Diagnostic MCAT (psychosocial)

Question 1

Weber’s characteristics

Answer 1

1. Hierarchical Structure
2. Specialization and Division of Labor
3. Formal Rules and Regulations
4. Impersonality
5. Merit-Based Advancement
6. Formal Communication
7. Full-Time, Paid Employment
8. Rationality
9. Hierarchical Structure
   Bureaucracies have a clearly defined hierarchy where authority is organized in a pyramid-like structure. Each level of the hierarchy controls and supervises the level directly below it, ensuring clear lines of command and responsibility.
10. Specialization and Division of Labor
    Tasks and responsibilities are divided into specialized roles. Each employee or department is assigned specific duties, which leads to increased expertise and efficiency in completing tasks.
11. Formal Rules and Regulations
    Bureaucracies operate based on a system of formal, written rules and regulations that govern the behavior of employees and the functioning of the organization. These rules ensure consistency, predictability, and fairness in decision-making and operations.
12. Impersonality
    In a bureaucracy, decisions are made based on objective criteria rather than personal relationships or emotions. This ensures that all individuals are treated equally and fairly, without favoritism or bias. Personal feelings are separated from professional duties.
13. Merit-Based Advancement
    Employees are selected and promoted based on their qualifications, experience, and performance, rather than personal connections or nepotism. This merit-based system is designed to encourage competence and reward achievement.
14. Formal Communication
    Communication within a bureaucracy follows formal channels. Information is shared through official documents, reports, or meetings, and employees are expected to follow these formal procedures to communicate with one another.
15. Full-Time, Paid Employment
    Bureaucracies generally employ people on a full-time, salaried basis. Employees are expected to dedicate their professional time and efforts to the organization, and their roles are seen as distinct from personal or familial responsibilities.
16. Rationality
    Bureaucracies are designed to be rational, with an emphasis on efficiency, goal achievement, and logical decision-making. The organization is structured to ensure that resources are used in the most efficient and effective way possible.

Question 2

Vertical mobility

Answer 2

Vertical mobility indicates a change in someone’s socioeconomic status.

Question 3

Eriksons Theory of Psychological Development

Answer 3

1. Trust vs. Mistrust (Infancy, 0–1 year)
   Conflict: Can I trust the world?
2. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (Early Childhood, 1–3 years)
   Conflict: Can I do things myself?
3. Initiative vs. Guilt (Preschool, 3–6 years)
   Conflict: Is it okay for me to act?
4. Industry vs. Inferiority (School Age, 6–12 years)
   Conflict: Can I succeed?
5. Identity vs. Role Confusion (Adolescence, 12–18 years)
   Conflict: Who am I? What is my place?
6. Intimacy vs. Isolation (Young Adulthood, 18–40 years)
   Conflict: Can I form close relationships?
7. Generativity vs. Stagnation (Middle Adulthood, 40–65 years)
   Conflict: Am I contributing to society?
8. Integrity vs. Despair (Late Adulthood, 65+ years)
   Conflict: Have I lived a fulfilling life?
   Wisdom/acceptance vs regret/bitterness

Question 4

Horizontal mobility

Answer 4

Horizontal mobility would represent an individual’s change of role within the same social class.

Question 5

Structural mobility

Answer 5

Structural mobility refers to social mobility as a result of macro-social changes, generally impacting a significant part of the population.

Question 6

Intergenerational mobility

Answer 6

Intergenerational mobility refers to generational change in socioeconomic status across different generations.

Question 7

A researcher interested in cultural differences regarding happiness designs a cross-cultural study in which happiness is measured relative to a nation’s gross domestic product. Which is a dependent variable in this study?

What is the independant and dependant variable?

Answer 7

Dependent variable: Happiness

Independant variable: Cultural differences

Question 8

Independant vs Dependent variable…

Answer 8

Independant: An independent variable explains the variance in the phenomenon observed in a study.

Dependent: A dependent variable represents the phenomenon that a research study seeks to explain.

Question 9

Medicalization and an example

Answer 9

Medicalization refers to the recategorization of a condition as a medical problem that requires diagnosis and treatment by medical experts.

Alcoholism:
Went from a problem of moral character to treatable medical condition today.

Question 10

People tend to form social and romantic relationships with individuals that they see frequently. Which construct is most likely to explain this tendency?

A.Looking-glass self
B.Mere exposure effect
C.Social comparison
D.Social facilitation

Answer 10

B

Question 11

Stimulus generalization

Answer 11

Stimulus generalization refers to a stimulus-controlled behavior occurring in response to stimuli that physically resemble the original controlling stimulus.

Question 12

Spontaneous recovery

Answer 12

Spontaneous recovery is the reappearance of an extinguished response after a period of non-exposure to the conditioned stimulus.

Question 13

Stimulus discrimination

Answer 13

Stimulus discrimination refers to a stimulus-controlled behavior occurring in response specifically to the original controlling stimulus without being elicited by stimuli that resemble the original stimulus.

Question 14

Secondary reinforcement

Answer 14

Secondary reinforcers are stimuli that have acquired reinforcing qualities by being associated with primary reinforcers.

Question 15

Operant conditioning

Answer 15

Operant conditioning is a learning process in which behaviors are influenced by their consequences, such as reinforcement (to increase behavior) or punishment (to decrease behavior).

Question 16

Operant conditioning - Continuous reinforcement

Answer 16

In continuous reinforcement, a behavior is reinforced every time it occurs. Each correct response or desired behavior is followed by a reinforcement.

Quick learning, quick extinction.

Question 17

Operant conditioning - Partial reinforcement

Answer 17

In partial reinforcement, the behavior is reinforced only some of the time, not every time it occurs. This can happen in several different schedules.

Slower learning, greater resistance to extinction.

Question 18

Scapegoating

Answer 18

Scapegoating refers to erroneously assigning blame to an identifiable source, often when the real cause is abstract, such as globalization.

Question 19

Ethnocentrism

Answer 19

Ethnocentrism indicates that the values and practices of other cultures are evaluated by someone’s own cultural lenses and considered as inferior.

Question 20

Xenophobia

Answer 20

Xenophobia refers to the fear and suspicion towards cultures perceived to be foreign.

Question 21

Which structural feature does NOT characterize modern economic systems?

A.Division of labor
B.Craft apprenticeship
C.Occupational specialization
D.Structural interdependence

Answer 21

B

Too individualized

Question 22

Operational definition

Answer 22

Operationalization refers to how an abstract concept as a variable is observed through different measurements. The use of different measures, such as the frequency of attending religious rituals, is to operationalize the abstract concept of religiosity.

Question 23

Thematic definition

Answer 23

A research theme refers to the larger area of research for a study.

Question 24

Conceptual definition

Answer 24

Conceptualization refers to the stage in a study where the researcher describes the social dynamics related to a concept.

Question 25

Hypothetical definition

Answer 25

A hypothesis requires the definition of the expected relationship between two or more variables.

Question 26

Social stigma

Answer 26

Stigma refers to negative stereotypes associated with a group in the society. Stigmas bestow disadvantages to those labeled with the stereotypes and are often associated with health, ability, personal background, and social background.

Question 27

Avoidant Attachment

Answer 27

Definition: Individuals with this style are emotionally distant, avoid intimacy, and suppress attachment needs. They may appear self-reliant and dismissive of close relationships.

Key Features:
Little to no distress when a caregiver leaves and avoids the caregiver upon return.
Difficulty trusting others and forming deep connections.
Often results from caregivers who are emotionally unavailable or rejecting.

Question 28

Anxious-Ambivalent (or Resistant) Attachment

Answer 28

Definition: Marked by anxiety, clinginess, and uncertainty about relationships. Individuals with this attachment style often seek closeness but fear rejection and abandonment.

Key Features:
Intense distress when a caregiver leaves and difficulty being soothed upon return.
Ambivalence: Both seeking and resisting closeness.
Often stems from inconsistent or unpredictable caregiving.

Question 29

Secure Attachment

Answer 29

Definition: This style is characterized by trust, comfort with intimacy, and a positive view of self and others. Individuals with secure attachment tend to have healthy relationships, are comfortable depending on others, and can balance independence with closeness.

Key Features:
Distress when a caregiver leaves but easily soothed upon return.
Confidence in caregiver availability and support.
Associated with consistent and responsive caregiving.

Question 30

How does avoidant attachment style result in infancy?

Answer 30

Little separation anxiety: The infant appears indifferent when the caregiver leaves.
Resistance to contact: The infant avoids or resists seeking comfort or closeness when the caregiver returns.

Long-term Outcomes:
Difficulty forming close relationships in adulthood.
Suppression of emotions and avoidance of intimacy.
A tendency to rely heavily on oneself and resist seeking help from others.

Question 31

How does secure attachment style result in infancy?

Answer 31

The caregiver consistently meets the infant’s emotional and physical needs in a timely and appropriate manner.
The caregiver is emotionally present, attentive, and attuned to the infant’s signals.
The caregiver provides a stable and nurturing environment where the infant feels safe to explore while knowing the caregiver will protect them if needed.

Long-term Outcomes:
Positive relationships with peers and adults.
Emotional regulation skills.
A sense of trust in others and self-confidence.

Question 32

How does Anxious-Ambivalent (or Resistant) Attachment
style result in infancy?

Answer 32

Caregivers are sometimes responsive to the infant’s needs but at other times are unavailable or inattentive.
Caregivers may exhibit inconsistent emotional engagement, leading the infant to feel unsure about the caregiver’s reliability.
The caregiver might sometimes be overly involved or controlling, leaving the infant feeling unable to explore or self-soothe.

Long-term Outcomes:
A tendency to be overly dependent in relationships.
Fear of rejection and abandonment in close relationships.
Difficulty regulating emotions under stress.

Question 33

Heuristic

Answer 33

Heuristics are cognitive rules of thumb that offer shortcuts to reasoning and problem solving.

Question 34

Cognitive Schema

Answer 34

Schemas are knowledge structures that determine one’s expectations in different contexts, including social interactions.

Question 35

Critical Period

Answer 35

A critical period refers to a stage, usually in early development, when the individual is more receptive to learning from specific types of experiences (for instance, linguistic interaction) compared to later points in development.

Question 36

Insight

Answer 36

In cognitive psychology, insight typically refers to the novel realization of a solution to a problem.

Question 37

Parietal lobe

Answer 37

The primary function of the parietal lobe is the integration of sensory information. This brain region is less likely to be involved in the task as compared to others (traumatic event).

Question 38

Hippocampus

Answer 38

The hippocampus is involved in memory encoding, which is necessary for the recall of the critical incident.

Question 39

Prefrontal Cortex

Answer 39

The prefrontal cortex is involved in executive functioning and decision making, which is likely to be involved in answering the assessments in the tasks (traumatic event).

Question 40

Amygdala

Answer 40

The amygdala is involved in emotional encoding, which is likely to be involved in recalling the critical incident.

Question 41

Psychoanalytic Theory: Id

Answer 41

Definition: The id is the most primitive part of the mind, present from birth. It operates on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification of basic drives, such as hunger, thirst, and sexual desire.

Characteristics:
Unconscious.
Driven by instincts (e.g., libido and aggression).
Seeks pleasure and avoids pain, regardless of consequences or social norms.
Example: A hungry baby crying until fed.

Question 42

Psychoanalytic Theory: Ego

Answer 42

Definition: The ego develops as the rational and realistic part of the mind that mediates between the desires of the id and the constraints of reality. It operates on the reality principle.

Characteristics:
Partly conscious and partly unconscious.
Balances the id’s desires with societal norms and the superego’s morality.
Engages in logical thinking, planning, and problem-solving.
Example: A person delays eating until food is prepared, rather than eating something inappropriate.

Question 43

Psychoanalytic Theory: Superego

Answer 43

Definition: The superego represents internalized moral standards and ideals acquired from caregivers and society. It strives for perfection and judges actions, producing feelings of guilt or pride.

Characteristics:
Mostly unconscious but has conscious elements.
Acts as the moral conscience.
Opposes the id by enforcing rules and ideals.
Example: A person resists the urge to steal because it’s against their moral values.

Question 44

Relationship Between Id, Ego, and Superego:

Answer 44

Comparing it to a battle:
Id: Represents instinctual drives (e.g., “I want it now!”).
Superego: Imposes moral judgments (e.g., “It’s wrong to want that!”).
Ego: Balances these opposing forces and makes decisions (e.g., “Let’s wait and get it legally.”).

Ego uses strategies to manage conflicts between the superego and id.

Question 45

Pleasure Principle

Answer 45

The pleasure principle is the guiding force of the id, which drives it to seek immediate gratification of needs, wants, and desires to avoid discomfort or pain.

Question 46

Defense Mechanism: Rationalization

Answer 46

Rationalization involves creating a seemingly logical explanation for otherwise unacceptable behavior.

Question 47

Defense Mechanism: Projection

Answer 47

Projection occurs when someone attributes unacceptable thoughts or behaviors within themself to another person.

Question 48

Defense Mechanism: Reaction Formation

Answer 48

Reaction formation involves minimizing uncomfortable thoughts or emotions by overemphasizing their opposite.

Question 49

Defense Mechanism: Emotional Displacement

Answer 49

Emotional displacement involves shifting the focus of emotion from a less to more acceptable target.

Question 50

Independant vs Dependant Variable

Answer 50

Independent Variable (IV):
Definition: The variable that is manipulated or controlled by the researcher to observe its effect on the dependent variable.
Key Characteristics:
Chosen or altered by the experimenter.
Stands “independent” of other variables in the experiment.

Dependent Variable (DV):
Definition: The variable that is measured or observed to assess the effect of the independent variable.
Key Characteristics:
Changes in response to the manipulation of the independent variable.
“Depends” on the independent variable

In a study examining the impact of caffeine on reaction time:
Independent Variable: The amount of caffeine administered (e.g., 0 mg, 50 mg, 100 mg).
Dependent Variable: The reaction time of participants (e.g., time taken to respond to a stimulus).

Question 51

Positive Punisher

Answer 51

A positive punisher decreases the frequency of the preceding behavior by introducing an aversive stimulus. In the passage example, the patient’s attendance of social events decreased as a result of his event attendance leading to the elevation of feelings of inferiority (an aversive stimulus).

Question 52

Negative Reinforcer

Answer 52

A negative reinforcer increases the frequency of the preceding behavior by removing an aversive stimulus. This is not relevant, as the patient’s behavior (attending social events) has decreased.

Reinforcement always increases behavior.

Question 53

Positive Punisher vs Negative Reinforcer

Answer 53

How They Differ:
Positive Punishment: Adds something unpleasant to reduce behavior.
Negative Reinforcement: Removes something unpleasant to increase behavior.

Reinforcement always increases behavior.
Punishment always decreases behavior. Confusion often arises because both negative reinforcement and positive punishment involve aversive stimuli, but they function differently based on whether the goal is to increase or decrease behavior.

Question 54

Are dispositional attitude ratings of more positive and negative (extreme) or less when the subject is positioned with others as opposed to being alone

Answer 54

more extreme

Question 55

What is social facilitation?

Answer 55

Social facilitation, the tendency for individuals to perform better when others are present especially when working on a familiar task, predicts better performance when participants are with others, not when they are alone.

(Direct opposite of social inhibition).

Question 56

Elaboration Likelihood Model (ELM): Central Route Processing

Answer 56

Central route processing occurs when the central characteristics of a message, such as its informational content and the quality of its arguments, are used to form an attitude.

Characteristics:
Persuasion depends on the strength and logic of the arguments.
Attitude changes are long-lasting and resistant to counterarguments.

Question 57

Elaboration Likelihood Model (ELM): Peripheral Route Processing

Answer 57

Peripheral route processing occurs when peripheral characteristics drive an individual’s processing and attitude formation in a given social setting.

Characteristics:
Persuasion depends on external cues, such as the attractiveness or credibility of the speaker, emotional appeal, or catchy slogans.
Attitude changes are temporary and more susceptible to counterarguments.

Question 58

The passage states that “As more sugar is added, subtle changes in the sweetness of wine can be detected by both experts and novices.”

Which construct is most relevant to the description in paragraph 2 about the comparison of two wines with different levels of sweetness?

A.Weber’s law
B.Perceptual constancy
C.Natural selection
D.Absolute threshold

Answer 58

A

Weber’s law states that the minimum change in intensity necessary for the subject to sense that the stimulus has changed is a ratio of the original stimulus intensity. This is relevant to detecting changing levels of sweetness in wine.

Question 59

Webers law (continued)

Answer 59

Weber’s law states that the minimum change in intensity necessary for the subject to sense that the stimulus has changed is a ratio of the original stimulus intensity. This is relevant to detecting changing levels of sweetness in wine.

Question 60

Perceptual Constancy

Answer 60

Perceptual constancy refers to the tendency to experience a stable perception even as the sensory input itself is changing.

Question 61

Absolute Threshold

Answer 61

Absolute threshold refers to the smallest amount of physical stimulation required to detect a sensory input half the time it is present.

Question 62

Which receptors are responsible for the color vision necessary to detect changes in color?

Answer 62

Cones are the photoceptors responsible for color vision, and are mainly located in the fovea of the eye.

Question 63

Cones vs Rods (eyes)

Answer 63

Rods are the photoceptors primarily responsible for black-and-white vision, and are mainly found in the periphery of the eye.

Cones are the photoceptors responsible for color vision, and are mainly located in the fovea of the eye.

Question 64

A student sommelier who correctly describes a wine explains his or her success by saying “I just got lucky.” Which factor best explains the student’s attribution?

A.Conformity
B.External locus of control
C.Social facilitation
D.Social inhibition

Answer 64

B. Locus of control refers to the types of attributions individuals make to explain their outcomes. Individuals with an external locus of control believe that forces outside of their control primarily contribute to their outcomes.

Question 65

Conformity

Answer 65

Conformity is the altering of one’s own behaviors and opinions to match those of other people or to match others’ expectations.

Question 66

Social Inhibition

Answer 66

Social inhibition occurs when the presence of an audience hinders performance.

Question 67

Social Strain Theory

Answer 67

Strain theory describes how people react to social constraints to achieving goals.

Question 68

Disengagement Theory

Answer 68

Disengagement theory describes how older people disengage from society.

Question 69

Differential Association Theory

Answer 69

Differential association theory focuses on how an individual might learn behaviors, that are considered as deviant in larger society, from their close social environment.

Question 70

Labeling Theory

Answer 70

Labeling theory specifically focuses on how deviant behaviors in the past have long-term stigmatizing impacts on individuals.

Question 71

Front stage self

Answer 71

Front stage self refers to an individual’s impression management that is consistent with the expectations of a particular social role.
This concept would be applicable to how an individual adapts to their social environment when they interact with others in that environment.

Question 72

Intersectionality

Answer 72

Intersectionality (Intersectional approach) indicates that the different aspects of someone’s social background (e.g., race, ethnicity, age, gender, and class) might concomitantly bestow privileges or disadvantages on an individual.

Question 73

Social Role Conflict

Answer 73

Social role conflict indicates the conflicting demands of two different social roles an individual carries.
Role conflict would be applicable to the study if the study found that an individual experienced a role conflict between their social role associated with their family background and their role as a member of the community.

Question 74

Cognitive Dissonance

Answer 74

Cognitive dissonance is a form of psychological distress experienced when an individual holds two inconsistent attitudes, or when their behavior is inconsistent with their attitudes.

Question 75

Self-efficacy

Answer 75

Self-efficacy is one’s belief about one’s personal ability to perform behaviors that should lead to expected outcomes.

Question 76

Heuristics

Answer 76

Heuristics are cognitive rules of thumb that offer shortcuts to reasoning and problem solving.

Question 77

Role Conflict

Answer 77

This is the correct answer. Role conflict occurs when the separate roles that an individual occupies come into conflict. The conflicting demands of being a caregiver and being an employee best describes a role conflict.

Question 78

Role Strain

Answer 78

Role strain refers to the stress an individual experiences due to the competing demands within the SAME social role.

Question 79

Experimental methods

Answer 79

Experiments are based on the manipulation of the independent variable by isolating the environmental factors.

Question 80

Ethnography methods

Answer 80

Ethnography is a qualitative research method to make in-person observations in a cultural setting over an extended period of time.

Question 81

Cortisol
Melatonin
Prolactin
Oxytocin

Answer 81

Cortisol (stress): Cortisol is a hormone that is specifically released during stressful situations and is a primary mediator of physiological changes associated with stress.

Melatonin (sleep): Melatonin is a hormone that is most associated with regulation of the sleep-wake cycle.

Prolactin (milk): Prolactin primarily functions in the production of milk for lactation.

Oxytocin (feel good): Oxytocin functions to stimulate uterine contractions and milk ejection. While oxytocin can also impact mood, this occurs by alleviating, not promoting, the effects of stress.

Question 82

Semantic Memory

Answer 82

Semantic memory is memory for facts and knowledge. This is the memory system used for a categorization task which requires participants to use pre-existing knowledge to sort the items.

Question 83

Episodic Memory

Answer 83

Episodic memory is long-term memory for personally experienced events.

Question 84

Short-Term Memory

Answer 84

20 seconds with no interruption.

Information is only maintained in short-term memory for approximately 20 seconds, unless it is actively rehearsed. Given the study included a 2-minute distraction task, the information being recalled would not be in short-term memory.

Question 85

Sensory Memory

Answer 85

Sensory memory is the system of memory which preserves information in its original sensory form, typically only for a fraction of a second.

Question 86

The morphological changes associated with elevated stress or exercise are examples of:
A. Lesions
B. Maturation
C. Neural Transmission
D. Neural Plasticity

Answer 86

D. Neural Plasticity: Neural plasticity refers to the ability of the nervous system to modify itself, functionally and structurally, in response to experience or injury. Reduced dendritic spines, decreased long-term potentiation, and reduced neurogenesis in the hippocampus are examples of neural plasticity.

Why B is wrong: Maturation is the expected development associated with the gradual unfolding of one’s genetic blueprint. Brain maturation does not result from elevated stress or exercise.

Question 87

Normative Social Influence

Answer 87

Normative social influence refers to individuals acting in ways that comply with the norms of their social groups.

Question 88

Informational Social Influence

Answer 88

Informational social influence occurs when individuals conform to others’ behavior because they are in an ambiguous situation for which they do not have a script.

Question 89

Big 5 Personality Test (Five Factor Model, FFM)

Answer 89

Agreeableness: Compassionate, cooperative, trusting, and kind

Contentiousness: Organized, disciplined, responsible, and goal-oriented.

Neuroticism: Emotionally sensitive, prone to stress, anxiety, and mood swings.

Extraversion: Sociable, outgoing, energetic, and assertive.

Openness (to experience): Creative, imaginative, curious, and open to new experiences.

Question 90

Stimulants
Sedatives
Hallucinogens
Opioids

Answer 90

Stimulants: Increase activity of CNS.

Sedatives: Depress activity of the CNS (calmness relaxation).

Hallucinogens: Psychedelic effects.

Opioids: Depress activity of the CNS (pain relief).

Question 91

Hawthorne Effect

Answer 91

The change in the participants’ behavior when they know their behavior is being observed, including via self-report.

Question 92

Confirmation Bias

Answer 92

The tendency to put more weight on information that confirms one’s preexisting attitudes.

Question 93

Self-Serving Bias

Answer 93

The tendency to attribute one’s successes to internal, stable traits, and failures to situational factors.

Question 94

Demand Characteristics

Answer 94

Demand characteristics occur if the research design provides cues to the participants regarding the study hypothesis and causes them to respond in a specific manner.

Leading them on essentially.