

A

numbers differ between different areas of the colon

360
Q

how is the ascending colon arranged in cows and sheep?

A

spiral loop arrangement

361
Q

how does the ascending colon differ between cows and pigs?

A

cows - flat spiral

pigs - more projection/conical spiral

362
Q

what are the 4 main functions of large intestines?

A

absorption of salts
absorption of water
fermentation of complex carbohydrates
excretion of faeces

363
Q

are there villi in mucosa of the large intestine?

A

no

364
Q

what are the names of intestinal glands in the small intestine?

A

crypts of Lieberkuhn

365
Q

does much digestion take place in the large intestine?

A

no

366
Q

where is the rectum located in the abdomen?

A

pelvic area

367
Q

what is the function of the rectum?

A

supports and stores faecal mass before defecation

368
Q

are there any taeniae coli or haustra in the anus?

A

no -is a straighter tube

369
Q

what are the superior rectum relations in the male and female?

A

peritoneum and abdominal viscera

370
Q

what are the posterior rectum relations in the male and female?

A

sacrum, coccyx, pelvic floor

371
Q

what are the inferior rectum relations in the male and female?

A

anus

372
Q

what are the anterior rectum relations in the male?

A

prostate and bladder

373
Q

what are the anterior rectum relations in the female?

A

vagina

374
Q

why is it clinically necessary to know the relations of organs to the rectum?

A

rectal exam can give information about the related organs and pathologies in others

375
Q

what are the rectum relations in the male dog?

A

dorsal - sacrum
ventral - prostate and bladder
caudal - anus
cranial - viscera and peritoneum

376
Q

what is rectal examination commonly used for in large animals?

A

fertility and gut health as many structures can be palpated through the rectum

377
Q

where is the anus located?

A

inferior to rectum

378
Q

what does a build up of pressure against the walls of the rectum cause?

A

internal sphincter relaxes open and to allow faeces into the canal

379
Q

what does the relaxation of the external anal sphincter permit?

A

defecation

380
Q

what muscle is the external anal sphincter formed of?

A

skeletal muscle

381
Q

what nerves control the external anal sphincter?

A

pudendal nerve

382
Q

where does the pudendal nerve exit the spine?

A

S2-4

383
Q

what is the internal anal sphincter formed from?

A

thickening of smooth circular muscle (tunica muscularis) of gut tube

384
Q

what nerves control the internal anal sphincter?

A

parasympathetic - pelvic splanchnic

sympathetic - splanchnic

385
Q

what is the dentate/pectinate line?

A

embryological landmark within the anus that determines embryological origin of tissues and their innervation

386
Q

above the dentate/pectinate line where is the epithelium derived from?

A

endoderm

387
Q

what nerves innervate structures above the dentate/pectinate line?

A

visceral motor and sensory nerves

388
Q

below the dentate/pectinate line where is the epithelium derived from?

A

ectoderm

389
Q

what nerves innervate structures below the dentate/pectinate line?

A

somatic motor and sensory

390
Q

how can the dentate/pectinate line be identified histologically?

A

change from mucosa to stratified squamous epithelium and then keretinised epithelium

391
Q

what is the main function of levator ani?

A

support rectum and pull up anus

392
Q

what are the 3 muscles which make up levator ani?

A

illiococcygeus
pubococcygeus
puborectalis

393
Q

what is the role of puborectalis?

A

contracts to prevent defecation and increase curve in the rectum

394
Q

what happens if puborectalis is relaxed?

A

straightens rectum

395
Q

how can lifting feet aid defecation?

A

reduces tonic contraction of puborectalis and straightens rectum making defecation easier

396
Q

what are anal sacs?

A

circular structures adjacent to the anus with external anal sphincter wrapped around them

397
Q

what is the role of anal sacs?

A

releases scent into environment through faeces (e.g. odors or pheromones)

398
Q

what can happen to anal sacs particularly in dogs?

A

become blocked needing manual release by vet

399
Q

what is a cloaca?

A

common opening for defecation, urination and reproduction

400
Q

what species are cloaca commonly found in?

A

birds
reptiles
amphibians

401
Q

what issues can result in cloaca?

A

developmental

402
Q

what are the 3 sections of a cloaca?

A

coprodeum
urodeum
proctodeum

403
Q

what is released into the coprodeum?

A

contents of colon

404
Q

what is released into the urodeum?

A

contents of ureters

405
Q

what is released into the proctodeum?

A

contents of reproductive tract

406
Q

do birds have a distinct bladder?

A

no

407
Q

do reptiles have a distinct bladder?

A

no - have a urinary bladder which can be used to store urine if not immediately excreted