Diagnostic Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Most importantly, you need an accurate clinical ___ and ____ ____ for diagnostic microbiology

A

History
Physical exam

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2
Q

Laboratory identification of microbial pathogens:

A
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3
Q

Growth dependent microbiology requires growing in the ___, and enriching it, isolating it and finally ___ it

A

Lab
Identifying

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4
Q

Antigen assays and molecular assays do not require ___ in the lab.

A

Growth

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5
Q

You can also use direct _____ examination.

A

Microscopic

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6
Q

Isolation of pathogens from a clinical sample must be ___ and ___ properly. Must be take for the ____ of infection. Sample must be taken ____. Sample size must be large enough to establish ____ in the lab. Metabolic requirements for the organism must be maintained during ___ and ___.

A

Obtained
Handled
Site
Aseptically
Growth
Storage
Transport

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7
Q

Direct microscopic examination can be done after the ___ stain or ____ stain. You can use ___ ___ for something like cryptococcus neoformans. ____ treatment is used for fungal forms. You can also use ____ antibodies or ____ microscope

A

Gram
Acid-fast
India ink
KOH
Fluorescent
Electron

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8
Q

Fungi are heterotrophs and feeding off of us, you have to use ___ which is potassium hydroxide to dissolve the human cells but not the fungal cells.

A

KOH

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9
Q

Table of direct microscopy examination:

A
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10
Q

Dark-field Microscopy is a flipped inversion of how the light normally moves through and highlights the ___ of the cell.

A

Edges

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11
Q

Direct and indirect immunofluorescence:

A
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12
Q

Immunofluorescence depends on the fact that the bacteria cell have ____ that are species specific

A

Antigens

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13
Q

Direct immunofluorescence is when the ____ antibody is fluorescently labeled.

A

Antibacterial

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14
Q

Indirect immunofluorescence is when the _____ antibody is fluorescently labeled.

A

Anti-rabbit

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15
Q

Indirect immunofluorescence is ____.

A

Cheaper

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16
Q

It is cheaper to make an indirect antibody in a ___ or other animal. It is a ____ antibody binding the primary antibody.

A

Rabbit
Secondary

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17
Q

Two rods that are distinguished using direct immunofluorescence:

A
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18
Q

Growth dependent diagnostic mechanisms:
___ ___ supplies the nutritional needs of the microorganism and it can be chemically defined (___ ___) or undefined (___ ___), usually yeast.

A

Culture media
Defined medium
Complex medium

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19
Q

____ media: contains compounds that selectively inhibit the growth of some microbes, but not others

A

Selective

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20
Q

____ media: contains an indicator, usually a dye, that detects chemical reactions occurring during growth

A

Differential

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21
Q

Successful cultivation and maintenance of ___ ____ of microorganisms can be done only if ___ ___ is practiced to prevent contamination by other microorganisms.

A

Pure cultures
Aseptic technique

22
Q

Culture of ____ microorganisms can be complicated by the challenge of maintaining ____ conditions

A

Anaerobic
Anoxic

23
Q

_____ require oxygen. ___ ___ can live with it without oxygen. ____ ____ can tolerate oxygen and grow in its presence even though they cannot use it. ____ are aerobes that can use oxygen only when it is present at levels reduced from that in air

A

Aerobes
Facultative organisms
Aerotolerant
Microaerophiles

24
Q

Table of types of culture media:

A
25
Q

Sheep’s Blood agar culture media is not ____ , it is differential. 5% sheep’s blood added. Used to cultivate _____ micro organisms along with a determination of their ____ capabilities.

A

Selective
Non-fastidious
Hemolytic capabilities

26
Q

____ hemolysis: bacteria damages the red blood cells but not destroy them, internal components become oxidized

A

Alpha

27
Q

____ hemolytic: they create toxins that are completely destroying the red blood cells. You get a halo

A

Beta

28
Q

___ hemolysis: microorganisms that don’t produce a hemolytic toxin against red blood cells. They grow in the plate but the media does not change around them

A

Gamma

29
Q

___ ____ ___ (___) agar is selective and differential. It is an enteric agar used to distinguish different forms of enteric ___ ___ pathogens, based on their ability ferment lactose. Lactose fermenters will produce a ___ ___ (left side in picture). It inhibits the growth of ___ ___ bacteria.

A

Eosin- methylene blue (EMB)
Gram negative
Metallic sheen
Gram positive

30
Q

EMB agar table:

A
31
Q

____ agar is selective and differential. Similar to EMB. Distinguishes between ___ ___, fermenters of lactose will turn deep ___ while non lactose fermenters remain ___ ___. Gram positive does not grow.

A

MacConkey
Gram negative
Purple
Light pink

32
Q

___-____ media is used for isolating Neisseria bacteria and it inhabits the growth of most other microorganisms. Nutrients are chocolate ___ ___, beef infusion, casein hydrolysate, and starch. It contains the following antibiotics:

A

Thayer-Martin
Sheep’s blood

33
Q

Example identification of N. gonorrhoeae:
It loves to grow inside our ____.

A

Neutrophils

34
Q

Flow Chart

A
35
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae characteristics:

A
36
Q

____ ___ allows for us to run all these clinical tests for bacteria simultaneously.

A

API strip

37
Q

Antibiotic drug susceptibility testing:
On a mill or hinter agar plate, looking for the growth of organisms around a disc that has been soaked with an ____. The halo around the disc is called the ___ of ___. The size of the halo Determines if that antibiotic can be used for ____ for that bacteria.

A

Antibiotic
Zone of inhibition
Treatment

38
Q

____ is the study of antigen-antibody reactions in vitro. Serologic reactions are used for many diagnostic ____ tests.

A

Serology
Immunology

39
Q

____ reactions: the visible clunking of a particular antigen when mixed with antibodies specific for the particular antigens. Used to identify ___ ___ antigens and many pathogens and pathogen products

A

Agglutination
Blood group

40
Q

Direct agglutinations results when ____ antibody causes clumping due to interaction with an antigen that is an ___ part of the surface of a cell or other ____ particle. Used to classify antigens found on the surface of ___ ___ cells.

A

Soluble
Integral
Insoluble
Red blood

41
Q

Passive agglutination is agglutination of antigens or antibodies that have been ___ or ___ ___ to cells or insoluble particles. Reacts can be up to 5 times more sensitive than ___ agglutination tests.

A

Absorbed
Chemically coupled
Direct

42
Q

Passive agglutination is when you’re looking at something so ___ you can’t actually see agglutination with the naked eye. Or you’re looking at something that is ____.

A

Small
Colorless

43
Q

Passive agglutination uses a ___ ___ with a bunch of antibodies on their surface. They bind to target pathogen. We are seeing the bead, not the pathogen itself

A

Latex bead

44
Q

The direct Elisa Test:
Order a plate with wells of different antibodies. Then put a second antibody in the plate that causes a color change when it sticks to antigen. Wash phase removes anything that didn’t stick

A
45
Q

Direct ELISA is also called ____ ELISA. Antibody-antigen-antibody

A

Sandwich

46
Q

Picture of ELISA Test:

A
47
Q

Usually a 16 fold dilution of ELISA shows ____ results. A 1 or 2 fold dilution is not reliable.

A

Reliable

48
Q

The indirect ELISA test, instead of having antibody bound to the plate, we have ___ bound to the plate. We are looking for ___ from an immune response instead of pathogen itself. Use a secondary antibody that is ___ ___ to bind to the antigens.

A

Antigen
Antibodies
Anti-human

49
Q

You can identify the ___ of antibody using indirect ELISA. Important when looking at the ____ of infectious disease.

A

Class
Serodiagnosis

50
Q

Moving into searching for ____ ___ ___. Used in Covid.

A

Pathogenic nucleic acid