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HP1000 > Developmental Psychology > Flashcards

Developmental Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

What is developmental psychology?

A

Developmental psychology is the scientific study of growth, change, and consistency through the lifespan.

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2
Q

What is human development?

A

In the context of life, human development is the scientific study of the changes that occur in people as they age, from conception until death.

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3
Q

What factors are taken into consideration in human development?

A

It can cover numerous different topics such as personality, cognition, biological processes, and social interactions.

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4
Q

What is longitudinal design study?

A

Most research in age-related changes are in a longitudinal design, in which a group of participants are studied over a long period of time.

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5
Q

What is a cross-sectional design study?

A

Several different age groups are studied at one time.

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6
Q

What is a cross-sequential design study?

A

Participants are first studied by means of a cross-sectional design but are then followed and assessed longitudinally.

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7
Q

What changes do longitudinal designs typically study?

A

Mainly examines age-related changes.

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8
Q

What changes do cross-sectional designs typically study?

A

Mainly examines age-related differences.

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9
Q

What is a cohort effect?

A

Cohort effect is where there is an impact on development occurring when a group of people share a common time period or common life experience.

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10
Q

In which design is cohort effect likely to occur?

A

Cross-Sectional Design & Cross-Sequential Design

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11
Q

What changes do cross-sequential designs typically study?

A

Examines both age-related differences & age-related changes.

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12
Q

What is ‘nature’ in terms of development?

A

Nature refers to heredity, the influence of inherited characteristics on personality, physical growth, intellectual growth, and social interactions.

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13
Q

What is ‘nurture’ in terms of development?

A

Nurture refers to the influence of the environment on the same things and includes parenting styles, physical surroundings, economic factors and other possible external factors.

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14
Q

According to scientific research, which affects human development more? ‘Nature’ or ‘nurture’?

A

After numerous years of scientific research, most developmental psychologists agree that all that people are and all people become is the product of an interaction between nature and nurture.

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15
Q

What is behavioural genetics?

A

Behavioural genetics is a field of study in which researchers try to determine how much of behaviour is a result of genetic inheritance and how much is due to a person’s experiences.

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16
Q

What are family studies?

A

Family studies typically measure many individuals from a large number of families on a particular behavioural trait of interest.

Researchers would then correlate the scores on the trait between family members (i.e. parents, siblings, grandparents, aunts/uncles, cousins).

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17
Q

What are adoption studies?

A

Tracks the presence or absence of traits in adopted children, among adoptive parents and biological parents.

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18
Q

What can be the conclusion if an adopted child shares a more similar trait or if there is a higher correlation between themselves and their adoptive parents?

A

It shows that environmental factors plays a greater contribution in that trait rather than genetic factors.

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19
Q

What can be concluded if the adopted child shares a more similar trait or there is a higher correlation between themselves and their biological parents?

A

It shows that genetic factors plays a greater contribution in that trait rather than environmental factors.

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20
Q

What are twin studies?

A

Compares the frequency of traits in identical twins (or monozygotic twins) who share 100% of genes and frequency of traits in fraternal twins (or dizygotic twins) who share approximately 50% of genes.

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21
Q

In twin studies for developmental psychology, their traits are being measured, but in what form?

A

They are being measured by the concordance rate, which is the percentage of twins in the study that share a particular trait.

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22
Q

In twin studies for developmental psychology, if there is a higher concordance rate in traits between the twins. Can it be concluded that the trait is definitively influenced by genetic factors?

A

Having a higher concordance rate does not equal to more evidence that the trait is more influenced by genetic factors, as external factors such as living environment also play a part.

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23
Q

What is genetics?

A

Genetics is the science of heredity or the science of inherited traits.

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24
Q

What is DNA?

A

DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) is a special molecule that contains the genetic material of the organism.

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25
Q

What is DNA comprised of?

A

Comprised of two sugar-phosphate strands, linked by amines or bases arranged in a particular pattern.

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26
Q

What are amines in DNA?

A

Amines are organic structures containing genetic codes for building proteins that make up organic life (i.e. hair colouring, muscle, skin).

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27
Q

What does each section of DNA contain?

A

An ordering of amines, called a gene.

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28
Q

What are chromosomes?

A

Tightly wound strand of genetic material or DNA.

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29
Q

Where are chromosomes located?

A

Found in the nucleus of a cell.

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30
Q

How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have typically?

A

23 pairs, for a total of 46 chromosomes.

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31
Q

What determines the sex of a person?

A

The last 23rd pair of chromosomes, also known as the sex chromosomes.

2 X-shaped chromosomes indicate a female
1 X-shaped & 1 Y-shaped chromosome indicate a male.

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32
Q

What are dominant genes?

A

Genes that are more active in influencing a trait are called dominant.

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33
Q

What are recessive genes?

A

Genes that only influence a trait when paired with an identical gene are called recessive.

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34
Q

What is fertilisation?

A

When an egg (or ovum) and a sperm unite, resulting single in a cell that will have a total of 46 chromosomes called a zygote.

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35
Q

How does the single cell of the zygote eventually become a baby?

A

The zygote would start to divide into multiple cells, each new cell also containing these 46 chromosomes, as the DNA molecules produce duplicates of themselves before each division (this process is called mitosis). The zygote eventually becomes a mass of cells, becoming a foetus/baby.

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36
Q

What happens when the zygote splits completely?

A

It will result in two foetuses being formed; these two foetuses are referred to as monozygotic twins, where they possess the exact same set of 46 chromosomes.

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37
Q

What occurs when two different eggs are fertilised by two different sperm?

A

Two separate foetuses form, however, they only share about 50% of the chromosomes.

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38
Q

What are the three stages of prenatal development?

A

The germinal period, embryonic period, and foetal period.

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39
Q

What occurs in the germinal period of prenatal development?

A

During the 2 weeks, the zygote begins dividing and moving down to the uterus, eventually attaching to the wall of the uterus.

Cells begin to differentiate or develop into specialised cells, in preparation for becoming various kinds of cells of the human body (i.e. skin cells, organs).

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40
Q

What occurs in the embryonic period of prenatal development?

A

Cells continue to specialise and become various organs and structures.

The mass of cells, now called the embryo, also begins to receive nourishment from the mother through the placenta.

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41
Q

What are critical periods in prenatal development?

A

A critical period is where environmental influences can have an impact on the development of the infant.

Teratogens may cause severe harm towards the infant.

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42
Q

What are teratogens?

A

Teratogens are any substances such as a drug, chemical, virus or other factor that can cause a birth defect.

A common teratogen is alcohol, which when consumed during a critical period, can lead to foetal alcohol spectrum disorders.

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43
Q

What occurs in the foetal period of prenatal development?

A

The foetus size increases by about 20 times. Organs continue to develop and eventually become functional.

At 38 weeks, the foetus is considered full term, most babies are born between 38 and 40 weeks.

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44
Q

When does the germinal period occur in prenatal development and how long does it last?

A

From conception until about 2 weeks after birth.

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45
Q

When does the embryonic period occur in prenatal development and how long does it last?

A

From 2 weeks after conception to about 8 weeks after conception.

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46
Q

What are teratogens more likely to affect during the foetal period of prenatal development?

A

The physiology or physical functioning of the organs, rather than their structure.

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47
Q

What are the two common methods of studying infants?

A

Preferential looking and habituation.

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48
Q

What is preferential looking and how is it used in studying infants?

A

It assumes that the longer an infant looks at the stimulus, the more the infant prefers that stimulus over others.

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49
Q

What is habituation and how is it used in studying infants?

A

Habituation is the tendency for infants to stop paying attention to an unchanging stimulus.

Habituation is commonly used as a tool to demonstrate the cognitive abilities such as categorization, object representation and memory, in infants.

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50
Q

What are infancy reflexes?

A

Infants have a set of innate (existing from birth), involuntary behaviour patterns called reflexes.

Paediatricians use these innate reflexes to determine whether a newborn’s nervous system is working properly.

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51
Q

What are the 6 common infancy reflexes?

A

Sucking, rooting, grasping, stepping, moro (startle), babinski.

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52
Q

What are some motor milestones in infancy motor development?

A

(1) Raising head and chest—2 to 4 months
(2) Rolling over—2 to 5 months
(3) Sitting up with support—4 to 6 months
(4) Sitting up without support—6 to 7 months
(5) Crawling—7 to 8 months
(6) Walking—8 to 18 months.

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53
Q

How does an infant’s brain develop?

A

The growth of new dendrites, axon terminals, and increasing numbers of synaptic connections.

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54
Q

What is synaptic pruning and when does it occur in infants?

A

It is where unused synaptic connections and nerve cells are cleared away to make way for functioning connections and cells.

Much of these are due to the infants experiencing new things.

55
Q

What are some innate knowledges of infants?

A

The innate knowledge of properties of objects (e.g. moving as a cohesive unit, on a continuous path) and also the ability to quantify items.

56
Q

What are some innate social abilities of infants?

A

Mimicry (imitation of people’s behaviour), particularly in facial expressions

Strong synchronicity, where there is close coordination between the gaze, vocalising, touching, and smiling of infants and caregivers.

57
Q

How developed is the infant’s sense of touch?

A

It is the most well developed, due to skin-to-womb contact during last months of pregnancy.

58
Q

How developed is the infant’s sense of smell?

A

It is highly developed.

Breast-fed babies can tell the difference between their own mother’s milk scent and another woman’s milk scent.

59
Q

How developed is the infant’s sense of taste?

A

It is highly developed.

Infants show a preference for sweet tastes and can also develop a preference for salty tastes.

Sour & bitter tastes may produce spitting up and facial expression by the infant to display their unpleasantness.

60
Q

How developed is the infant’s sense of hearing?

A

Functional before birth, however still requires time to be fully developed.

Fluids of the womb must clear out of the auditory canals completely.

61
Q

Infants are mostly responsive to what kind of sounds?

A

Newborns seem most responsive to high and low pitches (women’s & men’s voices respectively)

62
Q

How developed is the infant’s sense of vision?

A

It is the least functional sense.

The rods are fairly well developed, however, cones will take another 6 months after birth to fully develop. Hence they have relatively poor colour perception and “fuzzy” vision.

63
Q

What is the most preferred visual stimulus of infants?

A

Human faces.

64
Q

What is the most preferred auditory stimulus of infants?

A

Human voices.

65
Q

What is maturation in terms of infancy development?

A

Infants go through distinct and predictable behavioural changes which often occur with minimal parental involvement. These natural changes are defined as maturation.

66
Q

What is Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory?

A

Piaget believed that children form mental concepts or schemas as they experience new situations and events.

Piaget also believed that children first try to understand new things in terms of schemas they already possess, a process called assimilation.

67
Q

What are the four distinct stages of cognitive development as theorised by Jean Piaget?

A

Sensorimotor Stage, Preoperational Stage, Concrete Operations, and Formal Operations.

68
Q

According to Jean Piaget, when does the sensorimotor stage occur, and what occurs during that stage?

A

It occurs after birth and till the age of 2.

In this stage, infants use their senses and motor abilities to interact with the world.

They also use their involuntary reflexes to interact with objects by grasping, pushing, tasting etc.

69
Q

What is object permanence and in which of the stages in Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory does it begin to develop?

A

Object permanence is the knowledge that an object exists even when it is not in sight.

It begins to develop during the sensorimotor stage.

70
Q

What is symbolic thought and in which of the stages in Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory does it begin to develop?

A

Symbolic thought is the forming and maintaining of internal images of objects or events.

It begins to develop during the sensorimotor stage and also occurs during the preoperational stage.

71
Q

According to Jean Piaget, when does the preoperational stage occur, and what occurs during that stage?

A

It occurs from the age of 2 till the age of 7.

The child develops language and concepts, they are fully capable of symbolic thought as well as simple mental concepts.

They are not capable of logical thought yet.

72
Q

What is animism and in which of the stages in Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory does it begin to develop?

A

Animism is the belief of inanimate objects are alive and have feelings.

It is seen during the preoperational stage.

73
Q

What is egocentrism and in which of the stages in Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory does it begin to develop?

A

The inability to see the world through anyone else’s eyes but one’s own.

It is seen during the preoperational stage and the formal operations stage in adolescents.

74
Q

What is centration and in which of the stages in Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory does it begin to develop?

A

Centration is when the focus is only on one feature of some object rather than taking all features into consideration.

It is seen during the preoperational stage and usually no longer occurs during concrete operations.

75
Q

What is conservation and in which of the stages in Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory does it begin to develop?

A

It is the ability to understand that changing the appearance of an object does not change the object’s nature.

It is absent during the preoperational stage and occurs during concrete operations.

76
Q

What is irreversibility and in which of the stages in Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory does it begin to develop?

A

The inability to mentally reverse an action.

It is seen during the preoperational stage and usually is no longer present during concrete operations.

77
Q

According to Jean Piaget, when does the concrete operations stage occur, and what occurs during that stage?

A

It occurs between ages 7 to 12.

The child becomes capable of conservation and reversible thinking, and centration no longer occurs.

They are about to think logically about beliefs and come to their own more rational conclusions.

78
Q

What are concrete concepts and in which of the stages in Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory does it appear?

A

Concepts that are present in the physical world. Such as objects and written rules. They usually have to be present in one of the physical senses.

They are present in the concrete operations stage.

79
Q

What are abstract concepts and in which of the stages in Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory does it appear?

A

Abstract concepts are concepts that do not have a physical, concrete, touchable reality.

They are present in the concrete operations stage but are not dealt with effectively. It is only dealt through abstract thinking in the formal operations stage.

80
Q

According to Jean Piaget, when does the formal operations stage occur, and what occurs during that stage?

A

Occurs between ages 12 to adulthood.

People in this stage are capable of abstract thinking, they are able to understand concepts with no physical reality (abstract concepts).

They also engage in hypothetical thinking in possibilities and impossibilities.

81
Q

How have some of Jean Piaget’s theories being put into practice?

A

Educators have allowed children to learn at their own pace, by “hands-on” experience with objects, and by teaching concepts that are at the appropriate cognitive level for those children.

82
Q

What are some criticisms of Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory?

A

That cognitive development is more continuous and gradual, rather than jumping from one stage to another.

Other research has also shown that preschoolers are not as egocentric as Piaget believed (during the preoperational stage), and that object permanence exists much earlier than Piaget thought.

83
Q

In language development for infants, does language production precede language comprehension?

A

No, infants are shown to comprehend languages from around 8 to 10 months after birth, whereas production of language only occurs from around 11 to 13 months after birth.

84
Q

What are the 5 stages of language development in infants and children?

A

Cooing - ‘ooo’, ‘aaah’
Babbling - ‘mama’, ‘dada’
One-Word Speech ‘milk’, ‘dog’
Telegraphic Speech ‘mommy go’, ‘doggy bye-bye’
Whole Sentences

85
Q

What are holophrases and in which stage of language development in infants is it present in?

A

Holophrases are words that represent an entire phrase of meaning.

It is present during the one-word speech stage.

86
Q

What are morphemes and in which stage of language development in infants is it present in?

A

Morphemes are the smallest unit of language that has its own meaning (e.g. “-s” plural).

It is present in the whole sentences stage.

87
Q

What is overregularization and in which stage of language development in infants is it present in?

A

It is when a regular grammatical pattern is applied to an irregular word (e.g. ‘sleeped’ instead of ‘slept’).

It is present in the whole sentences stage.

88
Q

What is attachment?

A

The emotional bond that forms between a primary caregiver and an infant.

89
Q

Why is attachment important in infants?

A

It lays the foundation for other close relationships as the infant grows from infancy, to childhood and eventually adulthood.

90
Q

When does attachment form in infants?

A

It usually forms within the first 6 months of the infant’s life. It also appears during the next second 6 months.

91
Q

What is stranger anxiety?

A

The wariness of strangers, it is usually present in infants.

92
Q

What is separation anxiety?

A

The fear of being separated from the caregiver, usually present in infants.

93
Q

Is human attachment innate or learnt?

A

Behaviourists believe that attachment is learnt through operant conditioning (i.e. food as a primary reinforcer & the caregiver being the secondary reinforcer providing food).

However, other psychologists such as John Bowlby, believed that attachment is innate, as the caregivers provide security and comfort, or contact comfort.

94
Q

What is contact comfort?

A

Contact comfort refers to the stimulation and reassurance derived from physical touch of a caregiver.

95
Q

Mary Ainsworth devised an experimental design to measure the attachment of an infant to the caregiver through an experiment called ‘The Strange Situation’. What were the 4 different attachment styles identified?

A

Secure, Avoidant, Ambivalent and Disorganised-Disoriented.

96
Q

Describe the secure attachment style as described by Mary Ainsworth.

A

The infant was comfortable with caregiver & willing to explore new experiences.

When a stranger arrives, infants were wary but calm as long as the mother was nearby. It gets upset after the mother leaves, however was easily soothed after mother returned.

97
Q

Describe the avoidant attachment style as described by Mary Ainsworth.

A

Somewhat willing to explore, however did not do so, and seemed to have no interest or concern in contact with caregiver.

It did not react strongly to the presence/absence of mother or stranger.

98
Q

Describe the ambivalent attachment style as described by Mary Ainsworth.

A

Appeared to have very mixed feelings, very clingy and unwilling to explore to caregiver.

Very upset by stranger regardless of mother’s presence, and when mother left, protested heavily and were hard to soothe afterwards.

99
Q

Describe the disorganised-disoriented attachment style as described by Mary Ainsworth.

A

Unable to decide how to react, and disorganised in their behaviour. It was unsure how to react to the reunion with the caregiver.

Generally fearful and showed a dazed, depressed look on their faces.

100
Q

What is the theory of mind?

A

Theory of mind is a term that refers to the ability to understand your own mental states, such as beliefs, intentions, and desires, as well as the mental states of others.

101
Q

What is autism spectrum disorder?

A

Autism spectrum disorder is a neurodevelopmental disorder that causes problems in thinking, feeling, language, and social skills in relating to others.

102
Q

How does the results of a Sally-Anne test suggest an absence of theory of mind?

A

If they were unable to accurately determine Sally’s perspective during the test, it would suggest that there is an absence of theory of mind.

103
Q

What are the 4 different parenting styles as outlined by Diana Baumrind?

A

Authoritarian Permissive-Neglectful, Permissive-Indulgent, and Authoritative.

104
Q

Describe the authoritarian style of parenting.

A

Overly concerned with rules, the parent is stern, rigid, controlling, and uncompromising.

They demand perfection from the children and tend to use physical punishment.

105
Q

Describe the personality of the child who is subject to an authoritarian style of parenting.

A

Children are usually insecure, timid, withdrawn, and resentful.

It may lead to them rebelling as teenagers in negative and self-destructive ways.

106
Q

Describe the permissive neglectful style of parenting.

A

Parents are not involved with their children, they either ignore them or allow them to do whatever they want.

Parents only act when the child interferes with what the parent wants.

107
Q

Describe the personality of the child who is subject to a permissive neglectful style of parenting.

A

Similarly to permissive indulgent, children tend to be selfish, immature, dependent and lacking in social skills.

May lead to an abusive relationship between the parent and the child.

108
Q

Describe the permissive indulgent style of parenting.

A

The parent is too involved with their children and allows children to behave in any way they wish.

The parent also refuses to set limits on the child’s behaviour.

109
Q

Describe the personality of the child who is subject to a permissive indulgent style of parenting.

A

Similarly to permissive neglective, children tend to be selfish, immature, dependent and lacking in social skills.

110
Q

Describe the authoritative style of parenting.

A

Parents are more democratic, allowing child to have input, but still maintaining the role of decision maker.

Parents set limits that are clear and understandable, and if the child crosses the limits, the parents allow an explanation and then agree upon the right way to handle the situation.

111
Q

Describe the personality of the child who is subject to an authoritative indulgent style of parenting.

A

Children tend to be self-reliant and independent.

112
Q

According to Erik Erikson, what are the 8 different psychosocial stages of human development which occur throughout a human’s life?

A

(1) Infant (Trust vs. Mistrust)
(2) Toddler (Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt)
(3) Preschool Age (Initiative vs. Guilt)
(4) Elementary School Age (Industry vs. Inferiority)
(5) Adolescence (Identity vs. Role Confusion)
(6) Early Adulthood (Intimacy vs. Isolation)
(7) Middle Adulthood (Generativity vs. Stagnation)
(8) Late Adulthood (Ego Integrity vs. Despair)

113
Q

Describe the ‘Trust vs. Mistrust’ stage of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development.

A

Occurs from birth to about 1 year old.

Infants learn a basic sense of trust
dependent upon how their needs are met.

They develop trust if the needs are met and mistrust if they are not met.

114
Q

Describe the ‘Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt’ stage of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development.

A

Occurs from 1 year old to about 3 years old.

Toddlers begin to understand that they can control their own actions.

Dependent on whether they are able to control their own actions, they either develop independence for succeeding or self-doubt and shame for failing.

115
Q

Describe the ‘Initiative vs. Guilt’ stage of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development.

A

Occurs from 3 years old to about 5 years old.

Preschool children learn to take
responsibility for their own behaviour as they develop self-control.

Dependent on whether they succeed or fail in controlling their reactions and behaviour, they can either develop a sense of initiative or a sense of guilt.

116
Q

Describe the ‘Industry vs. Inferiority’ stage of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development.

A

Occurs from 5 years old to about 12 years old.

The child must learn new skills in both the academic world and the social world. They compare themselves to others to measure their success or failure.

They develop a sense of industry, making them feel competent and improving their self-esteem or inferiority dependent on their success or failure.

117
Q

Describe the ‘Identity vs. Role Confusion’ stage of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development.

A

Occurs from 13 years old to the early 20s.

Adolescents must decide who they are, what they believe, and what they want to be as an adult.

Dependent on their ability to define their own values, goals, and beliefs, they will either develop a stable sense of identity or they remain confused and may either isolate themselves or try to act like everyone else instead of themselves.

118
Q

Describe the ‘Intimacy vs. Isolation’ stage of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development.

A

Occurs from the 20s to the 30s.

Young adults face the task of finding a person with whom they can share their identity in an ongoing, close, personal relationship.

Dependent on their ability to find someone, they may develop a fulfilling relationship founded on psychological intimacy or isolate themselves and experience loneliness.

119
Q

Describe the ‘Generativity vs. Stagnation’ stage of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development.

A

Occurs during the 40s and 50s.

The focus is to find ways to be a creative, productive person who is nurturing the next generation.

Adults able to focus will be productive and creative, whereas those unable will remain stagnated and self-centred.

120
Q

Describe the ‘Ego Integrity vs. Despair’ stage of Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development.

A

Involves coming to terms with the end of life, reaching a sense of wholeness and acceptance of life.

Dependent on their ability to come to terms with their lives, they may feel a sense of completion or a sense of despair and regret.

121
Q

What is puberty?

A

Physical changes (physical maturation) occur in both primary sex characteristics (growth of sex organs such as the penis and uterus) and secondary sex characteristics (changes in the body such as development of breasts and body hair).

122
Q

How does puberty occur?

A

Puberty occurs as the result of glandular activities involving the pituitary, thyroid, adrenal, and sex glands, often beginning 2 years after the growth spurt, where a rapid period of growth takes place at around age 10 for girls and around age 12 for boys.

123
Q

The amygdala (‘feeling part’) is fully developed in adolescents, whereas the frontal lobe (‘thinking part’) is not yet fully developed. What are some of the functions of the prefrontal lobe?

A

It is responsible in part for impulse control, decision making, and the organization and understanding of information.

124
Q

What are some reasons as to why adolescents might participate in sensation-seeking as well as risky activities?

A

It may be due to an increase in estrogen and testosterone (hormones) and due to the frontal lobe & cortex not being fully developed.

125
Q

What are some hypothetical situations that adolescents might think about according to Jean PIaget’s cognitive development theory?

A

They might think of both possibilities and impossibilities or what an ‘ideal world’ would be like.

126
Q

Why does egocentrism appear in adolescents?

A

It may be due to the preoccupation (extreme or excessive concern) with their own thoughts.

They do a lot of introspection and may become convinced that their thoughts are as important to others as they are to themselves.

127
Q

What is a personal fable?

A

Personal fables are a type of thought common to adolescents in which they believe themselves to be unique and protected from harm (be it physical or emotional). They become convinced that they are special, one of a kind, and that no one else has ever had these thoughts and feelings before them.

128
Q

What is an imaginary audience?

A

Imaginary audience is also a common thought to adolescents, where they believe that other people are just as concerned about their thoughts and characteristics as they are themselves.

Essentially, this means that they believe that they are always at the centre of attention, including in everyone else’s worlds.

129
Q

What is James Marcia’s identity status theory?

A

In Marcia’s theory, identity is operationally defined as whether an individual has explored various alternatives and made firm commitments to an occupation, religion, sexual orientation, and a set of political values.

Based on these factors, they are grouped into four different identity statuses.

130
Q

What are the four identity statuses in James Marcia’s identity status theory?

A

Identity Achievement, Identity Moratorium, Identity Foreclosure and Identity Diffusion.

131
Q

Describe the identity achievement status based on James Marcia’s theory.

A

The individual has thoroughly explored different options of personal beliefs, values, and interests and has also made a commitment to beliefs he deems worthy.

132
Q

Describe the identity moratorium status based on James Marcia’s theory.

A

The individual has thoroughly explored different options of personal beliefs, values, and interests but has not made any commitments to their identity. They can be described as still actively exploring identity options prior to making the commitment.

133
Q

Describe the identity foreclosure status based on James Marcia’s theory.

A

The individual has not explored any personal beliefs, values, or interests but has already made a commitment to certain beliefs or identity. This may be due to conformity to values of others (e.g. parents, peers).

134
Q

Describe the identity diffusion status based on James Marcia’s theory.

A

The individual has not explored any personal beliefs, values, or interests and has not made any commitments to any identity.

This undeveloped identity may be due to a lack of interest in such matters, or an indecision about them.

HP1000 (12 decks)

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