Digestion Shtuff Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is the most common receptor that mediates salivary function?

A

M3 (muscarinic receptor-Ach)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common infection as a result of xerostomia?

A

Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the three parts of a basic unit of a salivary gland?

A

1.An Acinus 2.An intercalated duct 3.A striated duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the elongated or star-shaped non-secreting cells with long branching processes that contract to eject saliva in the mouth?

A

Myo-epi-thelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

QUICK: ACINUS TYPE, and % of SALIVA for the Parotid gland

A

SEROUS, 25% of saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

QUICK: ACINUS TYPE, and % of SALIVA for the Submandibular gland

A

MIXED, 71% of saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

QUICK: ACINUS TYPE, and % of SALIVA for the Sublingual gland

A

Mucous, 3-4% of saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

QUICK: ACINUS TYPE, and % of SALIVA for the Minor (Buccal) glands

A

Mucous, Trace % of saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What duct drains the parotid gland? Where can I find it?

A

Stensen’s Duct…by the upper 2nd molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What duct drains the submandibular gland? Where can I find it?`

A

Wharton’s Duct…Base of the underside of tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What duct(s) drain(s) the sublingual gland? Where can I find them?

A

Ducts of Riv-in-us..along the sublingual fold on the floor of the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the three most important salivary proteins?

A

Salivary Alpha-Amylase, Lingual Lipase, Mucins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of bond does salivary alpha-amylase NOT cleave?

A

Salivary alpha-amylase does NOT cleave TERMINAL alpha-1,4 linkages NOR alpha-1,6 linkages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which saliva component attacks bacterial cell walls?

A

A Lysozyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which saliva component chelates iron and therefore prevents multiplication of organisms that require iron for growth?

A

LactoFerrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which salivary component is active against certain viruses and bacteria?

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

On activation, chemo and pressure receptors initiate impulses in ______ nerve fibers that carry the information to the salivary center of the _______.

A

afferent….medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two CNs that control parasympathetic signals for salivation?

A

VII and IX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

_______ and other cholinergic blocking agents reduce salivary secretion. (COOL can use it in the clinic on over salivating patients!)

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of receptors control parasympathetic pathways for salivation?

A

Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of receptors control sympathetic pathways for salivation?

A

Beta-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What nerves control sympathetic stimulation of salivary glands?

A

T1-T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What regulates movement of contents of the common bile duct into the duodenum?

A

Sphincter of Oddi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the accumulation of peritoneal fluid?

A

Ascites (swelling) “Ass-eye-tee’s”`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 4 tunics/layers of the GI from Lumen—>Out?

A

1.Mucosa 2.Submucosa 3.Muscularis Externa 4.Serosa (AKA Visceral Peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the two plexi that are termed the intrinsic nerve plexus or the ENTERIC nervous system?

A

1.Submucosal Plexus 2.Myenteric Plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the four parts of the GI tract innvervated by the VAGUS nerve? What % of the Vagus nerves are afferent?Efferent?

A

ALL UPPER! 1.Esophagus 2.Stomach 3.Small Intestine 4.Ascending Colon…75% Afferent…25%Efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What nerves innervate the lower GI tract (Transverse, Descending, and Sigmoid colons and the anal canal)? What are the origins of these nerves?

A

The Pelvic Nerves (Pelvic Splanchnic)…Origins:S2,S3,S4 (keep the poo off the floor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the 5 taste qualities? What is an example of each?

A

Salty (NaCl), Sweet (Sucrose), Sour (Citric Acid), Bitter (QUININE hydrochloride), Umami (MSG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of papillae is mushroom like, is scattered over entire tongue surface, but is most abundant at its tip and along its anterior sides?

A

FungiForm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What 2 tastes do fungiform papillae USUALLY respond to? What is the tertiary taste?

A

Sweet & Salty….also sour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of papilla are folded structures, is most abundant on the middle edges of the tongue, and mainly respond to SOUR?

A

Foliate Papillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What CN AND BRANCH of that CN innvervates the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

VII, Chorda Tympani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What papilla is the largest and least numerous and mostly responds to BITTER?

A

CircumVallate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which papillae does CN IX innervate?

A

Circumvallate and foliate (post 1/3 of tongue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which CN innvervates the taste buds on the epiglottis?

A

CN X-VAGUS!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which CN innervates the taste buds on the palate?

A

CN VII-FACIAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the three types of cells in a taste bud?

A

1.Taste Receptor Cells (TRC) 2.Basal cells 3.Supporting cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Taste receptor cells are technically NOT ______. Instead, taste receptor cells synapse onto afferent nerve endings of CNs ___, ___ and ___.

A

neurons…VII,IX, and X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where do taste CN afferents terminate? Where is this located?

A

Nucleus of the solitary tract (solitary nucleus)…Located in the brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where in relation to the cervical vertebrae is the pharynxgoesophageal junction?

A

C5-C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What type of epithelium is in the esophagus?

A

Non-Keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the condition where the LES (Lower Esophageal Sphinter) FAILS to relax? What is the main danger?

A

“AK-AH-LAY-SHA” —–Achalasia…Main danger is aspiration into the lungs when the person lies down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the result of decreased closing strength of the LES and therefore permitting acidic gastric contents into the esophagus?

A

GERD-GastroEsophageal Reflux Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What type of cancer is related to GERD?

A

Esophageal AdenoCarCinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the HALLMARK of Barrett’s Esophagus on a cellular level?

A

METAPLASIA of Squamous Epithelium to Columnar Epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

KEY TO DRUG understanding: What molecules play an important role in protecting the stomach mucosa from injury by enhancing mucus production?

A

PROSTAGLANDINS-Using NSAIDs block prostaglandin production and can cause weakening of the mucosal layer

48
Q

The mucosal surface of the stomach is a ___________ epithelium.

A

Simple Columnar

49
Q

Which cells secrete alkaline mucus?

A

Mucus Neck Cells

50
Q

Which cells secrete HCl & Intrinsic Factor?

A

Parietal Cells—aka–“OX-IN-TIC (oxyntic)” cell

51
Q

What are the two main functions of Intrinsic Factor?

A

Absorption and ErythroPoesis

52
Q

Which cells secrete pepsinogen and Gastric Lipase?

A

Chief Cells–aka–“ZY-MO-GENIC” cell

53
Q

Which cells secrete Gastrin (G cells) & Histamine (ECL cells)?

A

Endocrine Cells

54
Q

The _____ junctions between the cells are also part of the mucosal barrier that protects the gastric epithelium from damage.

A

Tight

55
Q

What hormone and cell stimulates parietal cells to produce IF and HCl?

A

Gastrin from Endocrine Cells (G cells)

56
Q

Which hormone increases levels of HCl secretion from parietal cells?

A

HISTAMINE

57
Q

What converts Pepsinogen to Pepsin?

A

HCl

58
Q

What are the three hormones that INHIBIT gastric juice secretion in Intestinal Phase?

A

1.CCK (“Cole-E-sis-TA-K-eye-NIN”) 2. Secretin 3.Gastric Inhibitory Peptide

59
Q

What are the three HORMONES that can stimulate H+ production in a Paritetal Cell?

A
  1. Histamine 2.Gastrin 3.Vagus Nerve-Acetylcohline
60
Q

What enzyme does H. Pylori produce to survive in the stomach? What is the by product of that enzyme?

A

Urease….Ammonia (basic to neutralize the acidic gastric juice)

61
Q

What does Intrinsic Factor bind to? Where does it do this?

A

IF binds to Vitamin B12 in the Small Intestine

62
Q

What is the result of inadequate Vit B12 absorption? What do the RBCs look like?

A

Pernicous Anemia, Megaloblastic cells

63
Q

What are the oral manifestations of pernicious anemia?

A

erythematous (red) mucosal lesions

64
Q

How does Benedryl cause dry mouth?

A

the anti-histamine CROSS reacts with muscarinic receptors (especially high dose) causing blockage of the parasym activity

65
Q

What does pancreas endocrine function refer to?

A

Insulin and Glucagon

66
Q

What does pancreas exocrine function refer to?

A

Pancreatic Juice

67
Q

What are the two main cell groups of the pancreas? What % composition?

A

1.Islets of Langerhans (endocrine)-5% 2.Ascinar cells (exocrine cells)-95%

68
Q

What is the INFAMOUS region where the Bile Duct Sphincter, the Pancreatic Duct Sphincter, and the Sphincter of Oddi all join together?

A

the Papilla of Vater (NOT darth Vader)

69
Q

What converts Trypsinogen to Trypsin? Where does this happen?

A

EnteroKinase(EnteroPeptidase)..At the entrance of the Duodenum

70
Q

What are the two hormones controlling pancreatic juice secretion? What are their products like?

A

1.Secretin-Pancreatic Juice that’s RICH in HCO3- and LOW in enzymes. 2.CCK-Pancratic Juice that’s Rich in enzymes and Low in HCO3-

71
Q

What CN stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice? How does this juice compare to to Secretin/CCK? What triggers this CN response?

A

VAGUS X! A juice rich in enzymes, but not as much as CCK. The SIGHT or SMELL of food can trigger this!

72
Q

What are the two main causes for Pancreatitis?

A

1.Gallstones in the common bile duct 2.EtOH

73
Q

The commonly used term “pancreatic cancer” usually refers to a _____________ of the pancreas (including its subtypes).

A

ductal adenocarcinoma

74
Q

What does BLOOD use for transportation from the hepatic portal veins to the central vein of a lobule?….What does BILE use for transportation from the central vein area of the lobule to the blue duct?

A

A sinusoid…A Canaliculus

75
Q

What makes up the almighty liver lobule?

A

ROWS and ROWS of Hepatocytes

76
Q

What are the contents of the Portal TetRad?

A

1.A Portal Vein 2.A Hepatic Artery 3.A Bile Duct 4.A lymphantic vessel

77
Q

Where do hepatic macrophages hang out? What are they called?

A

Kupffer Cells…they hang out in the blood SINUSOIDS

78
Q

Where does the Common Hepatic Artery branch out of off the aorta?

A

The Celiac Trunk!

79
Q

What are the three main branches supplying the portal liver vein with deoxygenated, nutrient rich blood?

A

Splenic Vein, Inferior Mesenteric, Superior Mesenteric

80
Q

The sinusoids of the liver are lined by a ________ endothelium. An have NO _____________….THIS permits blood plasma to wash freely over the exposed surfaces of the hepatocytes in the ___________ (___________).

A

fenestrated—LATIN for window….NO underlying basement membrane…SPACE OF DISSE (perisinusoidal space)

81
Q

LIVER-Sinusoidal blood flow is always ________ the central vein.

A

TOWARDS

82
Q

How does Bile drain the liver? (3 steps)……Which duct leads bile from the liver to the Gall Bladder?

A

1.R/L Hepatic Duct 2.Common Hepatic Duct 3.Common Bile Duct……..Cystic Duct

83
Q

You ready for the BOOM?! How bad do you want that A?! WHAT ARE THE 13 MAJOR LIVER FUNCTIONS? This is a mastery type flashcard..

A

1.GlycogenoLYSIS 2.Glycogenesis 3.Protein Metabolism 4.Urea Synthesis 5.Lipid Metabolism 6.Hormone Metabolism 7.Iron Metabolism/Storage 8.Vitamin Storage 9. Drug Detoxification 10. Vitamin D Activation 11. Plasma Protein Synthesis 12. Clotting Factor Synthesis 13. Bile Synthesis

84
Q

What 2 enzymes are required for the first step in amino acid degradation?

A

1.Aspartate TransAminase (AST) 2.Alanine TransAminase (ALT)

85
Q

What is the name of the cycle where ammonia is converted into urea?

A

the Anders ÖRN-ith-ine Cycle!

86
Q

What is a BUN? What is a normal BUN range? What is the most common reason for increase in BUN?

A

Blood Urea Nitrogen…5-26 mg/dL in adults…impaired liver function

87
Q

Which lipoproteins are carrying cholesterol/fats from the liver to the body? (2 types)

A

VLDLs and LDLs

88
Q

Which lipoproteins carry cholesterol/fats from the body and bring it to the liver?

A

HDL

89
Q

WHAT IS THE CATALINA WINE MIXER of endogenous cholesterol synthesis?

A

HMG-CoA REDUCTASE!!

90
Q

REVIEW: What are the three Ketone Bodies?

A

1.Acetone 2.Beta-Hy-droxy-but-yric Acid 3.Aceto-Acetic Acid

91
Q

What molecule STORES iron in the liver?

A

Ferritin

92
Q

What is the form of iron in the blood?

A

Transferrin

93
Q

What three vitamins are stored in LARGE quantities in the liver?`

A

Vitamins A, B12, and D

94
Q

What DDI results in DECREASED metabolic activity of CP450 enzymes, leading to DECREASED metabolism of drugs?

A

CP450 INHIBITION…Grapefruit juice inhibits the metabolism of cocaine!

95
Q

Which DDI results in INCREASED activity of CP450 enzymes leading to INCREASED metabolism of the drugs?

A

CP450 INDUCTION…Ethanol speeds up the metabolism of tylenol or BROCCOLI speeds up the metabolism of caffeine!

96
Q

What is the final, active product of Vit D activation? What hormone stimulates the final steps?

A

1,25-Di-Hydroxy-chol-e-cal-ciferol…PTH

97
Q

WHAT ARE THE 9 clotting factors synthesized in the liver?

A

1,2—–5——7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12…EASY as PIE!

98
Q

REVIEW: What are the three MAIN types of plasma proteins? Are these the only proteins found in the blood?

A
  1. Albumin 2.Globulin 3.Fibrinogen…HELL NAW, not the only proteins found in the blood!
99
Q

What are the two PRIMARY Bile Acids? What are they synthesized by? What are the two AA’s used to turn bile acid into bile salt?

A

Cho-Lic Acid and Chen-o-deoxy-Cho-Lic Acid…Synthesized by the liver….GLYCINE or TAURINE

100
Q

Bilirubin is a waste product of _______ degradation.

A

Hemoglobin

101
Q

Which stomach enzyme is inactivated in the duodenum because of the increased pH?

A

Pepsin!

102
Q

What are the mucus producing cells of the SI?

A

Goblet Cells

103
Q

What epithelial cell type composes the majority of enterocytes in the SI?

A

Simple Columnar Epithelial cell

104
Q

Glucose and galactose are ABSORBED (via _______ _______ transport) through a ___-dependent cotransporter known as _____.

A

secondary active…Na+…..SGLT1

105
Q

Fructose ENTERS by _______ _______ via ______ ______ ___ (_____) that does not require ___.

A

facilitated diffusion…..glucose transporter 5 (GLUT5)….Na+

106
Q

ALL monosaccharides are transported OUT of the enterocytes and into the capillaries by ____’s (via ______ ______).

A

GLUT2’s…(via facilitated diffusion)

107
Q

What is the size limit for bringing peptides/AA’s into an enterocyte?

A

Tripeptides, Dipeptides, and single AAs can enter the cell

108
Q

What is the drug aimed at increasing HDL? What does this drug REDUCE?

A

Niacin (Nicitinic Acid, Vitamin B3)..Also reduces VLDL production

109
Q

What are the two inflammatory intestinal disorders that make up Inflammatory Bowel DISEASE (not syndrome!!)

A

1.Crohn’s Disease 2.Ulcerative Colitis (UC)

110
Q

WHAT IS THE HALLMARK OF CROHN’S DISEASE?

A

COBBLESTONE

111
Q

Which IBDisease has oral manifestations?

A

Crohn’s!

112
Q

Which OMENTUM connects the lesser curvature of the stomach and the first part of the duodenum to the liver?

A

Lesser Omentum!

113
Q

Which OMENTUM connects the transverse colon to the stomach?

A

Greater Omentum!

114
Q

Common hepatic artery is a branch of ______

A

celiac trunk

115
Q

Epithelial cells of the small intestine show surface modification known as

A

the striated border

116
Q

which one passes thru the diaphragm: the aorta or the esophagus?

A

esophagus

117
Q

Enterogastric reflex = decrease in _______

A

gastric mobility